CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION

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DISCLAIMER:-

This chapter has been prepared for educational and examination-preparation purposes. The theory and original practice questions are intended to support students studying Cell Cycle and Cell Division for NEET-UG.

Previous-year question references are attributed to the examination name and year wherever identified. Some question wording may have been standardised for readability. Readers should consult the relevant official question papers and answer keys for authoritative verification.

Although reasonable care has been taken to ensure accuracy, the author does not guarantee that all information, question classifications or examination references are error-free. The author shall not be responsible for errors, omissions or any consequences arising from the use of this material.

This resource is independently prepared for educational purposes and is not affiliated with or endorsed by the National Testing Agency (NTA), the National Medical Commission (NMC) or any other examination authority.

Author: Shailendra Kumar Verma

PART 1: COMPLETE THEORY

1. INTRODUCTION TO CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION

All living organisms are composed of cells. New cells arise from pre-existing cells through cell division. Cell division is essential for growth, repair, replacement of damaged cells, reproduction, and the continuity of life.

In unicellular organisms, cell division usually results in reproduction. In multicellular organisms, it supports growth, tissue repair, and the replacement of old or damaged cells.

The sequence of events through which a cell grows, duplicates its genetic material, and divides into daughter cells is called the cell cycle.

Cell division is broadly classified into two major types:

  1. Mitosis: Produces daughter cells that generally retain the chromosome number of the parent cell.
  2. Meiosis: Reduces the chromosome number by half and is involved in sexual reproduction.

Before examining the stages of cell division, it is essential to understand chromosomes, DNA replication, and the cell cycle.

2. IMPORTANT TERMS

Cell cycle: The ordered sequence of growth, DNA replication and division through which a cell passes.

Chromosome: A DNA-containing structure associated with proteins that carries genetic information.

Chromatin: The DNA-protein material that forms chromosomes. It is generally less condensed during interphase.

Chromatid: One of the DNA-containing copies of a replicated chromosome. Sister chromatids remain attached, especially at the centromere, until they separate.

Centromere: The chromosome region where sister chromatids remain associated and where the kinetochore forms.

Kinetochore: A protein structure assembled at the centromere that enables spindle microtubules to attach to the chromosome.

Spindle fibres: Microtubules involved in chromosome movement during cell division.

Cytokinesis: Division of the cytoplasm to form separate daughter cells.

Karyokinesis: Division of the nucleus.

Homologous chromosomes: A pair of chromosomes carrying the same types of genes at corresponding loci, one usually inherited from each parent in a diploid organism.

Synapsis: Pairing of homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis.

Crossing over: Exchange of corresponding DNA segments between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes during meiosis.

Chiasma (plural: chiasmata): The visible manifestation of a crossing-over connection between homologous chromosomes during later stages of prophase I.

Diploid (2n): A cell containing two sets of chromosomes.

Haploid (n): A cell containing one set of chromosomes.

Checkpoints: Regulatory mechanisms that help determine whether a cell can proceed to the next stage of the cell cycle.

3. THE CELL CYCLE

The cell cycle consists of two major phases:

  1. Interphase
  2. M phase (mitotic phase)

Interphase includes G1, S, and G2 phases. The M phase includes nuclear division and, usually, cytoplasmic division.

3.1 Interphase

Interphase is the period between successive cell divisions. It is traditionally divided into three phases:

G1 phase

S phase

G2 phase

Although chromosomes are not usually visible as distinct structures under an ordinary light microscope during interphase, the cell is metabolically active.

Interphase is not a resting phase. It involves growth, biosynthesis, DNA replication, and preparation for division.

3.2 G1 Phase (First Gap Phase)

G1 is the period between the completion of the previous M phase and the beginning of DNA replication.

Major events include:

Cell growth.

Synthesis of RNA and proteins.

Production of enzymes required for DNA replication.

Increase in the number of cell components and organelles.

Preparation for the S phase.

The cell assesses whether conditions are suitable for DNA replication and further division.

Some cells exit the active cell cycle and enter a non-dividing state called G0 phase.

Examples include many mature nerve cells and certain other differentiated cells. The ability to re-enter the cell cycle varies with cell type and physiological conditions.

3.3 S Phase (Synthesis Phase)

The S phase is the period during which DNA replication takes place.

Important events include:

Duplication of nuclear DNA.

Formation of sister chromatids for each replicated chromosome.

Duplication of the centrosome in typical animal cells.

Critical NEET concept: DNA content doubles during the S phase, but the chromosome number, counted by centromeres, generally remains unchanged until sister chromatids separate.

For example, in a diploid cell with 2n = 46 chromosomes:

Before S phase: 46 chromosomes and 46 chromatids.

After S phase: 46 replicated chromosomes and 92 sister chromatids.

The DNA content increases from 2C to 4C, where C represents the DNA content of one haploid genome.

3.4 G2 Phase (Second Gap Phase)

G2 follows DNA replication and precedes mitosis.

Major events include:

Further cell growth.

Synthesis of proteins required for mitosis.

Preparation of cellular structures for chromosome segregation.

Checking and repair of DNA damage where possible.

The cell prepares to distribute its replicated chromosomes accurately between daughter cells.

3.5 M Phase

The M phase is the phase of actual cell division.

It includes:

  1. Karyokinesis.
  2. Cytokinesis.

Karyokinesis is conventionally divided into four stages:

Prophase.

Metaphase.

Anaphase.

Telophase.

In many textbooks, the early stages of mitosis are described with additional detail, including prometaphase. For NEET preparation, the standard four-stage classification is especially important.

4. MITOSIS

Mitosis is a type of cell division in which one parent nucleus divides to form two daughter nuclei that generally contain the same chromosome number as the parent nucleus.

In a typical diploid somatic cell, mitosis produces two diploid daughter cells.

Mitosis is also called equational division because the chromosome number is maintained.

4.1 Importance of Mitosis

Mitosis performs several essential functions:

  1. Growth of multicellular organisms.
  2. Replacement of old and damaged cells.
  3. Wound healing and tissue repair.
  4. Asexual reproduction in many organisms.
  5. Maintenance of chromosome number across successive cell generations.
  6. Genetic continuity between parent and daughter cells, barring mutations or other changes.

4.2 Prophase

Prophase is the first major stage of mitosis.

Important events include:

Chromatin condenses to form visible chromosomes.

Each replicated chromosome consists of two sister chromatids.

The nucleolus gradually disappears.

The mitotic spindle begins to form.

In typical animal cells, centrosomes move towards opposite poles.

As mitosis progresses, the chromosomes become more compact and easier to distinguish.

NEET point: Chromosome condensation begins during prophase.

4.3 Prometaphase

In the detailed description of mitosis, prometaphase follows prophase.

Major events include:

Breakdown of the nuclear envelope.

Attachment of spindle microtubules to kinetochores.

Movement of chromosomes towards the equatorial region.

Some textbooks include these events in the broader description of prophase.

NEET point: Spindle microtubules attach to kinetochores, not to telomeres.

4.4 Metaphase

Metaphase is the stage during which chromosomes align at the equatorial plane of the cell.

Major events include:

Chromosomes attain a highly condensed state.

Chromosomes become arranged at the metaphase plate.

Sister chromatids remain attached to each other.

Spindle microtubules connect with chromosome kinetochores.

The position of chromosomes at the equator allows their genetic material to be distributed accurately.

NEET point: The best stage for studying chromosome morphology is generally metaphase because chromosomes are maximally condensed and clearly visible.

4.5 Anaphase

Anaphase begins when sister chromatids separate.

Major events include:

Cohesion between sister chromatids is released.

Centromeric regions separate in typical mitosis.

Sister chromatids move towards opposite poles.

Each separated chromatid is now regarded as an individual chromosome.

The separation of sister chromatids ensures that each daughter nucleus receives one copy of each replicated chromosome.

Important distinction: During anaphase, the chromosome number within the undivided cell is temporarily counted differently because the separated sister chromatids are now individual chromosomes.

For example, in a human somatic cell, 46 replicated chromosomes are present before anaphase. Once sister chromatids separate, 92 individual chromosomes are present temporarily within the same cell, with 46 moving towards each pole.

4.6 Telophase

Telophase is the final major stage of mitosis.

Major events include:

Chromosomes reach opposite poles.

Chromosomes begin to decondense.

Nuclear envelopes re-form around the chromosome sets.

Nucleoli reappear.

The spindle apparatus disassembles.

At the end of telophase, two daughter nuclei have formed.

4.7 Cytokinesis

Cytokinesis divides the cytoplasm and usually follows nuclear division.

In animal cells:

A cleavage furrow develops.

A contractile ring helps constrict the cell membrane.

The parent cell separates into two daughter cells.

In plant cells:

The rigid cell wall prevents the formation of a typical cleavage furrow.

Golgi-derived vesicles gather in the centre of the cell.

These vesicles fuse to form a cell plate.

The cell plate expands outwards and develops into the new partition between daughter cells.

NEET comparison:

FeatureAnimal cellPlant cell
CytokinesisCleavage furrowCell plate
Direction of developmentInward constrictionGenerally from centre towards the periphery
Main mechanismContractile ringFusion of vesicles and cell plate formation

4.8 Significance of Mitosis

Mitosis maintains genetic continuity, supports organismal growth, replaces damaged cells, and enables asexual reproduction in many organisms.

However, mitosis alone does not create the normal reduction in chromosome number required for sexual reproduction.

5. Meiosis

Meiosis is a specialised type of cell division in which one round of DNA replication is followed by two successive nuclear divisions.

It usually produces four haploid products from one diploid parent cell, although the number of functional gametes or spores ultimately formed depends on the organism and its reproductive biology.

Meiosis consists of:

  1. Meiosis I.
  2. Meiosis II.

Meiosis I is reductional division because homologous chromosomes separate, reducing the chromosome-set number from diploid to haploid.

Meiosis II is equational division because sister chromatids separate without a further reduction in chromosome-set number.

5.1 Importance of Meiosis

Meiosis is essential because it:

Reduces the chromosome-set number in reproductive cells.

Helps maintain the characteristic chromosome number of a species across sexual generations.

Generates genetic variation through crossing over.

Produces new combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes through independent assortment.

Supports sexual reproduction and evolution.

5.2 Meiosis I

Meiosis I is divided into prophase I, metaphase I, anaphase I, and telophase I.

Prophase I is especially important because homologous chromosomes pair and crossing over occurs.

5.3 Prophase I: Five Substages

Prophase I is divided into five substages:

  1. Leptotene.
  2. Zygotene.
  3. Pachytene.
  4. Diplotene.
  5. Diakinesis.

A. Leptotene

During leptotene:

Chromosomes begin to condense.

Thin, thread-like chromosomes become visible.

Chromosomes are progressively organised into recognisable structures.

NEET point: Chromosomes become progressively visible during leptotene.

B. Zygotene

During zygotene:

Homologous chromosomes pair with each other.

This pairing is called synapsis.

The synaptonemal complex develops between paired homologous chromosomes.

A pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called a bivalent.

NEET point: Synapsis occurs during zygotene.

C. Pachytene

During pachytene:

Chromosomes become shorter and thicker.

Synapsis is generally complete.

Crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

Recombination nodules are associated with sites of genetic recombination.

A bivalent contains two homologous chromosomes and four chromatids; it is therefore also called a tetrad.

NEET point: Crossing over occurs during pachytene.

D. Diplotene

During diplotene:

The synaptonemal complex disassembles.

Homologous chromosomes begin to separate.

They remain connected at visible chiasmata, which are associated with previous crossing-over events.

In certain organisms, oocytes may remain arrested for extended periods at a stage of diplotene.

NEET point: Chiasmata become clearly visible during diplotene.

E. Diakinesis

During diakinesis:

Chromosomes become highly condensed.

Chiasmata move towards the ends of chromosomes in a process called terminalisation.

The nucleolus disappears.

The nuclear envelope breaks down as the cell prepares for metaphase I.

NEET point: Terminalisation of chiasmata is characteristic of diakinesis.

5.4 Metaphase I

During metaphase I:

Homologous chromosome pairs align at the equatorial plane.

Each homolog is oriented towards an opposite pole.

The orientation of different pairs contributes to independent assortment.

Important distinction: Homologous chromosomes align as pairs during metaphase I. Individual replicated chromosomes align at the metaphase plate during mitotic metaphase.

5.5 Anaphase I

During anaphase I:

Homologous chromosomes separate.

One homolog from each pair moves towards each pole.

Sister chromatids generally remain attached.

Centromeres do not undergo the usual separation seen in anaphase of mitosis or anaphase II.

As a result, the chromosome-set number is reduced.

NEET point: Homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I.

5.6 Telophase I

During telophase I:

Homologous chromosomes reach opposite poles.

Nuclear envelopes may re-form, depending on the organism.

Cytokinesis may occur.

Two haploid cells or nuclei are produced.

Each chromosome still consists of two sister chromatids.

5.7 Interkinesis

Interkinesis is the interval between meiosis I and meiosis II in organisms where such an interval occurs.

It is not equivalent to a complete interphase.

Critical point: No new round of DNA replication occurs between meiosis I and meiosis II.

5.8 Meiosis II

Meiosis II resembles mitosis in the way sister chromatids separate, but it begins with haploid cells whose chromosomes are still replicated.

Prophase II

Chromosomes condense if they had partially decondensed.

The spindle apparatus forms.

Nuclear envelopes, if present, break down.

Metaphase II

Chromosomes align individually at the equatorial plane.

Sister chromatids are oriented towards opposite poles.

Anaphase II

Sister chromatids separate.

Centromeric cohesion is released.

The separated chromatids move towards opposite poles.

NEET point: Centromeres separate during anaphase II.

Telophase II

Chromosomes reach the poles.

Nuclear envelopes re-form where applicable.

Chromosomes decondense.

Cytokinesis produces the final cellular products.

Meiosis typically generates four haploid products, with genetic differences resulting from recombination and chromosome assortment.

6. Mitosis Versus Meiosis

FeatureMitosisMeiosis
Number of nuclear divisionsOneTwo
DNA replication before divisionOne roundOne round before meiosis I
Synapsis of homologous chromosomesAbsentPresent during prophase I
Crossing overNot a normal feature of mitosisOccurs during prophase I
Homologous chromosome separationNot the defining eventAnaphase I
Sister chromatid separationAnaphaseAnaphase II
Chromosome-set numberGenerally maintainedReduced during meiosis I
Typical productsTwo daughter cellsFour haploid products
Genetic similarityUsually very similarUsually genetically different
Major biological roleGrowth and repairSexual reproduction and genetic variation

7. Chromosome Number and DNA Content

This is one of the most important numerical concepts in this chapter.

Let a diploid cell contain 2n = 4 chromosomes.

StageChromosome numberChromatid statusDNA content
G1 phase4Four unreplicated chromosomes2C
After S phase4Eight sister chromatids4C
Metaphase of mitosis4Eight sister chromatids4C
Anaphase of mitosis, within the undivided cell8Sister chromatids have separated4C
Each daughter cell after mitosis4Four unreplicated chromosomes2C
After S phase before meiosis I4Eight sister chromatids4C
Metaphase I4Eight sister chromatids4C
Each product after meiosis I2Four sister chromatids2C
Each product after meiosis II2Two unreplicated chromosomes1C

Here, C represents the DNA content of one haploid genome.

The table assumes normal division without errors and uses chromosome number counted by centromeres. It describes a typical diploid cell and should not be applied without adjustment to organisms with unusual life cycles.

Remember these rules:

DNA replication doubles DNA content but does not immediately double chromosome number.

Separation of sister chromatids increases the chromosome count within the still-undivided cell.

