CHAPTER WISE WITH 9000 PLUS MCQ
GUMROAD eBook link:-
BY SHAILENDRA KUMAR VERMA
| 1. | CHALLENGING SYLLOGISM |
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| 2. | STRAIT OF HORMUZ: STRATEGIC & ECONOMIC ROLE |
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| 4. | STATIC GENERAL KNOWLEDGE |
| https://skverma29.gumroad.com/l/kzmca | |
| 5. | SSC ENGLISH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS MCQ |
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| 6. | SSC REASONING PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS MCQ |
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| 7. | SSC MATH PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS (MCQ): TIER I |
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| 8. | BANKING KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS MCQ |
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| 9. | BIHAR ANM, GNM & PHARMACIST EXAM: PAST MCQ QUESTIONS & ANSWERS – |
| 10. | ARAVALLI MOUNTAIN RANGE: THE ANCIENT SPINE OF INDIA |
| https://skverma29.gumroad.com/l/khpakf |
AMAZON eBook link:-
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| 2. | SSC REASONING PREVIOUS YEAR MCQ: SSC REASONING |
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| 3. | SSC ENGLISH PREVIOUS YEAR MCQ: SSC ENGLISH |
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| 4. | STATIC GENERAL KNOWLEDGE : WITH 620 MCQs |
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| 1. | SSC MATH PREVIOUS YEAR MCQ |
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| 2. | SSC REASONING PREVIOUS YEAR MCQ |
| https://play.google.com/books/publish/a/12574378860292240754#book/GGKEY:EUPQZ9ZUAFR/review | |
| 3. | STATIC GENERAL KNOWLEDGE |
| https://play.google.com/books/publish/a/12574378860292240754#book/GGKEY:CQDT2G4CCQP/review | |
| 4. | CHALLENGING SYLLOGISM |
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| 5. | STRAIT OF HORMUZ: STRATEGIC & ECONOMIC ROLE |
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| 6. | BIHAR TEACHER ELIGIBILITY TEST (BIHAR TET) : COMPLETE GUIDE |
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| 7. | SSC ENGLISH PREVIOUS YEAR MCQ |
| https://share.google/pr7b0YhDoDwttaq2s | |
| 8. | BANKING KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS MCQ |
| https://share.google/yqYOabKhNppcz89hl | |
| 9. | BIHAR ANM, GNM & PHARMACIST EXAM: PAST MCQ QUESTIONS & ANSWERS – |
| https://share.google/NFhtU1JoBfxPS4wa3 | |
| 10. | ARAVALLI MOUNTAIN RANGE: THE ANCIENT SPINE OF INDIA |
| https://share.google/Yo4RYnaZrbRu9qwzj |
INDEX
| SL NO | TOPICS |
| 1. | ANCIENT HISTORY |
| 2. | MEDIEVAL HISTORY |
| 3. | MODERN HISTORY |
| 4. | FREEDOM STRUGGLE |
| 5. | PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY |
| 6. | INDIAN GEOGRAPHY |
| 7. | WORLD GEOGRAPHY |
| 8. | CLIMATE, SOIL, RIVERS |
| 9. | CONSTITUTION OF INDIA |
| 10. | FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS & DUTIES |
| 11. | PARLIAMENT & JUDICIARY |
| 12. | IMPORTANT AMENDMENTS |
| 13. | BASIC ECONOMIC CONCEPTS |
| 14. | INDIAN ECONOMY |
| 15. | BUDGET & ECONOMIC SURVEY |
| 16. | BANKING & FINANCE |
| 17. | PHYSICS (BASIC CONCEPTS) |
| 18. | CHEMISTRY (EVERYDAY APPLICATIONS) |
| 19. | BIOLOGY (HUMAN BODY, PLANTS, ANIMALS) |
| 20. | NATIONAL & INTERNATIONAL NEWS |
| 21. | SPORTS |
| 22. | AWARDS & HONORS |
| 23. | IMPORTANT DAYS |
DISCLAIMER:-
THIS CHAPTER HAS BEEN PREPARED FOR EDUCATIONAL AND EXAMINATION PRACTICE PURPOSES ONLY. ALTHOUGH EVERY EFFORT HAS BEEN MADE TO ENSURE ACCURACY, THE WEBSITE OWNER, AUTHOR, AND PUBLISHER DO NOT ACCEPT RESPONSIBILITY FOR ANY ERRORS, OMISSIONS, OR CONSEQUENCES ARISING FROM THE USE OF THIS CONTENT. READERS ARE ADVISED TO VERIFY IMPORTANT INFORMATION THROUGH OFFICIAL SSC NOTIFICATIONS AND AUTHENTIC GOVERNMENT SOURCES. THE WEBSITE OWNER SHALL NOT BE LIABLE FOR ANY LOSS, DAMAGE, EXAMINATION RESULT, OR DECISION BASED ON THE INFORMATION PROVIDED IN THIS CHAPTER.