Meiosis I separates homologous chromosomes.

Meiosis II separates sister chromatids.

DNA does not replicate again between meiosis I and meiosis II.

8. REGULATION OF THE CELL CYCLE

Cell-cycle progression is controlled by regulatory proteins and checkpoints.

8.1 G1 Checkpoint

The G1 checkpoint assesses cell size, nutrients, growth signals, and DNA integrity before the cell proceeds towards DNA replication.

8.2 G2 Checkpoint

The G2 checkpoint helps ensure that DNA replication has been completed and that significant DNA damage is addressed before mitosis.

8.3 Spindle Assembly Checkpoint

This checkpoint helps prevent the cell from proceeding into chromosome separation until chromosomes have achieved appropriate spindle attachment.

Defects in cell-cycle regulation may contribute to uncontrolled cell proliferation and cancer.

9. QUICK REVISION: HIGH-YIELD NEET FACTS

  1. Interphase consists of G1, S, and G2 phases.
  2. DNA replication occurs during the S phase.
  3. G0 is a quiescent state outside the active cell-cycle sequence.
  4. Mitosis includes prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.
  5. Chromosomes are highly condensed during metaphase.
  6. Spindle microtubules attach to kinetochores.
  7. Animal-cell cytokinesis occurs through cleavage-furrow formation.
  8. Plant-cell cytokinesis generally involves cell-plate formation.
  9. Synapsis occurs during zygotene.
  10. Crossing over occurs during pachytene.
  11. Chiasmata become visible during diplotene.
  12. Terminalisation of chiasmata is associated with diakinesis.
  13. Homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I.
  14. Sister chromatids separate during anaphase II.
  15. No DNA replication occurs between meiosis I and meiosis II.
  16. Meiosis I is reductional division.
  17. Meiosis II is equational division.
  18. Mitosis generally preserves chromosome number.
  19. Meiosis contributes to genetic variation.
  20. DNA content and chromosome number are not interchangeable measurements.

PART 2: NEET PREVIOUS-YEAR QUESTIONS (PYQs)

Question 1. DNA Synthesis During the Cell Cycle

Examination: NEET-UG 2016, Phase 2
Topic: Interphase

During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA synthesis take place?

A. G1 phase
B. S phase
C. G2 phase
D. M phase

Correct Answer: B. S phase

Explanation: DNA replication occurs during the synthesis (S) phase of interphase. The DNA content doubles, but the chromosome number generally remains unchanged because the replicated sister chromatids remain attached.

NEET takeaway: S phase = DNA synthesis.

Question 2. Attachment of Spindle Fibres

Examination: NEET-UG 2016, Phase 1
Topic: Chromosome structure and mitosis

During mitosis, spindle fibres attach to which chromosome structure?

A. Telomere
B. Kinetochore
C. Nucleolus
D. Nuclear envelope

Correct Answer: B. Kinetochore

Explanation: The kinetochore is a protein structure assembled at the centromeric region of a chromosome. Spindle microtubules attach to kinetochores and help position and separate chromosomes during cell division.

Telomeres are protective structures at chromosome ends and are not the usual attachment sites for spindle microtubules.

NEET takeaway: Spindle microtubules attach to kinetochores.

Question 3. Stages of Meiotic Prophase I

Examination: NEET-UG 2016, Phase 2
Topic: Meiosis

Match the meiotic stages in Column I with their characteristic events in Column II.

Column I

a. Pachytene
b. Metaphase I
c. Diakinesis
d. Zygotene

Column II

i. Pairing of homologous chromosomes
ii. Terminalisation of chiasmata
iii. Crossing over
iv. Alignment of homologous chromosome pairs at the equator

Choose the correct option.

A. a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i
B. a–i, b–iii, c–iv, d–ii
C. a–ii, b–iv, c–iii, d–i
D. a–iv, b–ii, c–i, d–iii

Correct Answer: A. a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i

Explanation:

Pachytene: Crossing over occurs.

Metaphase I: Homologous chromosome pairs align at the equator.

Diakinesis: Terminalisation of chiasmata occurs.

Zygotene: Homologous chromosomes pair through synapsis.

NEET takeaway: Learn the sequence of prophase I stages and their defining events.

Question 4. Separation of Centromeres During Meiosis

Examination: NEET-UG 2021
Topic: Meiosis II

During which stage of meiosis do centromeres normally separate, allowing sister chromatids to move towards opposite poles?

A. Metaphase I
B. Anaphase I
C. Anaphase II
D. Telophase I

Correct Answer: C. Anaphase II

Explanation: During anaphase I, homologous chromosomes separate, but sister chromatids generally remain attached. During anaphase II, sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles.

NEET takeaway:

Anaphase I: Homologous chromosomes separate.

Anaphase II: Sister chromatids separate.

Question 5. Matching Cell-Cycle Phases

Examination: NEET-UG 2021
Topic: Cell-cycle regulation and interphase

Match the cell-cycle phases in Column I with their appropriate descriptions in Column II.

Column I

a. S phase
b. G2 phase
c. G0 phase
d. G1 phase

Column II

i. Synthesis of proteins required for cell division
ii. Quiescent state
iii. Interval between mitosis and the initiation of DNA replication
iv. DNA replication

Choose the correct option.

A. a–iii, b–ii, c–i, d–iv
B. a–iv, b–i, c–ii, d–iii
C. a–ii, b–iv, c–iii, d–i
D. a–i, b–iii, c–iv, d–ii

Correct Answer: B. a–iv, b–i, c–ii, d–iii

Explanation:

S phase: DNA replication.

G2 phase: Preparation for mitosis, including synthesis of required proteins.

G0 phase: Quiescent state outside the active cell-cycle sequence.

G1 phase: Interval between mitosis and the beginning of DNA replication.

NEET takeaway: G1, S, G2, and G0 have different functions.

Question 6. Synapsis During Meiosis

Examination: NEET-UG 2020, Phase 2
Topic: Prophase I

During which stage of meiotic prophase I does synapsis of homologous chromosomes occur?

A. Leptotene
B. Zygotene
C. Pachytene
D. Diplotene

Correct Answer: B. Zygotene

Explanation: Synapsis is the pairing of homologous chromosomes. It occurs during zygotene, when the synaptonemal complex develops between the homologous chromosomes.

During pachytene, crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids.

NEET takeaway: Zygotene = synapsis; pachytene = crossing over.

Question 7. Chromosome Number After DNA Replication

Examination: NEET-UG 2021
Topic: Chromosome number and DNA replication

A fruit fly has eight chromosomes in each diploid cell. If a cell contains eight chromosomes during the G1 phase, how many chromosomes will it normally contain after completing the S phase?

A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32

Correct Answer: B. 8

Explanation: DNA replication occurs during S phase. Each chromosome forms two sister chromatids, but the sister chromatids remain attached.

Therefore:

Before S phase: 8 chromosomes and 8 chromatids.

After S phase: 8 chromosomes and 16 chromatids.

The DNA content doubles, but the chromosome number remains eight.

NEET takeaway: DNA replication does not immediately double chromosome number.

Question 8. Terminalisation of Chiasmata

Examination: NEET-UG 2021
Topic: Prophase I

During which stage of meiotic prophase I is terminalisation of chiasmata characteristically observed?

A. Leptotene
B. Zygotene
C. Diplotene
D. Diakinesis

Correct Answer: D. Diakinesis

Explanation: During diakinesis, chromosomes become highly condensed and chiasmata move towards the ends of chromosomes. This movement is known as terminalisation.

Chiasmata become visible during diplotene, whereas their terminalisation is associated with diakinesis.

NEET takeaway: Diplotene = visible chiasmata; diakinesis = terminalisation.

Question 9. Chromosomes That Do Not Pair During Mitosis

Examination: NEET-UG 2022
Topic: Mitosis versus meiosis

Which of the following events does not normally occur during mitotic cell division?

A. Attachment of spindle microtubules to kinetochores
B. Chromosome condensation
C. Pairing of homologous chromosomes
D. Separation of sister chromatids

Correct Answer: C. Pairing of homologous chromosomes

Explanation: Pairing of homologous chromosomes, called synapsis, is characteristic of prophase I of meiosis. It is not a normal feature of mitosis.

Chromosome condensation, kinetochore attachment, and sister chromatid separation are all associated with mitosis.

NEET takeaway: Synapsis is characteristic of meiosis I, not mitosis.

Question 10. Recombination Nodules

Examination: NEET-UG 2022
Topic: Crossing over

The appearance of recombination nodules on homologous chromosomes during meiosis is associated with which process?

A. Terminalisation of chiasmata
B. Crossing over
C. Separation of sister chromatids
D. Cytokinesis

Correct Answer: B. Crossing over

Explanation: Recombination nodules are protein-containing structures associated with the machinery responsible for genetic recombination during meiosis. Crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes during pachytene.

This process produces new combinations of genetic material.

NEET takeaway: Recombination nodules are associated with crossing over during pachytene.

Question 11. Quiescent Stage of the Cell Cycle

Examination: NEET-UG 2023, Manipur paper
Topic: G0 phase

Which of the following represents the quiescent stage of the cell cycle?

A. G1 phase
B. S phase
C. G2 phase
D. G0 phase

Correct Answer: D. G0 phase

Explanation: Cells in G0 have exited the active cell-cycle sequence. Depending on the cell type and physiological conditions, they may remain quiescent temporarily or for extended periods.

Many mature nerve cells remain outside the active cell cycle under normal conditions.

NEET takeaway: G0 is the quiescent state.

Question 12. Attachment of Spindle Fibres During Mitosis

Examination: NEET-UG 2024
Topic: Mitotic spindle

Spindle fibres attach to the kinetochores of chromosomes during which stage of mitosis?

A. Prophase
B. Prometaphase
C. Telophase
D. Cytokinesis

Correct Answer: B. Prometaphase

Explanation: In the detailed description of mitosis, the nuclear envelope breaks down during prometaphase, allowing spindle microtubules to access the chromosomes and attach to their kinetochores.

Some simplified descriptions include these events within prophase. For examination purposes, distinguish the detailed prometaphase description from the broader four-stage classification of mitosis.

NEET takeaway: Kinetochore attachment becomes established during prometaphase.

Question 13. Main Function of Spindle Fibres

Examination: NEET-UG 2025
Topic: Mitosis

What is the main function of spindle fibres during mitosis?

A. Synthesis of DNA
B. Production of ATP
C. Movement and segregation of chromosomes
D. Formation of ribosomes

Correct Answer: C. Movement and segregation of chromosomes

Explanation: The mitotic spindle is made of microtubules and associated proteins. It helps position chromosomes and separate sister chromatids into the two daughter-cell regions.

DNA replication occurs during S phase, while ribosome production involves structures and processes associated with the nucleolus and other cellular components.

NEET takeaway: The mitotic spindle ensures accurate chromosome segregation.

PART 3: ADDITIONAL NEET-STYLE PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Practice Question 14. DNA Content in G2

A diploid cell contains 2C DNA in G1. What will its DNA content normally be during G2?

A. C
B. 2C
C. 4C
D. 8C

Correct Answer: C. 4C

Explanation: DNA replication occurs during S phase, doubling the DNA content from 2C to 4C. The DNA content remains 4C during G2.

Examination name and year: Not applicable — original practice question.

Practice Question 15. Reductional Division

Which stage of meiosis is directly responsible for reducing the chromosome-set number?

A. Prophase II
B. Metaphase II
C. Anaphase I
D. Anaphase II

Correct Answer: C. Anaphase I

Explanation: Homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I. This leads to the reduction from two chromosome sets to one in the resulting cells.

Examination name and year: Not applicable — original practice question.

Practice Question 16. Plant-Cell Cytokinesis

Which structure develops during cytokinesis in a typical plant cell?

A. Cleavage furrow
B. Cell plate
C. Synaptonemal complex
D. Recombination nodule

Correct Answer: B. Cell plate

Explanation: Golgi-derived vesicles gather and fuse in the middle of the dividing plant cell. Their fusion produces the cell plate, which expands and forms the new partition between daughter cells.

Examination name and year: Not applicable — original practice question.

Practice Question 17. Crossing Over

Crossing over during normal meiosis occurs between:

A. Sister chromatids of the same chromosome
B. Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
C. Two unrelated chromosomes
D. Two centromeres

Correct Answer: B. Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes

Explanation: During pachytene of prophase I, non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes exchange corresponding DNA segments, producing genetic recombination.

Examination name and year: Not applicable — original practice question.

Practice Question 18. DNA Replication Between Meiotic Divisions

Which statement about DNA replication between meiosis I and meiosis II is correct?

A. DNA replication occurs twice.
B. DNA replication occurs immediately before meiosis II.
C. DNA replication does not occur between meiosis I and meiosis II.
D. DNA replication occurs during anaphase I.

Correct Answer: C. DNA replication does not occur between meiosis I and meiosis II.

Explanation: One round of DNA replication takes place before meiosis I. Meiosis II follows without another S phase, allowing sister chromatids to separate.

Examination name and year: Not applicable — original practice question.

PART 4: REPEATED QUESTIONS AND CONCEPTS

ConceptExamination years represented in this selectionKey point
DNA synthesis during the cell cycle2016S phase
Spindle attachment2016, 2024Kinetochores
Synapsis2016, 2020Zygotene
Crossing over2016, 2022Pachytene
Terminalisation of chiasmata2016, 2021Diakinesis
Chromosome number after DNA replication2021Chromosome number remains unchanged during S phase
Centromere separation in meiosis2021Anaphase II
Cell-cycle phases and G02021, 2023G1, S, G2 and G0 have distinct functions
Spindle function2024, 2025Chromosome positioning and segregation

PART 5: ADVANCED THEORY

10. Cell-Cycle Duration

The duration of the cell cycle varies among organisms and cell types.

A rapidly dividing cell may complete its cycle relatively quickly, whereas other cells may divide infrequently or remain in G0 for extended periods.

The duration of the cell cycle can be expressed as:

Total cell-cycle duration = Duration of G1 + Duration of S + Duration of G2 + Duration of M

This equation describes the conventional active cell cycle. If a cell enters G0, the time spent in that state is not ordinarily included in the duration of one active cycle.

Important Points

  1. G1 is often the most variable phase.
  2. DNA replication takes place during S phase.
  3. G2 prepares the cell for mitosis.
  4. M phase includes nuclear division and usually cytokinesis.
  5. Cells that have entered G0 may remain there temporarily or for an extended period.
  6. The duration of each phase depends on the organism, cell type, and environmental conditions.

11. CELL-CYCLE CHECKPOINTS

Checkpoints help regulate the progression of cells through the cell cycle.

11.1 G1/S Checkpoint

This checkpoint helps determine whether the cell is ready to begin DNA replication.

Factors assessed include:

Cell size.

Nutrient availability.

Growth signals.

DNA damage.

If conditions are unsuitable, the cell may delay progression.

11.2 G2/M Checkpoint

This checkpoint helps ensure that DNA replication has been completed and that DNA damage is addressed before mitosis begins.

11.3 Spindle Assembly Checkpoint

The spindle assembly checkpoint helps ensure that chromosomes are appropriately attached to the spindle before sister chromatids separate.

Failure of chromosome segregation can lead to daughter cells with abnormal chromosome numbers.

11.4 Cyclins and Cyclin-Dependent Kinases

Cell-cycle progression is regulated by proteins called cyclins and enzymes known as cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs).

Cyclin concentrations change during the cell cycle, helping control the activity of CDKs. Together, these regulators help coordinate DNA replication, mitosis, and other cell-cycle events.

NEET focus: Understand the roles of checkpoints and cell-cycle regulation without confusing them with the physical stages of mitosis.

12. SIGNIFICANCE OF CROSSING OVER

Crossing over occurs during pachytene of prophase I of meiosis.

It involves the exchange of corresponding DNA segments between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

Importance

  1. Produces new combinations of alleles.
  2. Increases genetic variation among meiotic products.
  3. Contributes to differences among offspring.
  4. Helps establish connections between homologous chromosomes that are important for their proper segregation in meiosis I.

Crossing over does not normally change the chromosome number. Instead, it changes the genetic combinations carried by chromosomes.

13. Independent Assortment

During metaphase I, homologous chromosome pairs align at the equator.

The orientation of each pair is independent of the orientation of other pairs, subject to the usual assumptions of chromosome assortment.

Consequently, maternal and paternal homologues can be distributed into different combinations in the resulting cells.

For an organism with n pairs of homologous chromosomes, the number of possible chromosome combinations arising from independent assortment alone is:

Number of combinations = 2ⁿ

For example, in humans, n = 23.

The number of possible chromosome combinations from independent assortment alone is:

2²³ = 8,388,608

This calculation excludes additional variation caused by crossing over and other sources of genetic diversity.

14. Abnormalities During Cell Division

Errors during cell division may result in abnormal chromosome numbers or chromosome structures.

14.1 Nondisjunction

Nondisjunction occurs when chromosomes or sister chromatids fail to separate properly.

It may occur during meiosis I, meiosis II, or mitosis.

During meiosis I: Homologous chromosomes fail to separate properly.

During meiosis II: Sister chromatids fail to separate properly.

Nondisjunction can produce cells or gametes with abnormal chromosome numbers.

14.2 Aneuploidy

Aneuploidy refers to the gain or loss of one or more individual chromosomes rather than an entire chromosome set.

Examples include:

Monosomy: 2n − 1.

Trisomy: 2n + 1.

These conditions may arise from errors in chromosome segregation.

14.3 Polyploidy

Polyploidy refers to the presence of more than two complete chromosome sets.

For example:

  • Triploidy: 3n.
  • Tetraploidy: 4n.

Polyploidy is particularly important in plant evolution and plant breeding.

14.4 Uncontrolled Cell Division

Disruption of cell-cycle regulation can contribute to uncontrolled cell proliferation.

Cancer can develop when genetic and regulatory changes allow abnormal cells to survive and proliferate despite normal control mechanisms.

15. Visual Revision of Mitosis

The following sequence illustrates the progression from DNA replication to the formation of two daughter cells.

PART 6: ADDITIONAL PREVIOUS-YEAR QUESTIONS

Question 19. Dissolution of the Synaptonemal Complex

Examination: NEET-UG 2023, Manipur paper
Topic: Prophase I of meiosis

The dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during which stage of meiotic prophase I?

A. Leptotene
B. Zygotene
C. Pachytene
D. Diplotene

Correct Answer: D. Diplotene

Explanation: The synaptonemal complex develops during the pairing of homologous chromosomes. It begins to disassemble during diplotene, when homologous chromosomes start separating but remain connected at chiasmata.

Key point: Diplotene is associated with the dissolution of the synaptonemal complex.

Question 20. Doubling of Chromosome Number Through Disrupted Division

Examination: NEET-UG 2023, Manipur paper
Topic: Mitosis and chromosome number

Doubling of the chromosome-set number in a cell can result if mitotic division is disrupted after chromosome duplication but before the cell completes division. Which outcome is most directly associated with failure of cytokinesis?

A. Formation of a cell with two nuclei or an increased chromosome complement
B. Immediate reduction of the chromosome number by half
C. Formation of four haploid cells
D. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes

Correct Answer: A. Formation of a cell with two nuclei or an increased chromosome complement

Explanation: If nuclear division occurs but cytokinesis fails, the cell may retain two nuclei. Depending on subsequent cell-cycle events, this can contribute to an increased chromosome complement.

Failure of cytokinesis is not the same as normal meiosis, which reduces the chromosome-set number.

Question 21. Centromere Separation in Mitosis and Meiosis

Examination: NEET-UG 2023, Manipur paper
Topic: Chromosome segregation

During which stages of mitosis and meiosis, respectively, do centromeres normally separate?

A. Anaphase I and anaphase II
B. Anaphase and anaphase II
C. Metaphase and metaphase I
D. Telophase and telophase I

Correct Answer: B. Anaphase and anaphase II

Explanation: In mitosis, sister chromatids separate during anaphase. In meiosis, sister chromatids remain attached during anaphase I and separate during anaphase II.

Key point: Centromere separation normally occurs during anaphase of mitosis and anaphase II of meiosis.

Question 22. Meiotic Arrest in Oocytes

Examination: NEET-UG 2022, Phase 2
Topic: Diplotene

Which stage of meiosis may last for months or years in the oocytes of some vertebrates?

A. Leptotene
B. Zygotene
C. Pachytene
D. Diplotene

Correct Answer: D. Diplotene

Explanation: In many vertebrates, primary oocytes remain arrested in the diplotene stage of prophase I for an extended period. This arrest can last for months or years, depending on the species.

Question 23. Correct Sequence of Prophase I

Examination: NEET-UG 2022, Phase 2
Topic: Stages of meiosis

Arrange the following events in the correct sequence:

  1. Synapsis of homologous chromosomes.
  2. Chromosomes become gradually visible.
  3. Crossing over between non-sister chromatids.
  4. Terminalisation of chiasmata.
  5. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex.

A. 2 → 1 → 3 → 5 → 4
B. 1 → 2 → 5 → 3 → 4
C. 3 → 2 → 1 → 4 → 5
D. 2 → 3 → 1 → 5 → 4

Correct Answer: A. 2 → 1 → 3 → 5 → 4

Explanation:

Leptotene: Chromosomes become progressively visible.

Zygotene: Synapsis occurs.

Pachytene: Crossing over occurs.

Diplotene: The synaptonemal complex dissolves.

Diakinesis: Terminalisation of chiasmata occurs.

Question 24. Bivalent or Tetrad Formation

Examination: NEET-UG 2022, Phase 2
Topic: Prophase I

Bivalent or tetrad formation is a characteristic feature of which meiotic stage?

A. Leptotene
B. Zygotene
C. Pachytene
D. Anaphase I

Correct Answer: B. Zygotene

Explanation: Homologous chromosomes pair during zygotene to form bivalents. Each bivalent contains two homologous chromosomes. Since each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids, the paired structure contains four chromatids and is also called a tetrad.

The formation of the bivalent begins with synapsis during zygotene, while crossing over occurs during pachytene.

Key point: Synapsis and initial bivalent formation are associated with zygotene.

Question 25. Correct Sequence of Cell-Cycle Events

Examination: NEET-UG 2024
Topic: Cell cycle

Arrange the following events in the correct sequence:

A. Gap 2 phase
B. Cytokinesis
C. Synthesis phase
D. Karyokinesis
E. Gap 1 phase

Choose the correct option.

  1. E → C → A → D → B
  2. C → E → D → A → B
  3. E → B → D → A → C
  4. B → D → E → A → C

Correct Answer: Option 1 — E → C → A → D → B

Explanation: The correct sequence is:

G1 → S → G2 → Karyokinesis → Cytokinesis.

G1: Cell growth and preparation for DNA replication.

S: DNA replication.

G2: Preparation for mitosis.

Karyokinesis: Nuclear division.

Cytokinesis: Cytoplasmic division.

Question 26. Chromosomes Become Visible

Examination: NEET-UG 2024
Topic: Prophase I

Consider the following statements.

Statement I: Chromosomes become gradually visible under a light microscope during the leptotene stage.

Statement II: The beginning of diplotene is recognised by the dissolution of the synaptonemal complex.

Choose the correct answer.

A. Both statements are correct.
B. Both statements are incorrect.
C. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
D. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

Correct Answer: A. Both statements are correct.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct because chromosomes progressively condense and become visible during leptotene.

Statement II is also correct because the synaptonemal complex begins to disassemble during diplotene, allowing homologous chromosomes to start separating while remaining connected at chiasmata.

Question 27. Recombination Between Homologous Chromosomes

Examination: NEET-UG 2024, Re-Examination
Topic: Prophase I

Recombination between homologous chromosomes is completed by the end of which stage of meiotic prophase I?

A. Leptotene
B. Zygotene
C. Pachytene
D. Diakinesis

Correct Answer: C. Pachytene

Explanation: Crossing over between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes occurs during pachytene. This process produces new combinations of alleles.

Diplotene follows pachytene and is characterised by the dissolution of the synaptonemal complex and the visibility of chiasmata.

Question 28. Events During Prophase I

Examination: NEET-UG 2024, Re-Examination
Topic: Substages of prophase I

Match List I with List II.

List I: SubstageList II: Characteristic event
A. DiakinesisI. Synaptonemal complex formation
B. PachyteneII. Terminalisation of chiasmata
C. ZygoteneIII. Chromosomes appear as thin threads
D. LeptoteneIV. Appearance of recombination nodules

Choose the correct matching.

  1. A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
  2. A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
  3. A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II
  4. A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I

Correct Answer: Option 1 — A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III

Explanation:

Diakinesis: Terminalisation of chiasmata.

Pachytene: Recombination nodules are associated with crossing over.

Zygotene: Synaptonemal complex formation and synapsis.

Leptotene: Chromosomes appear as thin threads.

Question 29. Chromosome and Chromatid Count

A diploid cell has 2n = 12 chromosomes. Immediately after DNA replication, how many chromosomes and chromatids are normally present?

A. 12 chromosomes and 12 chromatids
B. 24 chromosomes and 24 chromatids
C. 12 chromosomes and 24 chromatids
D. 24 chromosomes and 12 chromatids

Correct Answer: C. 12 chromosomes and 24 chromatids

Explanation: DNA replication produces two sister chromatids per chromosome. The chromosome number remains 12 because the sister chromatids remain attached.

Question 30. DNA Content After Meiosis I

A diploid cell has a DNA content of 4C after S phase. What is the DNA content of each daughter cell immediately after meiosis I, assuming normal division?

A. C
B. 2C
C. 4C
D. 8C

Correct Answer: B. 2C

Explanation: Meiosis I separates homologous chromosomes. Each resulting haploid cell retains chromosomes consisting of two sister chromatids, so its DNA content is 2C.

After meiosis II, each resulting cell has a DNA content of C.

Question 31. Mitosis and Genetic Continuity

Which statement best describes the usual genetic outcome of mitosis?

A. Four genetically different haploid cells are formed.
B. Two daughter cells generally retain the parent cell’s chromosome number.
C. Homologous chromosomes undergo synapsis.
D. The chromosome number is necessarily reduced by half.

Correct Answer: B. Two daughter cells generally retain the parent cell’s chromosome number.

Explanation: Mitosis distributes replicated chromosomes between two daughter nuclei. It normally preserves chromosome number and genetic continuity, although mutations or chromosome-segregation errors may produce differences.

Question 32. Independent Assortment

Independent assortment of homologous chromosomes primarily results from:

A. DNA replication during G1
B. Random orientation of homologous chromosome pairs during metaphase I
C. Separation of sister chromatids during prophase I
D. Cytokinesis during telophase II

Correct Answer: B. Random orientation of homologous chromosome pairs during metaphase I

Explanation: The orientation of each homologous chromosome pair at metaphase I influences which homolog moves to each pole. The independent orientation of different pairs creates different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes.

Question 33. Meiosis and Genetic Variation

Which pair of processes contributes directly to genetic variation during meiosis?

A. DNA replication and cytokinesis only
B. Crossing over and independent assortment
C. Chromosome condensation and telophase
D. Cleavage-furrow formation and DNA repair

Correct Answer: B. Crossing over and independent assortment

Explanation: Crossing over exchanges DNA between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes. Independent assortment creates different combinations of homologous chromosomes in meiotic products.

Question 34. Failure of Chromosome Segregation

Failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis I is an example of:

A. Synapsis
B. Nondisjunction
C. Cytokinesis
D. Crossing over

Correct Answer: B. Nondisjunction

Explanation: Nondisjunction is the failure of chromosomes or sister chromatids to segregate correctly. When homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis I, the resulting products may contain abnormal chromosome numbers.

Question 35. Chromosome Number During Anaphase of Mitosis

A diploid cell has 2n = 10 chromosomes. How many individual chromosomes are present within the undivided cell after sister chromatids separate during anaphase of mitosis?

A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 40

Correct Answer: C. 20

Explanation: Before anaphase, the cell has 10 replicated chromosomes, each containing two sister chromatids. When the sister chromatids separate, each becomes an individual chromosome. Thus, 20 individual chromosomes are temporarily present in the undivided cell, with 10 moving towards each pole.

PART 8: FINAL REVISION TABLE

Question topicEssential answer
DNA replicationS phase
Cell growth before DNA replicationG1 phase
Preparation for mitosisG2 phase
Quiescent stateG0 phase
Chromosome condensation at the beginning of meiosisLeptotene
SynapsisZygotene
Crossing overPachytene
Dissolution of the synaptonemal complexDiplotene
Visible chiasmataDiplotene
Terminalisation of chiasmataDiakinesis
Homologous chromosome separationAnaphase I
Sister chromatid separation in meiosisAnaphase II
Sister chromatid separation in mitosisAnaphase
Animal-cell cytokinesisCleavage furrow
Plant-cell cytokinesisCell plate
Reductional divisionMeiosis I
Equational divisionMitosis and meiosis II
Genetic variationCrossing over and independent assortment
Failure of chromosome segregationNondisjunction
Gain or loss of individual chromosomesAneuploidy

PART 9: ADVANCED MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS

Question 36. Duration of Interphase

Examination: Original NEET-style practice question — no previous-year attribution.

Which statement about interphase is correct?

A. It is a metabolically inactive period.
B. It includes G1, S, and G2 phases.
C. DNA replication occurs during G2.
D. Chromosome segregation occurs throughout interphase.

Correct Answer: B. It includes G1, S, and G2 phases.

Explanation: Interphase consists of G1, S, and G2 phases. During this period, the cell grows, replicates its DNA, synthesises proteins, and prepares for division. It is metabolically active rather than a resting period.

Question 37. Chromosome Number in Metaphase of Mitosis

Examination: Original NEET

A diploid cell contains 2n = 16 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are present at metaphase of mitosis?

A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64

Correct Answer: B. 16

Explanation: At metaphase, each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids. However, the sister chromatids remain attached, so the chromosome number is still 16. The cell contains 32 chromatids.

Question 38. Chromosome Number After Meiosis I

Examination: Original NEET

A diploid organism has 2n = 20 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are normally present in each cell after meiosis I?

A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 40

Correct Answer: B. 10

Explanation: Meiosis I separates homologous chromosomes and reduces the chromosome-set number from diploid to haploid. Each resulting cell contains 10 chromosomes, each still consisting of two sister chromatids.

Question 39. Cell Plate Formation

Examination: Original NEET

The cell plate formed during plant-cell cytokinesis develops primarily through the fusion of:

A. Lysosomes
B. Golgi-derived vesicles
C. Centrioles
D. Chromosomes

Correct Answer: B. Golgi-derived vesicles

Explanation: Golgi-derived vesicles transport materials needed to form the cell plate. These vesicles gather at the centre of the dividing cell, fuse, and expand towards the cell periphery.

Question 40. Role of the G2 Phase

Examination: Original NEET

Which event is most closely associated with the G2 phase?

A. DNA replication begins for the first time.
B. The cell prepares for mitosis.
C. Homologous chromosomes undergo synapsis.
D. Sister chromatids separate.

Correct Answer: B. The cell prepares for mitosis.