OFFICIAL SSC SYLLABUS LINK
FOR THE MOST ACCURATE AND UPDATED SYLLABUS, CANDIDATES SHOULD ALWAYS REFER TO THE OFFICIAL WEBSITE OF THE STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION.
👉 Visit Official SSC Syllabus Page
THE SSC PROVIDES SYLLABUS DETAILS FOR VARIOUS EXAMS LIKE CGL, CHSL, MTS, GD, JE, ETC. ON ITS OFFICIAL PORTAL.
👉 Visit New SSC Official Website (Latest Updates)
INTRODUCTION
THE STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION (SSC) CONDUCTS MULTIPLE COMPETITIVE EXAMS SUCH AS SSC CGL, CHSL, MTS AND OTHERS TO RECRUIT CANDIDATES FOR VARIOUS GOVERNMENT POSTS IN INDIA. AMONG ALL SECTIONS, GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (GK) AND COMPUTER AWARENESS PLAY A CRUCIAL ROLE IN SCORING HIGH MARKS WITH MINIMAL TIME INVESTMENT.
THIS ARTICLE PROVIDES A COMPLETE OVERVIEW OF THE SYLLABUS AND MARKS DISTRIBUTION FOR SSC EXAMS, ESPECIALLY SSC CGL, COVERING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND COMPUTER SECTIONS.
SSC EXAM STRUCTURE (OVERVIEW)
MOST SSC EXAMS FOLLOW A SIMILAR PATTERN:
TIER 1: OBJECTIVE (MCQ)
TIER 2: OBJECTIVE (ADVANCED LEVEL)
TIER 3: DESCRIPTIVE (IN SOME EXAMS)
TIER 4: SKILL/COMPUTER TEST (DEPENDING ON POST)
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (GK) SYLLABUS
THE GENERAL AWARENESS SECTION TESTS A CANDIDATE’S KNOWLEDGE OF CURRENT EVENTS AND STATIC SUBJECTS.
1. HISTORY
ANCIENT HISTORY
MEDIEVAL HISTORY
MODERN HISTORY
FREEDOM STRUGGLE
2. GEOGRAPHY
PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY
INDIAN GEOGRAPHY
WORLD GEOGRAPHY
CLIMATE, SOIL, RIVERS
3. POLITY
CONSTITUTION OF INDIA
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS & DUTIES
PARLIAMENT & JUDICIARY
IMPORTANT AMENDMENTS
4. ECONOMICS
BASIC ECONOMIC CONCEPTS
INDIAN ECONOMY
BUDGET & ECONOMIC SURVEY
BANKING & FINANCE
5. GENERAL SCIENCE
PHYSICS (BASIC CONCEPTS)
CHEMISTRY (EVERYDAY APPLICATIONS)
BIOLOGY (HUMAN BODY, PLANTS, ANIMALS)
6. CURRENT AFFAIRS
NATIONAL & INTERNATIONAL NEWS
SPORTS
AWARDS & HONORS
IMPORTANT DAYS
COMPUTER AWARENESS SYLLABUS
COMPUTER QUESTIONS ARE USUALLY ASKED IN TIER 1 OR TIER 2 AND IN SKILL TESTS.