Explanation: G2 follows the S phase. The cell continues to grow, produces proteins required for mitosis, and checks whether DNA replication has been completed.

Question 41. Genetic Material During Crossing Over

Examination: Original NEET

Crossing over during meiosis involves an exchange of genetic material between:

A. Sister chromatids of the same chromosome
B. Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
C. Two centromeres of the same chromosome
D. Unrelated chromosomes during cytokinesis

Correct Answer: B. Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes

Explanation: Crossing over occurs during pachytene of prophase I. It produces recombinant chromatids carrying new combinations of alleles.

Question 42. Reductional Division

Examination: Original NEET

Which statement best explains why meiosis I is called reductional division?

A. DNA content increases during every stage.
B. Homologous chromosomes separate, reducing the chromosome-set number.
C. Sister chromatids separate before homologous chromosomes.
D. The cell produces two diploid daughter cells.

Correct Answer: B. Homologous chromosomes separate, reducing the chromosome-set number.

Explanation: During anaphase I, homologous chromosomes move towards opposite poles. Each resulting cell receives one chromosome from each homologous pair, reducing the chromosome-set number.

Question 43. Chromosome Condensation

Examination: Original NEET

During which stage of mitosis are chromosomes generally maximally condensed and most suitable for examining chromosome morphology?

A. G1 phase
B. Metaphase
C. Telophase
D. Cytokinesis

Correct Answer: B. Metaphase

Explanation: Chromosomes are highly condensed at metaphase and are arranged at the equatorial plane. This makes their size, shape, and centromere position easier to examine.

Question 44. Significance of the Spindle Assembly Checkpoint

Examination: Original NEET

The spindle assembly checkpoint primarily helps prevent:

A. DNA replication during S phase
B. Chromosome separation before appropriate spindle attachment
C. Protein synthesis during G1
D. Chromosome condensation during prophase

Correct Answer: B. Chromosome separation before appropriate spindle attachment

Explanation: The spindle assembly checkpoint helps ensure that chromosomes are appropriately attached to the spindle before the cell proceeds to anaphase. This reduces the risk of chromosome missegregation.

Question 45. Number of DNA Replication Rounds in Meiosis

Examination: Original NEET.

How many rounds of DNA replication normally occur before the completion of meiosis I and meiosis II?

A. Zero
B. One
C. Two
D. Four

Correct Answer: B. One

Explanation: DNA replication occurs once before meiosis I. There is no additional round of DNA replication between meiosis I and meiosis II.

PART 10: ASSERTION–REASON QUESTIONS

Instructions: For each question, select the correct option.

A. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B. Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
D. Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

Question 46. DNA Replication and Chromosome Number

Examination: Original NEET-style practice question — no previous-year attribution.

Assertion (A): The DNA content of a diploid cell doubles during the S phase.

Reason (R): DNA replication produces sister chromatids, which remain attached as parts of replicated chromosomes.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Both statements are true, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion. DNA replication doubles the DNA content, but chromosome number, counted by centromeres, generally remains unchanged during the S phase.

Question 47. Synapsis During Meiosis

Examination: Original NEET-style practice question

Assertion (A): Synapsis is a characteristic event of zygotene during prophase I.

Reason (R): Synapsis involves the pairing of homologous chromosomes.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Both statements are true. During zygotene, homologous chromosomes pair through synapsis, and the synaptonemal complex develops between them.

Question 48. Crossing Over

Examination: Original NEET-style practice question.

Assertion (A): Crossing over contributes to genetic variation.

Reason (R): Crossing over involves an exchange of corresponding DNA segments between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Both statements are true. Crossing over generates new combinations of alleles on chromosomes, contributing to genetic variation.

Question 49. Meiosis II

Examination: Original NEET-style practice question

Assertion (A): Meiosis II is called equational division.

Reason (R): Sister chromatids separate during anaphase II.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Both statements are true. Separation of sister chromatids distributes one chromatid from each replicated chromosome to each pole. The haploid chromosome-set number is maintained through this division.

Question 50. Chromosome Number During Anaphase

Examination: Original NEET-style practice question

Assertion (A): The chromosome number counted within an undivided cell temporarily doubles when sister chromatids separate during mitotic anaphase.

Reason (R): Each separated sister chromatid is counted as an individual chromosome.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Both statements are true. When sister chromatids separate, each becomes an individual chromosome. Thus, the number of chromosomes counted within the undivided cell temporarily doubles, although the chromosomes are distributed towards opposite poles.

Question 51. Cytokinesis in Plant Cells

Examination: Original NEET-style practice question

Assertion (A): Plant-cell cytokinesis generally involves cell-plate formation.

Reason (R): The rigid plant cell wall makes the typical animal-cell cleavage-furrow mechanism unsuitable.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Both statements are true. Plant cells generally form a cell plate that expands towards the periphery and develops into the partition between daughter cells.

Question 52. G0 Phase

Examination: Original NEET-style practice question

Assertion (A): Cells in G0 are outside the active cell-cycle sequence.

Reason (R): Every cell entering G0 permanently loses the ability to divide.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: The Assertion is true, but the Reason is false. Some cells remain quiescent for extended periods, while others may re-enter the cell cycle under suitable conditions. The ability to re-enter depends on the cell type and physiological circumstances.

Question 53. DNA Replication Before Meiosis II

Examination: Original NEET-style practice question — no previous-year attribution.

Assertion (A): DNA replication normally occurs between meiosis I and meiosis II.

Reason (R): Meiosis II separates sister chromatids.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: The Assertion is false, but the Reason is true. No new round of DNA replication occurs between the two meiotic divisions. Sister chromatids separate during meiosis II using the DNA replicated before meiosis I.

PART 11: NUMERICAL AND CHROMOSOME-COUNTING QUESTIONS

Question 54. Chromosome Number After S Phase

Examination: Original NEET-style practice question

A cell contains 2n = 14 chromosomes during G1. What will be its chromosome number and DNA content after completing S phase?

A. 14 chromosomes and 2C DNA
B. 28 chromosomes and 4C DNA
C. 14 chromosomes and 4C DNA
D. 7 chromosomes and 2C DNA

Correct Answer: C. 14 chromosomes and 4C DNA

Explanation: The chromosome number remains 14 because the sister chromatids remain attached. The DNA content doubles from 2C to 4C.

Question 55. Chromosome Number After Meiosis II

Examination: Original NEET-style practice question

A diploid cell contains 2n = 18 chromosomes. Assuming normal meiosis, how many chromosomes will each final haploid product contain?

A. 4
B. 9
C. 18
D. 36

Correct Answer: B. 9

Explanation: The diploid chromosome number is 18, so the haploid number is n = 9. Meiosis reduces the chromosome-set number by half, producing haploid products containing nine chromosomes each.

Question 56. Chromosome Number During Mitotic Anaphase

Examination: Original NEET-style practice question

A cell has 2n = 24 chromosomes. How many individual chromosomes are present within the undivided cell during anaphase of mitosis, after sister chromatids separate?

A. 12
B. 24
C. 48
D. 96

Correct Answer: C. 48

Explanation: The cell initially contains 24 replicated chromosomes, each consisting of two sister chromatids. When the sister chromatids separate, 48 individual chromosomes are temporarily present in the undivided cell, with 24 moving towards each pole.

Question 57. DNA Content After Meiosis II

Examination: Original NEET-style practice question.

A diploid cell contains 2C DNA in G1. What is the expected DNA content of each final haploid product after normal meiosis?

A. C/2
B. C
C. 2C
D. 4C

Correct Answer: B. C

Explanation: The DNA content increases from 2C to 4C during S phase. Following meiosis I, each product contains 2C DNA. Following meiosis II, each final haploid product contains C DNA.

Question 58. Number of Chromatids at Metaphase of Mitosis

Examination: Original NEET-style practice question.

A cell has 2n = 10 chromosomes. How many chromatids are present at metaphase of mitosis?

A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 40

Correct Answer: C. 20

Explanation: Each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids at metaphase. Therefore:

10 chromosomes × 2 chromatids per chromosome = 20 chromatids.

Question 59. Number of Chromosomes After Meiosis I

Examination: Original NEET-style practice question.

An organism has 2n = 30 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are present in each cell after meiosis I?

A. 10
B. 15
C. 30
D. 60

Correct Answer: B. 15

Explanation: Meiosis I separates homologous chromosomes, reducing the chromosome-set number from diploid to haploid. Each daughter cell therefore contains 15 chromosomes, each still consisting of two sister chromatids.

Question 60. Independent Assortment

Examination: Original NEET-style practice question.

An organism has three pairs of homologous chromosomes. Assuming independent assortment and ignoring crossing over, how many different chromosome combinations are possible in its gametes?

A. 3
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16

Correct Answer: C. 8

Explanation: The number of chromosome combinations resulting from independent assortment alone is 2ⁿ, where n is the haploid chromosome number.

Here, n = 3.

2³ = 8 combinations.

PART 12: MATCH-THE-COLUMN QUESTIONS

Question 61. Cell-Cycle Phases

Examination: Original NEET-style practice question — no previous-year attribution.

Match Column I with Column II.

Column IColumn II
A. G1 phaseI. DNA replication
B. S phaseII. Preparation for mitosis
C. G2 phaseIII. Cell growth before DNA replication
D. M phaseIV. Nuclear division and usually cytokinesis

Choose the correct option.

A. A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV
B. A–I, B–III, C–IV, D–II
C. A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
D. A–IV, B–I, C–III, D–II

Correct Answer: A. A–III, B–I, C–II, D–IV

Explanation:

G1: Cell growth before DNA replication.

S: DNA replication.

G2: Preparation for mitosis.

M: Nuclear division and usually cytokinesis.

Question 62. Meiotic Prophase I

Examination: Original NEET-style practice question.

Match the substages with their characteristic events.

Column IColumn II
A. LeptoteneI. Crossing over
B. ZygoteneII. Terminalisation of chiasmata
C. PachyteneIII. Chromosome condensation and thread-like appearance
D. DiakinesisIV. Synapsis

Choose the correct option.

A. A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
B. A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
C. A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
D. A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III

Correct Answer: A. A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II

Explanation:

Leptotene: Chromosomes begin to appear as thin threads.

Zygotene: Synapsis.

Pachytene: Crossing over.

Diakinesis: Terminalisation of chiasmata.

Question 63. Cell Division and Its Functions

Examination: Original NEET-style practice question.

Match the process with its primary characteristic.

Column IColumn II
A. MitosisI. Exchange between non-sister chromatids
B. Meiosis III. Separation of sister chromatids
C. Crossing overIII. Separation of homologous chromosomes
D. Meiosis IIIV. Maintenance of chromosome number in typical daughter cells

Choose the correct option.

A. A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II
B. A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
C. A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I
D. A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III

Correct Answer: A. A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II

Explanation:

Mitosis generally maintains chromosome number.

Meiosis I separates homologous chromosomes.

Crossing over involves exchange between non-sister chromatids.

Meiosis II separates sister chromatids.

PART 13: HIGH-YIELD NEET REVISION NOTES

The Five Stages of Prophase I

Memorise this sequence:

Leptotene → Zygotene → Pachytene → Diplotene → Diakinesis

StageMain event
LeptoteneChromosomes begin to condense and become visible
ZygoteneSynapsis and pairing of homologous chromosomes
PachyteneCrossing over between non-sister chromatids
DiploteneSynaptonemal complex dissolves; chiasmata become visible
DiakinesisTerminalisation of chiasmata and preparation for metaphase I

Three Critical Chromosome-Counting Rules

Rule 1: DNA replication doubles DNA content, not the chromosome number counted by centromeres.

Rule 2: During anaphase of mitosis, separated sister chromatids are counted as individual chromosomes.

Rule 3: Meiosis I separates homologous chromosomes, while meiosis II separates sister chromatids.

Final Quick-Test Questions

  1. Which phase is responsible for DNA replication?
    Answer: S phase.
  2. During which stage does synapsis occur?
    Answer: Zygotene.
  3. During which stage does crossing over occur?
    Answer: Pachytene.
  4. During which stage does terminalisation of chiasmata occur?
    Answer: Diakinesis.
  5. Which meiotic division is reductional?
    Answer: Meiosis I.
  6. Which meiotic division is equational?
    Answer: Meiosis II.
  7. Which structure attaches spindle microtubules to chromosomes?
    Answer: Kinetochore.
  8. What is the characteristic mechanism of cytokinesis in plant cells?
    Answer: Cell-plate formation.
  9. Does DNA replication occur between meiosis I and meiosis II?
    Answer: No.
  10. What is the principal source of new allele combinations through meiotic recombination?
    Answer: Crossing over.

Question 67. If a cell enters mitosis with damaged DNA, which control mechanism may delay progression to allow repair?

A. Cell-cycle checkpoint mechanisms
B. Crossing over
C. Synapsis
D. Independent assortment

Correct Answer: A. Cell-cycle checkpoint mechanisms

Explanation: Cell-cycle checkpoints monitor important cellular events, including DNA integrity. Depending on the type and extent of damage, checkpoint pathways can pause the cycle to permit repair or trigger cell death if the damage cannot be adequately resolved.

Question 68. Which statement correctly describes cyclins during the cell cycle?

A. Their concentrations remain identical throughout the cell cycle
B. They regulate cell-cycle progression by activating specific cyclin-dependent kinases
C. They directly form the cell plate in plant cells
D. They are responsible for crossing over during meiosis

Correct Answer: B. They regulate cell-cycle progression by activating specific cyclin-dependent kinases

Explanation: Cyclins bind to cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) and help regulate transitions between cell-cycle stages. Cyclin levels rise and fall during the cycle, allowing cell-cycle events to occur in a controlled sequence.

Question 69. Which outcome is most likely if homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis I?

A. Every resulting gamete will necessarily be normal
B. Some gametes may contain an abnormal number of chromosomes
C. DNA replication will occur twice in every gamete
D. Mitosis will replace meiosis automatically

Correct Answer: B. Some gametes may contain an abnormal number of chromosomes

Explanation: Failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis I is called nondisjunction. It can produce gametes with extra or missing chromosomes, potentially leading to aneuploidy after fertilisation.

Question 70. A cell completes meiosis I but does not undergo another round of DNA replication before meiosis II. Which statement is correct?

A. DNA replication must occur between meiosis I and meiosis II
B. Meiosis II proceeds without an intervening S phase
C. Meiosis II begins with the duplication of every chromosome
D. Meiosis II is identical to the S phase

Correct Answer: B. Meiosis II proceeds without an intervening S phase

Explanation: Meiosis I is followed by interkinesis in many organisms. DNA replication does not normally occur during interkinesis. Meiosis II separates sister chromatids.

Question 71. A cell has 2n = 8 chromosomes. After normal meiosis I, how many chromosomes should each daughter cell contain?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16

Correct Answer: B. 4

Explanation: Meiosis I is reductional division. Homologous chromosomes separate, reducing the chromosome number from diploid (2n = 8) to haploid (n = 4). Each chromosome still consists of two sister chromatids.

Question 72. Which statement about the G0 phase is correct?

A. Every cell in G0 must immediately enter mitosis
B. Cells in G0 are outside the active cell cycle and may remain there temporarily or permanently
C. DNA replication is always occurring at the maximum rate in G0
D. G0 is the stage in which homologous chromosomes undergo synapsis

Correct Answer: B. Cells in G0 are outside the active cell cycle and may remain there temporarily or permanently

Explanation: Some cells leave the active cell cycle and enter G0. Certain cells can re-enter the cycle when stimulated, whereas others, such as many mature neurons, generally remain non-dividing under normal conditions.

Question 73. Which of the following is an important difference between cytokinesis in plant and animal cells?

A. Plant cells form a cell plate, whereas animal cells generally form a cleavage furrow
B. Animal cells form a cell plate, whereas plant cells form a cleavage furrow
C. Both always use exactly the same mechanism
D. Neither plant nor animal cells undergo cytokinesis

Correct Answer: A. Plant cells form a cell plate, whereas animal cells generally form a cleavage furrow

Explanation: In most plant cells, vesicles assemble at the centre of the dividing cell to form a cell plate that develops into new separating membranes and cell wall material. Animal cells usually divide through a contractile ring that creates a cleavage furrow.

Question 74. Which statement about chromosome number during mitosis is correct?

A. The chromosome number is halved during prophase
B. The chromosome number is halved during metaphase
C. Sister chromatids separate during anaphase, and each separated chromatid is counted as a chromosome
D. Chromosomes disappear permanently during anaphase

Correct Answer: C. Sister chromatids separate during anaphase, and each separated chromatid is counted as a chromosome

Explanation: Before anaphase, each replicated chromosome has two sister chromatids joined at the centromere. Once the sister chromatids separate, each becomes an independent chromosome. The chromosome count within the still-undivided cell therefore temporarily doubles.

Question 75. A cell has 2n = 10 chromosomes and has completed DNA replication. During anaphase of mitosis, before cytokinesis, how many chromosomes are present in the entire cell?

A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 40

Correct Answer: C. 20

Explanation: The cell initially contains 10 replicated chromosomes, each made of two sister chromatids. At anaphase, the sister chromatids separate and are counted as individual chromosomes. Thus, the undivided cell temporarily contains 20 chromosomes, with 10 moving towards each pole.

Question 76. Which event is associated with the formation of a bivalent during meiosis?

A. Pairing of homologous chromosomes
B. Separation of sister chromatids during mitosis
C. Formation of the cleavage furrow
D. Replication of DNA during telophase II

Correct Answer: A. Pairing of homologous chromosomes

Explanation: During prophase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes pair through synapsis. The paired homologues form a bivalent, consisting of two chromosomes and typically four chromatids.

Question 77. A diploid organism has 2n = 14 chromosomes. Assuming normal meiosis and no chromosome-number abnormalities, how many chromosomes will be present in each gamete?

A. 3
B. 7
C. 14
D. 28

Correct Answer: B. 7

Explanation: Meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half. If the diploid number is 14, the haploid number is 7. Therefore, each normal gamete contains seven chromosomes.

Question 78. Which of the following best explains why mitosis is important for growth in multicellular organisms?

A. It normally increases the chromosome number in every daughter cell
B. It produces daughter cells that generally retain the parental cell’s chromosome number
C. It always produces four genetically different daughter cells
D. It reduces the chromosome number by half in every division

Correct Answer: B. It produces daughter cells that generally retain the parental cell’s chromosome number

Explanation: Mitosis distributes replicated chromosomes between two daughter nuclei. It supports growth, tissue maintenance and repair while normally preserving chromosome number.

Question 79. Which statement about genetic variation during sexual reproduction is correct?

A. Meiosis contributes to variation through recombination and independent assortment
B. Mitosis always creates four haploid cells
C. DNA replication alone guarantees that every gamete is genetically identical
D. Cytokinesis is the only source of genetic variation

Correct Answer: A. Meiosis contributes to variation through recombination and independent assortment

Explanation: Crossing over between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes and the independent orientation of homologous pairs during meiosis contribute to genetic variation. Fertilisation introduces additional variation by combining gametes.

Question 80. Which situation most directly indicates a failure of normal chromosome segregation?

A. Each daughter cell receives the expected chromosome complement
B. Homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids fail to separate properly
C. DNA is replicated during the S phase
D. Chromosomes become visible during prophase

Correct Answer: B. Homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids fail to separate properly

Explanation: Correct segregation is necessary to distribute chromosomes accurately. Nondisjunction can occur during meiosis or mitosis when homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids fail to separate as expected.

Question 81. In a typical animal cell, which structure helps organise the spindle poles during cell division?

A. Centrosome
B. Nucleolus
C. Lysosome
D. Golgi vesicle alone

Correct Answer: A. Centrosome

Explanation: In many animal cells, centrosomes act as major microtubule-organising centres and help establish the spindle poles. The spindle microtubules interact with chromosome kinetochores to support chromosome movement.

Question 82. Which statement about DNA replication and meiosis is correct?

A. DNA replication normally occurs before meiosis I, but not between meiosis I and meiosis II
B. DNA replication occurs after every meiotic division
C. DNA replication occurs only during telophase II
D. DNA replication is unnecessary before meiosis I

Correct Answer: A. DNA replication normally occurs before meiosis I, but not between meiosis I and meiosis II

Explanation: DNA is replicated during the premeiotic S phase. Meiosis I separates homologous chromosomes, and meiosis II separates sister chromatids without another intervening round of DNA replication.

Question 83. Why is accurate chromosome segregation essential during cell division?

A. It ensures that daughter cells receive an appropriate chromosome complement
B. It guarantees that every mutation is repaired
C. It prevents DNA replication from occurring in the S phase
D. It eliminates all genetic variation in sexually reproducing organisms

Correct Answer: A. It ensures that daughter cells receive an appropriate chromosome complement

Explanation: Accurate chromosome segregation maintains chromosome number and genome stability. Errors can produce cells with missing or extra chromosomes and may contribute to developmental abnormalities or disease.

QUICK REVISION: QUESTIONS 64–83

  1. S phase: DNA replication occurs.
  2. G0 phase: Cell is outside the active cell cycle.
  3. Spindle assembly checkpoint: Helps ensure correct chromosome attachment before anaphase.
  4. Cyclins and CDKs: Regulate cell-cycle progression.
  5. Meiosis I: Homologous chromosomes separate.
  6. Meiosis II: Sister chromatids separate.
  7. Nondisjunction: Failure of chromosomes or chromatids to separate normally.
  8. Plant cytokinesis: Cell plate formation.
  9. Animal cytokinesis: Cleavage furrow formation.
  10. Genetic variation: Promoted by recombination and independent assortment.
  11. Mitosis: Normally maintains chromosome number in daughter cells.
  12. Meiosis: Reduces chromosome number by half.

Question 84. NEET 2019

Question: During meiosis, at which stage does the separation of paired homologous chromosomes begin?

A. Prophase I
B. Metaphase I
C. Anaphase I
D. Anaphase II

Correct Answer: C. Anaphase I

Explanation: During anaphase I, homologous chromosomes separate and move towards opposite poles. The centromeres do not normally divide at this stage, so sister chromatids remain attached. In anaphase II, sister chromatids separate.

Exam: NEET 2019
Topic: Meiosis I — separation of homologous chromosomes

Question 85. NEET 2017

Question: The Anaphase-Promoting Complex (APC) is required for proper mitosis. What is a likely consequence if APC function is defective?

A. DNA replication will never begin in any cell
B. The normal metaphase-to-anaphase transition may be disrupted
C. Synapsis will occur during mitosis
D. Crossing over will occur in every somatic cell

Correct Answer: B. The normal metaphase-to-anaphase transition may be disrupted

Explanation: APC/C is a protein complex that promotes the degradation of specific regulatory proteins, including securin. This helps activate separase, allowing sister chromatids to separate. A defective APC/C can prevent normal progression into anaphase.

Exam: NEET 2017
Topic: Cell-cycle regulation and mitosis

Question 86. AIPMT 2015 (Cancelled Paper)

Question: A diploid somatic cell has just completed the S phase. Compared with a normal haploid gamete of the same species, which statement is correct?

A. The somatic cell has half the chromosome number and the same DNA content
B. The somatic cell has twice the chromosome number and four times the DNA content
C. The somatic cell has the same chromosome number and twice the DNA content
D. The somatic cell has four times the chromosome number and twice the DNA content

Correct Answer: B. The somatic cell has twice the chromosome number and four times the DNA content

Explanation: A normal haploid gamete has n chromosomes and approximately 1C DNA content. A diploid somatic cell after S phase has 2n chromosomes and approximately 4C DNA content. DNA replication doubles the DNA content without doubling the chromosome count.

Exam: AIPMT 2015 (Cancelled Paper)
Topic: Chromosome number and DNA content

Important: This question refers specifically to a somatic cell that has completed S phase, not a somatic cell in G1.

Question 87. AIPMT 2005

Question: During which phase of the cell cycle are histone proteins synthesised in preparation for chromosome duplication?

A. G1 phase
B. S phase
C. G2 phase only
D. M phase only

Correct Answer: B. S phase

Explanation: Histone proteins help package DNA into chromatin. Their synthesis is closely coordinated with DNA replication so that newly replicated DNA can be packaged appropriately. Histone production is particularly associated with the S phase.

Exam: AIPMT 2005
Topic: Interphase and DNA replication

Question 88. AIPMT 2004

Question: If onion root-tip cells are provided for chromosome counting, which mitotic stage is generally most suitable for observing chromosome number and morphology?

A. Interphase
B. Prophase
C. Metaphase
D. Telophase

Correct Answer: C. Metaphase

Explanation: During metaphase, chromosomes are highly condensed and clearly visible. Their shapes, sizes and numbers can therefore be examined more easily under a microscope.

Exam: AIPMT 2004
Topic: Mitosis and chromosome observation

Question 89. AIPMT 2002

Question: The mitotic spindle is primarily composed of which type of protein?

A. Actin
B. Tubulin
C. Keratin
D. Collagen

Correct Answer: B. Tubulin

Explanation: Spindle microtubules are polymers of tubulin. They form the mitotic spindle, which helps organise and separate chromosomes during cell division.

Exam: AIPMT 2002
Topic: Mitotic spindle

Question 90. AIPMT 1997

Question: How many successive mitotic divisions are required for one cell to produce 128 cells, assuming every division produces two daughter cells and all cells continue dividing?

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8

Correct Answer: C. 7

Explanation: After n successive rounds of mitosis, one starting cell can produce 2ⁿ cells.

For 128 cells:

2ⁿ = 128
2ⁿ = 2⁷
n = 7

Therefore, seven successive rounds of division are required.

Exam: AIPMT 1997
Topic: Numerical problems on mitosis

Question 91. AIPMT 1993

Question: Meiosis II is called equational division because:

A. Homologous chromosomes separate during this division
B. The chromosome number is reduced from diploid to haploid
C. Sister chromatids separate without a further reduction in chromosome-set number
D. DNA replication occurs immediately before meiosis II

Correct Answer: C. Sister chromatids separate without a further reduction in chromosome-set number

Explanation: During meiosis I, homologous chromosomes separate and the chromosome-set number is reduced. During meiosis II, sister chromatids separate. The haploid chromosome-set number is maintained, so meiosis II is called equational division.

Exam: AIPMT 1993
Topic: Meiosis I versus meiosis II

Question 92. AIPMT 1996

Question: In a typical eukaryotic somatic cell cycle, DNA synthesis takes place during:

A. G1 phase
B. S phase
C. G2 phase
D. M phase

Correct Answer: B. S phase

Explanation: The S phase is the synthesis phase of interphase. DNA replication occurs during this phase, preparing the cell for subsequent division.

Exam: AIPMT 1996
Topic: Cell-cycle phases

Question 93. AIPMT 2004

Question: Which statement best explains the effect of colchicine on a dividing cell?

A. It stimulates normal spindle formation
B. It interferes with microtubule formation and may prevent normal chromosome separation
C. It causes DNA replication to occur during telophase
D. It promotes crossing over during mitosis

Correct Answer: B. It interferes with microtubule formation and may prevent normal chromosome separation

Explanation: Colchicine disrupts microtubule polymerisation. Without a properly functioning spindle, chromosomes cannot segregate normally. Under suitable experimental conditions, this can be used to produce cells with increased chromosome-set numbers.

Exam: AIPMT 2004
Topic: Mitotic spindle and chromosome-number changes

EXAM-WISE REVISION TABLE

QuestionExaminationYearMain concept
84NEET2019Separation of homologous chromosomes
85NEET2017Anaphase-Promoting Complex
86AIPMT (Cancelled Paper)2015Chromosome number and DNA content
87AIPMT2005Histone synthesis
88AIPMT2004Metaphase and chromosome counting
89AIPMT2002Tubulin and mitotic spindle
90AIPMT1997Number of mitotic divisions
91AIPMT1993Equational division in meiosis II
92AIPMT1996DNA synthesis during S phase
93AIPMT2004Colchicine and spindle microtubules

Question 94. AIPMT 1992

Question: At metaphase, how many chromatids does each replicated chromosome normally contain in mitosis and meiosis?

A. Two in mitosis and two in meiosis
B. Two in mitosis and one in meiosis
C. Four in mitosis and two in meiosis
D. One in mitosis and two in meiosis

Correct Answer: A. Two in mitosis and two in meiosis

Explanation: Before cell division, DNA replicates during the S phase. Each replicated chromosome consists of two sister chromatids joined at the centromere. This is true at mitotic metaphase and at both metaphase I and metaphase II of meiosis. Sister chromatids separate during mitotic anaphase and meiotic anaphase II.

Exam: AIPMT 1992
Topic: Chromatids at metaphase

Question 95. AIPMT 1991

Question: The genetic differences between the products of meiosis and their parent cell arise from which combination of processes?

A. Segregation, independent assortment and crossing over
B. Segregation alone
C. Crossing over alone
D. Independent assortment alone

Correct Answer: A. Segregation, independent assortment and crossing over

Explanation: Meiosis reduces the chromosome number through segregation of homologous chromosomes. Independent assortment creates different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes, while crossing over exchanges DNA between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes. Together, these processes contribute to genetic variation.

Exam: AIPMT 1991
Topic: Genetic variation during meiosis

Question 96. AIPMT 1990

Question: During which stage of meiosis does the segregation of the Mendelian factors represented by Aa normally occur?

A. Diplotene
B. Anaphase I
C. Zygotene
D. Anaphase II

Correct Answer: B. Anaphase I

Explanation: The alleles A and a are located at corresponding loci on a pair of homologous chromosomes. During anaphase I, the homologous chromosomes separate and move towards opposite poles. This provides the cellular basis for the segregation of alleles carried on those homologues.

Exam: AIPMT 1990
Topic: Segregation of alleles

Question 97. AIPMT 1989

Question: A bivalent formed during meiosis normally consists of:

A. Two chromatids and one centromere
B. Two chromatids and two centromeres
C. Four chromatids and two centromeres
D. Four chromatids and four centromeres

Correct Answer: C. Four chromatids and two centromeres

Explanation: A bivalent consists of two paired homologous chromosomes. Each chromosome has two sister chromatids following DNA replication. Therefore, the bivalent contains four chromatids in total and normally has two centromeres, one for each homologous chromosome.

Exam: AIPMT 1989
Topic: Bivalent and tetrad formation

Question 98. AIPMT 1988

Question: Meiosis I is called reductional division, whereas meiosis II is called equational division because of:

A. Pairing of homologous chromosomes
B. Crossing over
C. Separation of sister chromatids
D. Separation of homologous chromosomes

Correct Answer: C. Separation of sister chromatids

Explanation: Meiosis I reduces the chromosome-set number because homologous chromosomes separate. During meiosis II, sister chromatids separate, while the haploid chromosome-set number is maintained. This is why meiosis II is called equational division.

Exam: AIPMT 1988
Topic: Reductional and equational divisions

Question 99. AIPMT 1994

Question: What is an important evolutionary advantage of meiosis?

A. It prevents all mutations
B. It produces new combinations of genetic material
C. It makes all gametes genetically identical
D. It eliminates the need for fertilisation

Correct Answer: B. It produces new combinations of genetic material

Explanation: Crossing over during prophase I and independent assortment during meiosis generate new combinations of alleles. These combinations contribute to genetic variation within populations, providing material on which natural selection can act.