1. BASICS OF COMPUTERS
INPUT & OUTPUT DEVICES
HARDWARE & SOFTWARE
MEMORY (RAM, ROM)
2. OPERATING SYSTEM
WINDOWS BASICS
FILE MANAGEMENT
SHORTCUTS
3. MS OFFICE
MS WORD
MS EXCEL
MS POWERPOINT
4. INTERNET & NETWORKING
INTERNET BASICS
WEB BROWSERS
CYBER SECURITY BASICS
5. COMPUTER FUNDAMENTALS
GENERATIONS OF COMPUTERS
TYPES OF COMPUTERS
BASIC TERMINOLOGY
MARKS DISTRIBUTION (SSC CGL TIER 1)
| SECTION | NO. OF QUESTIONS | MARKS |
| GENERAL INTELLIGENCE | 25 | 50 |
| GENERAL AWARENESS (GK) | 25 | 50 |
| QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE | 25 | 50 |
| ENGLISH COMPREHENSION | 25 | 50 |
| TOTAL | 100 | 200 |
KEY POINTS:
EACH QUESTION CARRIES 2 MARKS
NEGATIVE MARKING: 0.50 MARKS PER WRONG ANSWER
MARKS DISTRIBUTION (SSC CGL TIER 2)
PAPER 1 (COMPULSORY)
| SECTION | QUESTIONS | MARKS |
| MATHEMATICAL ABILITIES | 30 | 90 |
| REASONING | 30 | 90 |
| ENGLISH LANGUAGE | 45 | 135 |
| GENERAL AWARENESS | 25 | 75 |
| COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE | 20 | 60 |
| TOTAL | 150 | 450 |
OTHER SSC EXAMS (BRIEF MARKS IDEA)
SSC CHSL TIER 1
GK: 25 QUESTIONS (50 MARKS)
SSC MTS
GK: 25 QUESTIONS (75 MARKS IN NEW PATTERN)
SSC GD
GK: 20 QUESTIONS (40 MARKS)
ANCIENT HISTORY: SSC TIER I GK MCQS
ANCIENT HISTORY IS ONE OF THE MOST IMPORTANT SECTIONS IN SSC EXAMINATIONS SUCH AS SSC CGL, CHSL, MTS, GD, AND CPO. EVERY YEAR, 2–4 QUESTIONS ARE DIRECTLY ASKED FROM THIS TOPIC IN TIER-I EXAMS. UNDERSTANDING THE CONCEPTS ALONG WITH PREVIOUS YEAR MCQS CAN SIGNIFICANTLY IMPROVE YOUR SCORE.
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS OF ANCIENT HISTORY FOR SSC EXAMS
COVERS INDUS VALLEY CIVILIZATION, VEDIC AGE, BUDDHISM & JAINISM, MAURYAN & GUPTA EMPIRES
QUESTIONS ARE MOSTLY FACT-BASED BUT REPEATED FREQUENTLY
FOCUS AREAS:
MPORTANT RULERS & DYNASTIES
RELIGIOUS MOVEMENTS
CULTURAL DEVELOPMENTS
LITERATURE & ARCHITECTURE
REPEATED QUESTIONS TREND: MANY QUESTIONS ARE ASKED MULTIPLE TIMES WITH SLIGHT VARIATIONS
TOPIC 1: INDUS VALLEY CIVILIZATION
Q1. WHICH CITY OF THE INDUS VALLEY CIVILIZATION IS KNOWN FOR ITS DOCKYARD?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2017, SSC CHSL 2019
A) HARAPPA
B) MOHENJO-DARO
C) LOTHAL
D) KALIBANGAN
ANSWER: C) LOTHAL
EXPLANATION:
LOTHAL (IN GUJARAT) IS FAMOUS FOR ITS DOCKYARD, WHICH INDICATES ADVANCED MARITIME TRADE. THIS SHOWS THAT INDUS PEOPLE HAD KNOWLEDGE OF SEA ROUTES AND TRADE WITH MESOPOTAMIA.
Q2. THE GREAT BATH IS LOCATED IN WHICH INDUS VALLEY SITE?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2018, SSC GD 2021, SSC CHSL 2022
A) HARAPPA
B) MOHENJO-DARO
C) DHOLAVIRA
D) RAKHIGARHI
ANSWER: B) MOHENJO-DARO
EXPLANATION:
THE GREAT BATH IS ONE OF THE MOST IMPORTANT PUBLIC STRUCTURES, USED FOR RITUAL BATHING. IT REFLECTS THE IMPORTANCE OF CLEANLINESS AND POSSIBLY RELIGIOUS PRACTICES.
Q3. WHICH METAL WAS NOT KNOWN TO THE INDUS VALLEY CIVILIZATION?
EXAM: SSC CPO 2016
A) GOLD
B) SILVER
C) IRON
D) COPPER
ANSWER: C) IRON
EXPLANATION:
INDUS PEOPLE USED COPPER, BRONZE, GOLD, AND SILVER BUT IRON WAS NOT KNOWN DURING THAT TIME.