Exam: AIPMT 1994
Topic: Evolutionary significance of meiosis

EXAM-WISE SUMMARY

QuestionExam nameYearImportant concept
94AIPMT1992Chromatids at metaphase
95AIPMT1991Genetic variation in meiosis
96AIPMT1990Segregation of alleles
97AIPMT1989Bivalent structure
98AIPMT1988Reductional vs equational division
99AIPMT1994Evolutionary significance of meiosis

Question 100. AIPMT 2014

Question: If the DNA content of a cell in G1 phase is 2C, during which phases does the DNA content normally remain at 4C after DNA replication is complete and before division is completed?

A. G1 phase only
B. S phase only
C. G2 phase and most of the M phase
D. G1 phase and early S phase

Correct Answer: C. G2 phase and most of the M phase

Explanation: DNA content increases from 2C to 4C during the S phase. It remains at 4C during G2 and through most of mitosis while the cell remains undivided. After cytokinesis, each daughter cell normally has 2C DNA content.

Exam name: AIPMT
Year: 2014
Topic: DNA content during the cell cycle

Question 101. AIPMT 2014

Question: During which substage of meiotic prophase I is recombinase involved in the process of genetic recombination?

A. Leptotene
B. Zygotene
C. Pachytene
D. Diakinesis

Correct Answer: C. Pachytene

Explanation: Crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes during pachytene. Recombination-associated proteins and enzymes participate in the molecular events that produce genetic recombination.

Exam name: AIPMT
Year: 2014
Topic: Crossing over and recombination

Question 102. NEET 2013 (Karnataka)

Question: During which substage of prophase I do homologous chromosomes begin pairing during meiosis?

A. Leptotene
B. Zygotene
C. Pachytene
D. Diplotene

Correct Answer: B. Zygotene

Explanation: During zygotene, homologous chromosomes pair through a process called synapsis. The paired homologues form bivalents. Crossing over occurs later, during pachytene.

Exam name: NEET 2013 (Karnataka)
Year: 2013
Topic: Synapsis

Question 103. NEET 2013

Question: What is the name of the structure formed when two homologous chromosomes pair during prophase I of meiosis?

A. Centrosome
B. Bivalent
C. Spindle pole
D. Cleavage furrow

Correct Answer: B. Bivalent

Explanation: A bivalent consists of two homologous chromosomes paired during meiosis. After DNA replication, each homologous chromosome contains two sister chromatids, so a bivalent normally contains four chromatids and is also called a tetrad.

Exam name: NEET
Year: 2013
Topic: Bivalent and tetrad formation

Question 104. AIPMT 2010 Prelims

Question: During which stage of mitosis do the endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus begin to disappear or become less distinct?

A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase

Correct Answer: A. Prophase

Explanation: During prophase, chromatin condenses into visible chromosomes, the nucleolus becomes less distinct, and the mitotic apparatus begins to develop. In typical textbook descriptions, the nuclear envelope breaks down later, during prometaphase.

Exam name: AIPMT 2010 Prelims
Year: 2010
Topic: Events of prophase

Question 105. AIPMT 2009

Question: Synapsis during meiosis occurs between:

A. Sister chromatids of a single chromosome
B. Homologous chromosomes
C. Non-homologous chromosomes only
D. Chromosomes and spindle fibres

Correct Answer: B. Homologous chromosomes

Explanation: Synapsis is the pairing of homologous chromosomes during zygotene of prophase I. This pairing supports the subsequent events of meiotic recombination and proper segregation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis I.

Exam name: AIPMT
Year: 2009
Topic: Synapsis and homologous chromosomes

QUICK EXAM-WISE SUMMARY

QuestionExaminationYearTopic
100AIPMT2014DNA content during the cell cycle
101AIPMT2014Recombination
102NEET (Karnataka)2013Synapsis
103NEET2013Bivalent formation
104AIPMT Prelims2010Events of prophase
105AIPMT2009Pairing of homologous chromosomes

Question 106. NEET 2016 Phase 2

Question: A cell has a stalled DNA replication fork. Which checkpoint is particularly important for responding to this problem?

A. Spindle assembly checkpoint
B. DNA replication checkpoint
C. Cytokinesis checkpoint only
D. Metaphase alignment checkpoint only

Correct Answer: B. DNA replication checkpoint

Explanation: A stalled replication fork indicates that DNA replication is not proceeding normally. DNA damage-response and replication-stress pathways help stabilise the replication machinery and delay cell-cycle progression when necessary. The spindle assembly checkpoint, by contrast, monitors chromosome attachment to the spindle.

Exam name: NEET
Year: 2016 Phase 2
Topic: Cell-cycle checkpoints and DNA replication

Question 107. NEET 2021

Question: During which phase of the cell cycle does centriole duplication normally occur in a typical animal cell?

A. G1 phase
B. S phase
C. G2 phase only
D. Telophase only

Correct Answer: B. S phase

Explanation: In typical animal cells, centrosome duplication begins around the G1/S transition, with centriole duplication occurring during S phase. The centrosomes subsequently mature and help organise the mitotic spindle.

Exam name: NEET
Year: 2021
Topic: Centrosome and centriole duplication

Question 108. AIPMT 1991

Question: Which event distinguishes mitotic anaphase from metaphase?

A. Chromosomes become visible
B. Chromosomes align at the equatorial plate
C. Sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles
D. DNA replication begins

Correct Answer: C. Sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles

Explanation: At metaphase, replicated chromosomes align at the equatorial plate. During anaphase, sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles. DNA replication occurs earlier, during the S phase of interphase.

Exam name: AIPMT
Year: 1991
Topic: Differences between metaphase and anaphase

Question 109. NEET 2022 Phase 1

Question: Which of the following events does not normally occur during mitotic cell division?

A. Chromosome condensation
B. Chromosome alignment at the equator
C. Synapsis of homologous chromosomes
D. Separation of sister chromatids

Correct Answer: C. Synapsis of homologous chromosomes

Explanation: Synapsis is the pairing of homologous chromosomes during zygotene of prophase I in meiosis. It is not a normal event of mitosis. In mitosis, chromosomes condense, align at the equator and separate their sister chromatids.

Exam name: NEET
Year: 2022 Phase 1
Topic: Differences between mitosis and meiosis

EXAM-WISE SUMMARY

QuestionExaminationYearTopic
106NEET2016 Phase 2DNA replication checkpoint
107NEET2021Centriole duplication
108AIPMT1991Anaphase versus metaphase
109NEET2022 Phase 1Synapsis and mitosis

Question 110. AIPMT 2012 Prelims

Question: During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase participates in which process?

A. DNA replication during the S phase
B. Genetic recombination during meiosis
C. Cytokinesis in animal cells
D. Separation of sister chromatids during mitosis

Correct Answer: B. Genetic recombination during meiosis

Explanation: Recombination-associated proteins, including recombinases, participate in the molecular processes involved in exchanging genetic material between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes. In standard NCERT-level descriptions, crossing over is associated with pachytene of prophase I.

Exam name: AIPMT
Year: 2012 Prelims
Topic: Recombination during meiosis

Question 111. AIPMT 2011 Mains

Question: During metaphase, spindle fibres attach to chromosomes at which structure?

A. Nucleolus
B. Kinetochore
C. Chromosome arm
D. Nuclear envelope

Correct Answer: B. Kinetochore

Explanation: The kinetochore is a protein complex assembled at the centromeric region of a chromosome. Spindle microtubules attach to kinetochores and help align chromosomes and move them during cell division.

Exam name: AIPMT
Year: 2011 Mains
Topic: Kinetochore and spindle attachment

Question 112. AIPMT 2004

Question: Crossing over that produces genetic recombination in higher organisms normally occurs between:

A. Sister chromatids of the same chromosome
B. Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
C. Non-homologous chromosomes only
D. Spindle fibres and chromatids

Correct Answer: B. Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes

Explanation: During pachytene of prophase I, crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes. This exchange of corresponding DNA segments produces new combinations of genetic material. Chiasmata become visible later, during diplotene.

Exam name: AIPMT
Year: 2004
Topic: Crossing over and genetic recombination

EXAM-WISE SUMMARY

QuestionExaminationYearMain concept
110AIPMT Prelims2012Recombinase and recombination
111AIPMT Mains2011Kinetochore and spindle attachment
112AIPMT2004Crossing over between non-sister chromatids

Question 113. NEET 2020 Phase 2

Question: Which is the correct sequence of the main stages of mitosis?

A. Metaphase → Prophase → Telophase → Anaphase
B. Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase
C. Anaphase → Prophase → Metaphase → Telophase
D. Prophase → Anaphase → Telophase → Metaphase

Correct Answer: B. Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase → Telophase

Explanation:

The main stages of mitosis occur in the following order:

  1. Prophase: Chromosomes condense and become visible.
  2. Metaphase: Chromosomes align at the equatorial plate.
  3. Anaphase: Sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles.
  4. Telophase: Daughter nuclei form around the separated chromosome sets.

Prometaphase is also recognised as a distinct stage in more detailed descriptions of mitosis.

Exam name: NEET
Year: 2020 Phase 2
Topic: Sequence of mitotic stages

Question 114. NEET 2020 Phase 1

Question: During which substage of prophase I does the synaptonemal complex break down and homologous chromosomes begin to separate, while remaining connected at chiasmata?

A. Leptotene
B. Zygotene
C. Pachytene
D. Diplotene

Correct Answer: D. Diplotene

Explanation:

The substages of prophase I are leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene and diakinesis.

During diplotene, the synaptonemal complex disassembles and homologous chromosomes begin to separate. They remain connected at chiasmata, which mark sites associated with crossing over.

Exam name: NEET
Year: 2020 Phase 1
Topic: Prophase I and the synaptonemal complex

Question 115. NEET 2019 (Odisha)

Question: Crossing over during meiosis occurs between which chromatids, and during which substage?

A. Sister chromatids during leptotene
B. Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes during pachytene
C. Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes during metaphase I
D. Sister chromatids during anaphase II

Correct Answer: B. Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes during pachytene

Explanation:

During pachytene of prophase I, crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes. This exchange of corresponding DNA segments produces new combinations of genetic material.

Remember the key distinctions:

Zygotene: Synapsis of homologous chromosomes.

Pachytene: Crossing over.

Diplotene: Homologues begin separating; chiasmata are visible.

Diakinesis: Chiasmata undergo terminalisation.

Exam name: NEET
Year: 2019 (Odisha)
Topic: Crossing over and genetic recombination

Question 116. NEET 2019 (Odisha)

Question: After completion of meiosis I, each daughter cell normally contains:

A. The diploid chromosome number, with each chromosome consisting of one chromatid
B. The haploid chromosome number, with each chromosome consisting of two sister chromatids
C. The diploid chromosome number, with each chromosome consisting of two sister chromatids
D. The haploid chromosome number, with DNA replication already completed again

Correct Answer: B. The haploid chromosome number, with each chromosome consisting of two sister chromatids

Explanation:

Meiosis I is called reductional division because homologous chromosomes separate, reducing the chromosome-set number from diploid to haploid.

However, sister chromatids generally remain joined after meiosis I. Therefore, each chromosome still consists of two sister chromatids.

DNA replication does not normally occur between meiosis I and meiosis II.

Example: If a diploid cell has 2n = 12 chromosomes, each cell after meiosis I normally contains 6 chromosomes, each consisting of two sister chromatids.

Exam name: NEET
Year: 2019 (Odisha)
Topic: Chromosome number after meiosis I

EXAM-WISE SUMMARY

QuestionExaminationYearImportant concept
113NEET2020 Phase 2Sequence of mitosis
114NEET2020 Phase 1Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex
115NEET2019 (Odisha)Crossing over
116NEET2019 (Odisha)Chromosome number after meiosis I

Question 117. NEET 2024 (Re-Examination)

Question: Consider the following statements about chromosome-number abnormalities.

Statement I: Aneuploidy results from the gain or loss of individual chromosomes.

Statement II: Polyploidy involves the presence of more than two complete chromosome sets.

Choose the correct option.

A. Both statements are correct
B. Both statements are incorrect
C. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
D. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: A. Both statements are correct

Explanation:

Aneuploidy: The gain or loss of one or more individual chromosomes, such as monosomy (2n − 1) or trisomy (2n + 1).

Polyploidy: The presence of more than two complete chromosome sets, such as triploidy (3n) or tetraploidy (4n).

Failure of chromosome segregation can cause aneuploidy. Failure of cytokinesis or other abnormalities in chromosome-set duplication can contribute to polyploidy.

Exam name: NEET
Year: 2024 (Re-Examination)
Topic: Aneuploidy and polyploidy

Question 118. NEET 2024 (Re-Examination)

Question: Match the chromosome types with their centromere positions.

Column I: Chromosome typeColumn II: Centromere position
A. MetacentricI. Centromere near one end
B. SubmetacentricII. Centromere approximately in the middle
C. AcrocentricIII. Centromere slightly away from the middle
D. TelocentricIV. Centromere at the terminal end

Choose the correct matching.

A. A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV
B. A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I
C. A–I, B–IV, C–II, D–III
D. A–IV, B–I, C–III, D–II

Correct Answer: A. A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV

Explanation:

Metacentric: Centromere approximately in the middle; arms are nearly equal.

Submetacentric: Centromere slightly away from the middle; arms are unequal.

Acrocentric: Centromere close to one end; one arm is very short.

Telocentric: Centromere at the terminal end.

Exam name: NEET
Year: 2024 (Re-Examination)
Topic: Chromosome morphology

Question 119. NEET 2023

Question: Consider the following statements about cell division.

A. Tetrad formation occurs during leptotene.
B. Centromeres normally divide during mitotic anaphase.
C. Terminalisation of chiasmata is associated with diakinesis.
D. Crossing over normally occurs between sister chromatids.

Which combination contains only the correct statements?

A. A and B only
B. B and C only
C. A, C and D only
D. A, B, C and D

Correct Answer: B. B and C only

Explanation:

Statement A is incorrect: Homologous chromosomes pair during zygotene, and the four-chromatid bivalent is established as meiosis proceeds.

Statement B is correct: During mitotic anaphase, sister chromatids separate after centromeric cohesion is released.

Statement C is correct: Terminalisation of chiasmata is associated with diakinesis.

Statement D is incorrect: Meiotic crossing over normally occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

Exam name: NEET
Year: 2023
Topic: Meiosis and mitosis — statement-based question

Question 120. NEET 2022 Phase 2

Question: In the primary oocytes of some vertebrates, which meiotic stage may last for months or years?

A. Leptotene
B. Zygotene
C. Diplotene
D. Diakinesis

Correct Answer: C. Diplotene

Explanation:

Primary oocytes can remain arrested for a prolonged period during the diplotene stage of prophase I. In humans, this arrest begins during fetal development and may continue until the oocyte resumes maturation during a later ovarian cycle.

Exam name: NEET
Year: 2022 Phase 2
Topic: Meiotic arrest in oocytes

EXAM-WISE SUMMARY

QuestionExaminationYearMain concept
117NEET2024 (Re-Examination)Aneuploidy and polyploidy
118NEET2024 (Re-Examination)Chromosome types
119NEET2023Mitosis and meiosis
120NEET2022 Phase 2Diplotene arrest in oocytes

Question 121. AIPMT 2004

Question: Which events precede the reformation of the nuclear envelope during the M phase of the cell cycle?