TOPIC 2: VEDIC PERIOD
Q4. WHICH VEDA CONTAINS HYMNS IN PRAISE OF GODS?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2017, SSC CHSL 2020
A) SAMAVEDA
B) RIGVEDA
C) YAJURVEDA
D) ATHARVAVEDA
ANSWER: B) RIGVEDA
EXPLANATION:
RIGVEDA IS THE OLDEST VEDA AND CONTAINS HYMNS DEDICATED TO VARIOUS GODS LIKE INDRA, AGNI, AND VARUNA.
Q5. WHAT WAS THE MAIN OCCUPATION OF RIGVEDIC PEOPLE?
EXAM: SSC GD 2019
A) TRADE
B) AGRICULTURE
C) PASTORALISM
D) CRAFTSMANSHIP
ANSWER: C) PASTORALISM
EXPLANATION:
EARLY VEDIC PEOPLE WERE MAINLY PASTORALISTS, AND CATTLE WEALTH WAS CONSIDERED A MEASURE OF PROSPERITY.
Q6. SABHA AND SAMITI WERE:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2016, SSC MTS 2021
A) TAX SYSTEMS
B) ASSEMBLIES
C) RELIGIOUS TEXTS
D) TRADE ROUTES
ANSWER: B) ASSEMBLIES
EXPLANATION:
SABHA AND SAMITI WERE POPULAR ASSEMBLIES THAT PLAYED A ROLE IN GOVERNANCE DURING THE VEDIC PERIOD.
TOPIC 3: BUDDHISM & JAINISM
Q7. WHO FOUNDED BUDDHISM?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2017, SSC GD 2020, SSC CGL 2022
A) MAHAVIRA
B) ASHOKA
C) GAUTAMA BUDDHA
D) NAGARJUNA
ANSWER: C) GAUTAMA BUDDHA
EXPLANATION:
GAUTAMA BUDDHA FOUNDED BUDDHISM IN THE 6TH CENTURY BCE. HIS TEACHINGS ARE BASED ON THE FOUR NOBLE TRUTHS AND EIGHTFOLD PATH.
Q8. WHAT IS THE SYMBOL OF JAINISM?
EXAM: SSC MTS 2019
A) WHEEL
B) HAND WITH WHEEL
C) LOTUS
D) TREE
ANSWER: B) HAND WITH WHEEL
EXPLANATION:
THE JAIN SYMBOL REPRESENTS AHIMSA (NON-VIOLENCE) AND TRUTH.
Q9. MAHAVIRA WAS THE ______ TIRTHANKARA OF JAINISM.
EXAM: SSC CGL 2018, SSC GD 2021
A) 21ST
B) 22ND
C) 23RD
D) 24TH
ANSWER: D) 24TH
EXPLANATION:
MAHAVIRA WAS THE 24TH AND LAST TIRTHANKARA OF JAINISM.
TOPIC 4: MAURYAN EMPIRE
Q10. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF THE MAURYAN EMPIRE?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2017, SSC CHSL 2019
A) ASHOKA
B) CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA
C) BINDUSARA
D) HARSHA
ANSWER: B) CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA
EXPLANATION:
CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA FOUNDED THE MAURYAN EMPIRE WITH THE HELP OF CHANAKYA AROUND 321 BCE.
Q11. WHICH MAURYAN RULER EMBRACED BUDDHISM AFTER THE KALINGA WAR?
EXAM: SSC GD 2018, SSC CPO 2020, SSC CGL 2023
A) CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA
B) BINDUSARA
C) ASHOKA
D) BIMBISARA
ANSWER: C) ASHOKA
EXPLANATION:
AFTER WITNESSING MASSIVE DESTRUCTION IN THE KALINGA WAR, ASHOKA ADOPTED BUDDHISM AND PROMOTED PEACE AND NON-VIOLENCE.
TOPIC 5: GUPTA EMPIRE
Q12. WHO IS KNOWN AS THE “NAPOLEON OF INDIA”?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2016, SSC CHSL 2021
A) CHANDRAGUPTA I
B) SAMUDRAGUPTA
C) SKANDAGUPTA
D) HARSHAVARDHANA
ANSWER: B) SAMUDRAGUPTA
EXPLANATION:
SAMUDRAGUPTA EARNED THIS TITLE DUE TO HIS MILITARY CONQUESTS AND EXPANSION POLICIES.
Q13. THE GUPTA PERIOD IS KNOWN AS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2019, SSC MTS 2022
A) DARK AGE
B) GOLDEN AGE
C) IRON AGE
D) STONE AGE
ANSWER: B) GOLDEN AGE
EXPLANATION:
THE GUPTA PERIOD IS CALLED THE GOLDEN AGE OF INDIA DUE TO ADVANCEMENTS IN SCIENCE, ART, LITERATURE, AND MATHEMATICS.
TOPIC 1: INDUS VALLEY CIVILIZATION (Q13–Q20)
Q13. THE SEALS OF INDUS VALLEY CIVILIZATION WERE MAINLY MADE OF:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2019, SSC GD 2022
A) IRON
B) COPPER
C) STEATITE
D) BRONZE
ANSWER: C) STEATITE
EXPLANATION:
MOST SEALS WERE MADE OF STEATITE (SOAPSTONE) AND WERE USED FOR TRADE AND IDENTIFICATION.
Q14. WHICH INDUS SITE IS FAMOUS FOR GRANARIES?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) LOTHAL
B) HARAPPA
C) DHOLAVIRA
D) KALIBANGAN
ANSWER: B) HARAPPA
EXPLANATION:
HARAPPA HAD LARGE GRANARIES, INDICATING ORGANIZED FOOD STORAGE.
Q15. THE INDUS VALLEY CIVILIZATION BELONGS TO:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2018
A) PALEOLITHIC AGE
B) MESOLITHIC AGE
C) NEOLITHIC AGE
D) BRONZE AGE
ANSWER: D) BRONZE AGE
EXPLANATION:
THE CIVILIZATION USED BRONZE TOOLS, HENCE CALLED BRONZE AGE CIVILIZATION.
Q16. TRADE RELATIONS OF INDUS PEOPLE WERE WITH:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) CHINA
B) MESOPOTAMIA
C) ROME
D) EGYPT
ANSWER: B) MESOPOTAMIA
EXPLANATION:
EVIDENCE SHOWS TRADE LINKS WITH MESOPOTAMIA (IRAQ REGION).
Q17. THE DRAINAGE SYSTEM OF INDUS VALLEY WAS:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2018, SSC GD 2022
A) POOR
B) MODERATE
C) ADVANCED
D) ABSENT
ANSWER: C) ADVANCED
EXPLANATION:
COVERED DRAINS AND PLANNED DRAINAGE REFLECT URBAN PLANNING EXCELLENCE.
Q18. WHICH STRUCTURE SHOWS PUBLIC BATHING?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2022
A) GRANARY
B) DOCKYARD
C) GREAT BATH
D) CITADEL
ANSWER: C) GREAT BATH
EXPLANATION:
USED FOR RITUAL AND PUBLIC BATHING IN MOHENJO-DARO.
Q19. THE WRITING SYSTEM OF INDUS VALLEY WAS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020, SSC MTS 2021
A) SANSKRIT
B) PALI
C) UNDECIPHERED
D) BRAHMI
ANSWER: C) UNDECIPHERED
EXPLANATION:
THE SCRIPT REMAINS UNDECIPHERED TILL DATE.
Q20. WHICH ANIMAL FIGURE IS NOT FOUND ON SEALS?
EXAM: SSC CPO 2017
A) BULL
B) ELEPHANT
C) HORSE
D) TIGER
ANSWER: C) HORSE
EXPLANATION:
HORSE DEPICTION IS ABSENT OR VERY RARE IN SEALS.
TOPIC 2: VEDIC PERIOD
Q21. WHICH IS THE OLDEST VEDA?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2017, SSC CHSL 2020
A) SAMAVEDA
B) RIGVEDA
C) YAJURVEDA
D) ATHARVAVEDA
ANSWER: B) RIGVEDA
EXPLANATION:
RIGVEDA IS THE OLDEST RELIGIOUS TEXT OF INDIA.
Q22. MAIN OCCUPATION OF RIGVEDIC PEOPLE WAS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2019
A) AGRICULTURE
B) TRADE
C) PASTORALISM
D) HUNTING
ANSWER: C) PASTORALISM
EXPLANATION:
CATTLE REARING WAS THE PRIMARY OCCUPATION.
Q23. SABHA AND SAMITI WERE:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2016, SSC MTS 2021
A) COURTS
B) ASSEMBLIES
C) TAXES
D) BOOKS
ANSWER: B) ASSEMBLIES
EXPLANATION:
THEY WERE POLITICAL DECISION-MAKING BODIES.