A. Chromosome decondensation and reassembly of the nuclear lamina
B. Transcription from chromosomes and reassembly of the nuclear lamina
C. Formation of the contractile ring and formation of the phragmoplast
D. Formation of the contractile ring and transcription from chromosomes

Correct Answer: A. Chromosome decondensation and reassembly of the nuclear lamina

Explanation:

During telophase, chromosomes begin to decondense, and the nuclear envelope reforms around each set of chromosomes. Reassembly of the nuclear lamina contributes to rebuilding the nuclear envelope.

The contractile ring is involved in cytokinesis in animal cells, while the phragmoplast participates in cell-plate formation in plant cells. These structures are not the principal events responsible for nuclear-envelope reformation.

Exam Name: All India Pre-Medical Test (AIPMT)
Year: 2004
Topic: Telophase and nuclear-envelope reformation

Question 122. AIPMT 2002

Question: Which material is most suitable for studying mitosis in a laboratory?

A. Anther
B. Root tip
C. Leaf tip
D. Ovary

Correct Answer: B. Root tip

Explanation:

The root tip contains a meristematic region where cells divide actively. Therefore, it is commonly used to observe mitosis under a microscope.

Onion root tips are particularly useful for preparing temporary slides because their actively dividing cells have clearly visible chromosomes during mitosis.

Exam Name: All India Pre-Medical Test (AIPMT)
Year: 2002
Topic: Experimental study of mitosis

EXAM-WISE SUMMARY

QuestionExaminationYearImportant concept
121AIPMT2004Nuclear-envelope reformation
122AIPMT2002Root tip for observing mitosis

Q123. AIPMT 2015 (Cancelled Paper) – Match the Following

Match Column I with Column II.

Column I

A. Synapsis of homologous chromosomes
B. Synthesis of RNA and proteins
C. Action of the enzyme recombinase during crossing over
D. Centromeres do not separate, and homologous chromosomes move towards opposite poles

Column II

(i) Anaphase I
(ii) Zygotene
(iii) G₂ phase
(iv) Anaphase II
(v) Pachytene

Options:

A. A–(i), B–(ii), C–(v), D–(iv)
B. A–(ii), B–(iii), C–(iv), D–(v)
C. A–(ii), B–(i), C–(iii), D–(iv)
D. A–(ii), B–(iii), C–(v), D–(i)

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Synapsis – Zygotene: Homologous chromosomes pair during zygotene of prophase I.

RNA and protein synthesis – G₂ phase: The cell continues to grow and prepares for division.

Recombinase – Pachytene: Crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.

Anaphase I: Homologous chromosomes move towards opposite poles, while their centromeres do not divide.

Exam: AIPMT 2015 (Cancelled Paper).

Q124. NEET 2020 Phase 1 – G₀ Phase

Cells that do not divide further and exit the G₁ phase to enter a quiescent stage are said to be in which phase?

A. S phase
B. G₂ phase
C. G₀ phase
D. M phase

Correct Answer: C. G₀ phase

Explanation:

Some cells leave the active cell cycle from G₁ and enter the G₀ phase, also called the quiescent stage. These cells remain metabolically active but do not normally proceed towards cell division. The behaviour of cells in G₀ depends on the cell type and physiological conditions.

Exam: NEET 2020 Phase 1.

Q125. AIPMT 1998 – Radioactive Thymidine and Chromatin

Question (paraphrased): Radioactive thymidine is added to a medium containing living mammalian cells. If the cells are exposed to it as soon as they enter the S phase, which type of chromatin is expected to become radioactive first?

A. Heterochromatin
B. Euchromatin
C. Both heterochromatin and euchromatin equally from the beginning
D. Only the nucleolus

Correct Answer: B. Euchromatin

Explanation:

Thymidine is incorporated into newly synthesised DNA during the S phase. Euchromatin is generally less condensed and tends to replicate earlier in S phase, whereas much of the heterochromatin replicates later. Therefore, euchromatin is expected to become labelled first.

Exam: AIPMT 1998.

Q126. AIPMT 1997 – Number of Mitotic Divisions

Question: How many successive rounds of mitotic division are needed for one cell to produce 128 cells?

A. 28
B. 32
C. 7
D. 14

Correct Answer: C. 7

Explanation:

In each round of mitosis, one cell produces two daughter cells. The number of cells after n rounds is:

Number of cells = 2ⁿ

For 128 cells:

128 = 2⁷

Therefore, 7 rounds of mitotic division are required.

Exam: AIPMT 1997.

Q127. AIPMT 1994 – Function of Meiosis II

Question (paraphrased): What separates during meiosis II?

A. Homologous chromosomes
B. Sister chromatids
C. Homologous chromosome pairs without chromatid separation
D. DNA replication products during the S phase

Correct Answer: B. Sister chromatids

Explanation:

Meiosis consists of two successive divisions:

Meiosis I: Homologous chromosomes separate, reducing the chromosome number by half.

Meiosis II: Sister chromatids separate, making this division similar in its basic chromosome-segregation pattern to mitosis.

DNA replication does not occur between meiosis I and meiosis II.

Exam: AIPMT 1994.

Q128. AIPMT 1997 – Reappearance of the Nuclear Membrane

Question (paraphrased): During mitotic cell division in the apical meristem, the nuclear membrane reappears during which stage?

A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase

Correct Answer: D. Telophase

Explanation:

During telophase, the chromosomes reach opposite poles and begin to decondense. A nuclear envelope forms around each set of chromosomes, producing two daughter nuclei.

Exam: AIPMT 1997.

Q129. AIPMT 1996 – Exchange of Chromosomal Material

Question (paraphrased): The exchange of genetic material between paternal and maternal homologous chromosomes during meiosis is called:

A. Synapsis
B. Crossing over
C. Cytokinesis
D. DNA replication

Correct Answer: B. Crossing over

Explanation:

Crossing over involves the exchange of corresponding DNA segments between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes during pachytene of prophase I. It contributes to genetic recombination and variation in offspring.

Exam: AIPMT 1996.

Q130. AIPMT 1994 – Best Stage for Studying Chromosomes

Question (paraphrased): Which stage of mitosis is most suitable for observing chromosome shape, size and number?

A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase

Correct Answer: B. Metaphase

Explanation:

During metaphase, chromosomes are highly condensed and arranged near the equatorial plate. Their condensation makes them easier to observe and examine for chromosome number and morphology.

Exam: AIPMT 1994.

Q131. AIPMT 1994 – Evolutionary Advantage of Meiosis

Question (paraphrased): Which of the following best explains an important evolutionary advantage of meiosis?

A. It produces genetically identical daughter cells.
B. It doubles the chromosome number in every generation.
C. It promotes genetic variation through recombination and independent assortment.
D. It prevents all mutations from occurring.

Correct Answer: C. It promotes genetic variation through recombination and independent assortment.

Explanation:

Meiosis generates genetic variation through crossing over and the independent assortment of homologous chromosomes. This variation provides material on which natural selection can act.

Exam: AIPMT 1994.

Q132. AIPMT 1991 – Difference Between Anaphase and Metaphase in Mitosis

Question (paraphrased): Which event distinguishes anaphase from metaphase during mitosis?

A. Chromosomes align at the equatorial plate.
B. Chromosomes become visible as they condense.
C. Sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles.
D. The nuclear envelope reforms around daughter chromosomes.

Correct Answer: C. Sister chromatids separate and move towards opposite poles.

Explanation:

During metaphase, chromosomes align at the equatorial plate. During anaphase, centromeric cohesion is released and sister chromatids separate, moving towards opposite poles. Nuclear-envelope reformation occurs later, during telophase.

Exam: AIPMT 1991.

Q133. AIPMT 1996 – DNA Replication

Question: During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

A. G₁ phase
B. S phase
C. G₂ phase
D. M phase

Correct Answer: B. S phase

Explanation: DNA replication occurs during the synthesis (S) phase of interphase. The DNA content doubles, but the chromosome number remains unchanged because each chromosome consists of two sister chromatids after replication.

Exam: AIPMT 1996.

Q134. AIPMT 1996 – Action of Colchicine

Question (paraphrased): Colchicine inhibits cell division primarily by interfering with the formation of which structure?

A. Nuclear envelope
B. Spindle microtubules
C. Cell membrane
D. Nucleolus

Correct Answer: B. Spindle microtubules

Explanation: Colchicine interferes with microtubule formation and prevents normal spindle assembly. Chromosomes may fail to separate properly, and chromosome doubling can occur in suitable cells if division is disrupted.

Exam: AIPMT 1996.

Q135. AIPMT 1989 – Structure of a Bivalent

Question (paraphrased): A bivalent formed during meiosis consists of:

A. Two non-homologous chromosomes
B. Two homologous chromosomes
C. Two sister chromatids only
D. Four non-homologous chromosomes

Correct Answer: B. Two homologous chromosomes

Explanation: During prophase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes pair through synapsis. The paired homologues form a bivalent. Since each chromosome has two sister chromatids after DNA replication, a bivalent contains four chromatids and is also called a tetrad.

Exam: AIPMT 1989.

Q136. AIPMT 1991 – Genetic Variation During Meiosis

Question (paraphrased): Genetic differences among the products of meiosis arise primarily because of:

A. DNA replication alone
B. Crossing over and independent assortment
C. Cytokinesis alone
D. Formation of the nuclear envelope

Correct Answer: B. Crossing over and independent assortment

Explanation:

Crossing over exchanges DNA between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes during pachytene of prophase I. Independent assortment of homologous chromosome pairs also produces different chromosome combinations in gametes.

Exam: AIPMT 1991.

Q137. AIPMT 1990 – Segregation of Mendelian Factors

Question (paraphrased): The two alleles of a gene, such as A and a, separate from each other during the formation of gametes because of:

A. DNA replication during S phase
B. Separation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis I
C. Separation of sister chromatids during mitotic metaphase
D. Cytokinesis during mitosis

Correct Answer: B. Separation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis I

Explanation:

In a diploid organism with genotype Aa, the alleles are located at corresponding loci on homologous chromosomes. During anaphase I, homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles. This provides the chromosomal basis for Mendel’s law of segregation.

Exam: AIPMT 1990.

Q138. AIPMT 1988 – Why Meiosis II Is Equational

Question (paraphrased): Meiosis II is called an equational division because:

A. Homologous chromosomes pair during this division.
B. DNA replication occurs immediately before it.
C. Sister chromatids separate without a further reduction in chromosome-set number.
D. The chromosome number doubles in each daughter cell.

Correct Answer: C. Sister chromatids separate without a further reduction in chromosome-set number.

Explanation:

Meiosis I is reductional because homologous chromosomes separate, reducing the chromosome-set number from diploid to haploid. Meiosis II separates sister chromatids, so the chromosome-set number remains haploid in the resulting cells.

Exam: AIPMT 1988.

Q139. RE-NEET 2026 – Statements About Meiosis

Question (paraphrased): Consider the following statements.

Statement I: Chromosomes are fully condensed at the end of prophase I.

Statement II: Meiosis I resembles mitosis because sister chromatids separate during this division.

Choose the correct answer.

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
C. Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
D. Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.

Correct Answer: C. Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.

Explanation:

Statement I is true: Chromosomes become highly condensed by diakinesis, the final substage of prophase I.

Statement II is false: During meiosis I, homologous chromosomes separate. Sister chromatids separate during meiosis II.

Exam: RE-NEET 2026.

Q140. RE-NEET 2026 – Sequence of Cell-Cycle Phases

Question (paraphrased): What is the correct sequence of the main phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle?

A. S → G₁ → G₂ → M
B. G₁ → S → G₂ → M
C. G₂ → G₁ → M → S
D. M → S → G₂ → G₁

Correct Answer: B. G₁ → S → G₂ → M

Explanation:

The main phases occur in the following order:

  1. G₁ phase: The cell grows and performs normal metabolic activities.
  2. S phase: DNA replication occurs.
  3. G₂ phase: The cell continues growing and prepares for division.
  4. M phase: Nuclear division and usually cytokinesis occur.

Some cells may leave the active cycle and enter the quiescent G₀ phase.

Exam: RE-NEET 2026.

Q141. Matching Cell-Cycle Phases with Their Activities

Match Column I with Column II.

Column I

A. G₁ phase
B. S phase
C. G₂ phase
D. M phase

Column II

I. Actual cell division occurs.
II. DNA synthesis takes place.
III. The cell grows and remains metabolically active without replicating its DNA.
IV. Further growth and preparation for cell division occur.

Options:

A. A–III, B–II, C–IV, D–I
B. A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV
C. A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III
D. A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

G₁: Cell growth and normal metabolic activity.

S: DNA replication.

G₂: Further growth and preparation for mitosis.

M: Nuclear division and usually cytokinesis.

Q142. Main Function of Spindle Fibres

What is the main function of spindle fibres during mitosis?

A. To synthesise DNA
B. To assemble ribosomes
C. To help move chromosomes towards opposite poles
D. To synthesise the nuclear envelope during prophase

Correct Answer: C. To help move chromosomes towards opposite poles

Explanation:

Spindle microtubules interact with chromosome kinetochores and help align chromosomes and separate sister chromatids. During anaphase, sister chromatids move towards opposite poles.

Q143. Role of the Anaphase-Promoting Complex

The anaphase-promoting complex (APC/C) is defective in a dividing animal cell. Which outcome is most likely?

A. DNA replication begins without regulation.
B. The cell may fail to initiate normal anaphase.
C. Homologous chromosomes undergo synapsis during mitosis.
D. The cell automatically enters the S phase.

Correct Answer: B. The cell may fail to initiate normal anaphase.

Explanation:

APC/C is an important regulator of the metaphase-to-anaphase transition. It promotes the degradation of regulatory proteins, including securin, allowing separase to cleave cohesin and permit sister-chromatid separation. If APC/C function is disrupted, normal chromosome segregation may be prevented.

Q144. Separation of Homologous Chromosomes

During which stage of meiosis do homologous chromosomes separate and move towards opposite poles?

A. Prophase I
B. Metaphase I
C. Anaphase I
D. Anaphase II

Correct Answer: C. Anaphase I

Explanation:

During anaphase I, homologous chromosomes separate. The centromeres generally remain intact, so sister chromatids stay associated.

During anaphase II, centromeres divide and sister chromatids separate.

Q145. Products of Meiosis I

At the end of meiosis I, each daughter cell normally contains:

A. A diploid set of unreplicated chromosomes
B. A haploid set of chromosomes, each still consisting of two sister chromatids
C. A diploid set of chromosomes, each consisting of one chromatid
D. Twice the original chromosome number

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Meiosis I is a reductional division. Homologous chromosomes separate, reducing the chromosome-set number from diploid to haploid. However, each chromosome still consists of two sister chromatids.

For example, in a human cell, the products of meiosis I normally have 23 chromosomes, each consisting of two chromatids.

Q146. Checkpoint Activated by a Stalled DNA-Replication Fork

A cell experiences a stalled DNA-replication fork during the S phase. Which checkpoint response is particularly important?

A. The spindle-assembly checkpoint only
B. The DNA-replication checkpoint
C. The cytokinesis checkpoint only
D. The synapsis checkpoint

Correct Answer: B. The DNA-replication checkpoint

Explanation:

The DNA-replication checkpoint helps cells respond to replication stress and stalled replication forks. It promotes genome stability by coordinating replication and DNA-damage responses and delaying inappropriate progression through the cell cycle.

The spindle-assembly checkpoint, in contrast, monitors chromosome attachment to the spindle before chromosome separation.

Q147. Chromosome Number After DNA Replication

A fruit fly has 8 chromosomes in each diploid somatic cell. What will be the chromosome number and chromatid number per cell after completion of the S phase?

A. 16 chromosomes and 16 chromatids
B. 8 chromosomes and 16 chromatids
C. 8 chromosomes and 8 chromatids
D. 16 chromosomes and 8 chromatids

Correct Answer: B. 8 chromosomes and 16 chromatids

Explanation:

DNA replication doubles the DNA content but does not normally double the chromosome number.

Before S phase:

Chromosomes: 8

Chromatids: 8

After S phase:

Chromosomes: 8

Chromatids: 16

Each chromosome now consists of two sister chromatids joined at the centromeric region.

Q148. DNA Content During the Cell Cycle

A cell has a DNA content of 2C in G₁. After DNA replication, during which period does its DNA content remain approximately 4C per cell?

A. G₁ phase only
B. S phase only
C. From completion of S phase until before cytokinesis is completed
D. Only after cytokinesis

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The DNA content increases from 2C to 4C during S phase. It remains approximately 4C per cell during G₂ and most of mitosis. Once cytokinesis separates the cell into two daughter cells, each daughter normally has 2C DNA content.

Important distinction: DNA content and chromosome number are not the same measurement. DNA replication doubles DNA content without doubling chromosome number.

Q149. Difference Between Mitosis and Meiosis

Which statement correctly distinguishes mitosis from meiosis?

A. DNA replication occurs before every division in meiosis.
B. Mitosis always produces four daughter cells.
C. Homologous chromosomes pair and undergo synapsis during normal mitosis.
D. Meiosis includes two nuclear divisions following a single round of DNA replication.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Meiosis consists of meiosis I and meiosis II, preceded by one round of DNA replication. DNA replication does not occur between these two meiotic divisions.

Mitosis normally consists of one nuclear division and produces two daughter nuclei. Synapsis of homologous chromosomes is characteristic of prophase I of meiosis, not normal mitosis.

Q150. Assertion–Reason: DNA Replication

Assertion (A): The DNA content of a cell doubles during the S phase.

Reason (R): DNA replication produces two sister chromatids for each replicated chromosome.

A. Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R does not correctly explain A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: DNA replication doubles the amount of DNA. Each replicated chromosome consists of two sister chromatids joined at the centromeric region.

Q151. Assertion–Reason: Meiosis I

Assertion (A): Meiosis I is called a reductional division.

Reason (R): Homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I.

A. Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R does not correctly explain A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Separation of homologous chromosomes reduces the chromosome-set number from diploid to haploid.

Q152. Numerical: Number of Cells After Mitotic Divisions

A single cell undergoes six successive rounds of mitotic division. Assuming every cell divides successfully, how many cells are produced?

A. 12
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128

Correct Answer: C. 64

Explanation:

Number of cells after n rounds = 2ⁿ

For six rounds:

2⁶ = 64 cells.

Q153. Numerical: Chromosome Number in a Human Cell

A human somatic cell contains 46 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will each daughter cell normally contain after mitosis?

A. 23
B. 46
C. 92
D. 184

Correct Answer: B. 46

Explanation: Mitosis generally preserves chromosome number. Each daughter cell receives one copy of each chromosome, maintaining the diploid number of 46.

Q154. Identification of a Meiotic Stage

Homologous chromosomes are paired, and crossing over between non-sister chromatids occurs. Which stage is involved?

A. Leptotene
B. Zygotene
C. Pachytene
D. Diakinesis

Correct Answer: C. Pachytene

Explanation: Synapsis begins during zygotene. Crossing over occurs during pachytene. Chiasmata become clearly visible during diplotene, and terminalisation occurs during diakinesis.

Q155. Chromosome Number During Anaphase of Mitosis

A diploid cell has 12 chromosomes before mitosis. What is the chromosome count within the entire cell during anaphase, after sister chromatids separate but before cytokinesis?

A. 6
B. 12
C. 24
D. 48

Correct Answer: C. 24

Explanation: Once sister chromatids separate, each chromatid is counted as an individual chromosome. Therefore, the entire cell temporarily contains 24 chromosomes, with 12 moving towards each pole. Each daughter cell normally receives 12 chromosomes.

Q156. Function of the Spindle-Assembly Checkpoint

The spindle-assembly checkpoint helps prevent:

A. DNA replication during S phase
B. Anaphase initiation before chromosomes are properly attached to the spindle
C. Chromosome condensation during prophase
D. Formation of ribosomes during interphase

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: The checkpoint monitors kinetochore attachment to spindle microtubules and helps delay anaphase until chromosomes are appropriately attached. This reduces the risk of chromosome mis-segregation.

Q157. Cytokinesis in Plant Cells

How does cytokinesis usually occur in plant cells?

A. By formation of a cleavage furrow from the outside inward
B. By formation of a cell plate that develops into a new partition
C. By disappearance of all cell-wall material
D. By separation of homologous chromosomes

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Vesicles accumulate at the centre of the dividing plant cell and fuse to form a cell plate. The plate expands outward and contributes to the formation of the new partition between daughter cells.

Q158. Cytokinesis in Animal Cells

Which structure is primarily responsible for producing the cleavage furrow during animal-cell cytokinesis?

A. Contractile ring containing actin and myosin
B. Synaptonemal complex
C. Recombination nodule
D. Nuclear lamina alone

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: An actin–myosin contractile ring constricts the cell membrane, producing a cleavage furrow that separates the cytoplasm.

Q159. Synaptonemal Complex

The synaptonemal complex is associated with:

A. Pairing of homologous chromosomes during prophase I
B. Separation of sister chromatids during mitotic anaphase
C. DNA replication during G₁
D. Formation of the cleavage furrow during cytokinesis

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: The synaptonemal complex forms between paired homologous chromosomes during meiotic prophase I and supports synapsis. It disassembles as homologues begin separating during diplotene.

Q160. Products of Meiosis

One diploid cell undergoes a complete meiotic division. In the usual textbook model, how many haploid daughter cells are produced?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

Correct Answer: D. Four

Explanation: One round of DNA replication is followed by two nuclear divisions. The usual result is four haploid products, although their eventual development into functional gametes depends on the organism and cell type.

Q161. NEET 2026 – Match the Cell-Cycle Phases

Match List I with List II.

List I

A. G₁ phase
B. S phase
C. G₂ phase
D. M phase

List II

I. Actual cell division occurs
II. The cell is metabolically active and grows without replicating its DNA
III. DNA synthesis occurs and the amount of DNA doubles
IV. Protein synthesis continues while the cell prepares for division

Options:

A. A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
B. A–III, B–II, C–I, D–IV
C. A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III
D. A–I, B–IV, C–III, D–II

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: G₁ is associated with cell growth, S with DNA replication, G₂ with further growth and preparation for division, and M with cell division.

Exam: NEET 2026.
Q162. NEET 2025 – Function of Spindle Fibres

What is the main function of spindle fibres during mitosis?

A. DNA replication
B. Formation of ribosomes
C. Movement and segregation of chromosomes
D. Synthesis of the nuclear envelope during interphase

Correct Answer: C. Movement and segregation of chromosomes

Explanation: Spindle microtubules attach to chromosome kinetochores and help align chromosomes at the metaphase plate. They also participate in chromosome segregation during anaphase.

Exam: NEET 2025.
Q163. NEET 2023 Manipur – Chromosome Doubling

Disruption of mitotic cell division can result in chromosome doubling. Which event must be prevented for a cell to retain the duplicated chromosome complement in a single cell?

A. DNA replication during S phase
B. Formation of the nucleolus during interphase
C. Completion of cell division after chromosome duplication
D. Chromosome condensation during prophase

Correct Answer: C. Completion of cell division after chromosome duplication

Explanation: If chromosome duplication has occurred but cell division fails, a cell may retain an increased chromosome complement. In suitable circumstances, this can produce a polyploid cell. The exact outcome depends on which stage is disrupted and whether nuclear division or cytokinesis occurs.

Exam: NEET 2023 Manipur.
Q164. NEET 2024 (Re-Examination) — Chromosome Morphology

Question (paraphrased): Match each chromosome type with the position of its centromere.

List I

A. Metacentric
B. Submetacentric
C. Acrocentric
D. Telocentric

List II

I. Centromere at the terminal end
II. Centromere approximately in the middle
III. Centromere slightly away from the middle
IV. Centromere close to one end

Options:

A. A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
B. A–III, B–II, C–I, D–IV
C. A–IV, B–I, C–III, D–II
D. A–I, B–IV, C–II, D–III

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: Centromere position determines chromosome morphology. Metacentric chromosomes have approximately equal arms; submetacentric chromosomes have unequal arms; acrocentric chromosomes have one very short arm; and telocentric chromosomes have a terminal centromere.

Exam: NEET 2024 (Re-Examination).

Q165. NEET 2023 — Recombination Nodules

Question (paraphrased): Recombination nodules are associated with which substage of meiotic prophase I?

A. Leptotene
B. Zygotene
C. Pachytene
D. Diakinesis

Correct Answer: C. Pachytene

Explanation: Recombination nodules are associated with the molecular machinery involved in crossing over between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes. Crossing over occurs during pachytene.

Exam: NEET 2023.

Q166. NEET 2022 Phase 2 — Bivalent Formation

Question (paraphrased): Bivalent or tetrad formation is characteristic of which stage of meiosis?

A. Leptotene
B. Zygotene
C. Anaphase I
D. Telophase II

Correct Answer: B. Zygotene

Explanation: Homologous chromosomes pair through synapsis during zygotene, forming bivalents. Because each homologous chromosome has two sister chromatids, the paired structure contains four chromatids and is also called a tetrad. Crossing over occurs later, during pachytene.

Exam: NEET 2022 Phase 2.

Q167. NEET 2021 — Centriole Duplication

Question (paraphrased): In a typical animal cell, centriole duplication occurs during which phase of interphase?

A. G₁ phase
B. S phase
C. G₂ phase only
D. Telophase

Correct Answer: B. S phase

Explanation: In typical animal cells, centrosome duplication begins around the G₁/S transition and proceeds during S phase, with centrosome maturation and preparation for division continuing later. For standard NEET-level questions, S phase is the expected answer.

Exam: NEET 2021.

Q168. NEET 2018 — Separation of Homologous Chromosomes

Question (paraphrased): During which stage of meiosis does the separation of paired homologous chromosomes begin?

A. Prophase I
B. Metaphase I
C. Anaphase I
D. Anaphase II

Correct Answer: C. Anaphase I

Explanation: Homologous chromosomes separate during anaphase I and move towards opposite poles. Sister chromatids remain joined at their centromeric regions until anaphase II.

Exam: NEET 2018.

Q169. NEET 2024 (Re-Examination) – Events During Prophase I

Match List I with List II.

List I: Events

A. Chiasmata formation
B. Crossing over
C. Synaptonemal complex formation
D. Terminalisation of chiasmata

List II: Stages

I. Pachytene
II. Diakinesis
III. Diplotene
IV. Zygotene

Options:

A. A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II
B. A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV
C. A–IV, B–II, C–I, D–III
D. A–II, B–IV, C–III, D–I

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Zygotene: Synapsis occurs and the synaptonemal complex forms.

Pachytene: Crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids.

Diplotene: Chiasmata become visible as homologous chromosomes begin separating.

Diakinesis: Terminalisation of chiasmata occurs.

Exam: NEET 2024 (Re-Examination).

Q170. NEET 2024 – Spindle-Fibre Attachment

Spindle fibres attach to the kinetochores of chromosomes during which stage of mitosis?

A. G₁ phase
B. S phase
C. Prometaphase
D. Telophase

Correct Answer: C. Prometaphase

Explanation:

During prometaphase, the nuclear envelope breaks down and spindle microtubules gain access to chromosomes. These microtubules attach to kinetochores, enabling chromosome movement and subsequent alignment at the metaphase plate.

Exam: NEET 2024.

Q171. NEET 2024 – Statements About Meiotic Prophase I

Consider the following statements.

Statement I: Chromosomes gradually become visible under a light microscope during leptotene.

Statement II: The beginning of diplotene is marked by dissolution of the synaptonemal complex.

Choose the correct answer.

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
C. Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
D. Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

During leptotene, chromosomes begin condensing and become visible. During diplotene, the synaptonemal complex disassembles and homologous chromosomes begin separating, although they remain connected at chiasmata.

Exam: NEET 2024.

Q172. NEET 2024 – Sequence of Cell-Cycle Events

Consider these stages:

A. G₂ phase
B. Cytokinesis
C. S phase
D. Karyokinesis
E. G₁ phase

Choose the correct sequence.

A. E → C → A → D → B
B. C → E → D → A → B
C. A → C → E → B → D
D. E → A → C → D → B

Correct Answer: A. E → C → A → D → B

Explanation:

The sequence is:

  1. G₁ phase: Cell growth and normal metabolic activities.
  2. S phase: DNA replication.
  3. G₂ phase: Further growth and preparation for division.
  4. Karyokinesis: Nuclear division.
  5. Cytokinesis: Division of the cytoplasm.

Exam: NEET 2024.

Exam: AIPMT 2015.

Q174. NEET 2016 Phase 1 – Feature Not Associated with Mitosis

Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of normal mitosis in somatic cells?

A. Chromosome condensation
B. Formation of the mitotic spindle
C. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes
D. Separation of sister chromatids

Correct Answer: C. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes

Explanation:

Crossing over between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes is characteristic of pachytene during meiotic prophase I. It is not a normal feature of mitosis in somatic cells.

Chromosome condensation, spindle formation, and sister-chromatid separation are important events in mitosis.

Exam: NEET 2016 Phase 1.

Q175. AIPMT 2002 – Effect of Colchicine

A diploid cell is treated with colchicine. If chromosome duplication has occurred and cell division is prevented in a way that retains the duplicated chromosome complement within one cell, the cell may become:

A. Haploid
B. Tetraploid
C. Monoploid
D. Genetically identical to a gamete in chromosome number

Correct Answer: B. Tetraploid

Explanation:

Colchicine interferes with microtubule formation and can disrupt spindle function. In suitable circumstances, chromosome duplication followed by failure of cell division can produce a cell with four sets of chromosomes instead of two.

Exam: AIPMT 2002.

Q176. NEET 2013 – Cell Undergoing Meiosis

Meiosis takes place in:

A. Meiocyte
B. Conidium
C. Gemmule
D. Mature haploid gamete

Correct Answer: A. Meiocyte

Explanation:

A meiocyte is a specialised cell that undergoes meiosis. For example, microspore mother cells and megaspore mother cells in plants undergo meiotic division to produce haploid spores.

Conidia and gemmules are associated with asexual reproduction, while a mature haploid gamete is generally a product of reproductive cell development rather than the usual starting cell for meiosis.

Exam: NEET 2013

Q177. AIPMT 2010 Prelims – Disappearance of Cell Structures During Mitosis

During mitosis, the endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus begin to disappear during which stage?

A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase

Correct Answer: A. Prophase

Explanation:

During prophase, chromosomes condense and become visible. The nucleolus disappears, and the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus undergo changes associated with mitotic reorganisation. The nuclear envelope breaks down as the cell progresses into prometaphase.

During telophase, the nucleolus and nuclear envelope re-form.

Exam: AIPMT 2010 Prelims.

Q178. AIPMT 2005 Prelims – Function of the Centromere

The centromere is essential for:

A. Transcription of DNA into RNA
B. Crossing over between homologous chromosomes
C. Cytoplasmic cleavage
D. Movement of chromosomes towards the poles

Correct Answer: D. Movement of chromosomes towards the poles

Explanation:

The centromeric region supports kinetochore assembly. Spindle microtubules attach to kinetochores and help move chromosomes or separated chromatids towards opposite poles during cell division.

Crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids during pachytene of meiotic prophase I, while cytokinesis divides the cytoplasm.

Exam: AIPMT 2005 Prelims