Q24. ARYANS ORIGINALLY CAME FROM:
EXAM: SSC GD 2018
A) INDIA
B) EUROPE
C) CENTRAL ASIA
D) CHINA
ANSWER: C) CENTRAL ASIA
EXPLANATION:
MOST HISTORIANS BELIEVE ARYANS MIGRATED FROM CENTRAL ASIA.
Q25. WHO WAS THE CHIEF OF A TRIBE?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2019
A) RAJA
B) RAJAN
C) SENANI
D) GRAMANI
ANSWER: B) RAJAN
EXPLANATION:
RAJAN WAS THE TRIBAL LEADER.
Q26. WHICH GOD WAS MOST IMPORTANT IN RIGVEDA?
EXAM: SSC MTS 2020
A) VISHNU
B) SHIVA
C) INDRA
D) BRAHMA
ANSWER: C) INDRA
EXPLANATION:
INDRA WAS THE MOST MENTIONED DEITY.
Q27. WHICH VEDA DEALS WITH MUSIC?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) RIGVEDA
B) SAMAVEDA
C) YAJURVEDA
D) ATHARVAVEDA
ANSWER: B) SAMAVEDA
EXPLANATION:
SAMAVEDA IS RELATED TO MUSIC AND CHANTS.
Q28. VARNA SYSTEM WAS BASED ON BIRTH IN:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2020
A) EARLY VEDIC
B) LATER VEDIC
C) MAURYAN
D) GUPTA
ANSWER: B) LATER VEDIC
EXPLANATION:
INITIALLY FLEXIBLE, LATER BECAME BIRTH-BASED.
Q29. EDUCATION SYSTEM WAS:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2019
A) MODERN
B) GURUKUL
C) ONLINE
D) INSTITUTIONAL
ANSWER: B) GURUKUL
EXPLANATION:
STUDENTS LIVED WITH TEACHERS IN GURUKUL SYSTEM.
Q30. THE TERM “GAVISTHI” MEANS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) PRAYER
B) WAR
C) AGRICULTURE
D) TRADE
ANSWER: B) WAR
EXPLANATION:
IT LITERALLY MEANS SEARCH FOR COWS, HENCE WAR.
Q31. WHICH DRINK WAS POPULAR?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2018
A) MILK
B) SOMA
C) WATER
D) WINE
ANSWER: B) SOMA
EXPLANATION:
SOMA WAS A RITUAL DRINK.
Q32. WHICH METAL WAS INTRODUCED IN LATER VEDIC AGE?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2019
A) COPPER
B) BRONZE
C) IRON
D) GOLD
ANSWER: C) IRON
EXPLANATION:
IRON TOOLS IMPROVED AGRICULTURE.
Q33. WHO PERFORMED RITUALS?
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) KSHATRIYA
B) VAISHYA
C) BRAHMIN
D) SHUDRA
ANSWER: C) BRAHMIN
EXPLANATION:
BRAHMINS WERE PRIESTS.
TOPIC 2: VEDIC PERIOD (Q34–Q45 CONTINUED)
Q34. THE ASHRAMA SYSTEM WAS DEVELOPED DURING:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2018
A) EARLY VEDIC PERIOD
B) LATER VEDIC PERIOD
C) MAURYAN PERIOD
D) GUPTA PERIOD
ANSWER: B) LATER VEDIC PERIOD
EXPLANATION:
THE ASHRAMA SYSTEM (BRAHMACHARYA, GRIHASTHA, VANAPRASTHA, SANNYASA) WAS DEVELOPED DURING THE LATER VEDIC AGE.
Q35. THE STATUS OF WOMEN DECLINED DURING:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2020
A) EARLY VEDIC PERIOD
B) LATER VEDIC PERIOD
C) INDUS VALLEY PERIOD
D) GUPTA PERIOD
ANSWER: B) LATER VEDIC PERIOD
EXPLANATION:
WOMEN ENJOYED EQUALITY IN EARLY VEDIC TIMES BUT THEIR STATUS DECLINED IN THE LATER VEDIC PERIOD.
Q36. WEALTH IN RIGVEDIC SOCIETY WAS MEASURED IN TERMS OF:
EXAM: SSC GD 2019
A) GOLD
B) LAND
C) COWS
D) SILVER
ANSWER: C) COWS
EXPLANATION:
CATTLE, ESPECIALLY COWS, WERE CONSIDERED THE MAIN SOURCE OF WEALTH.
Q37. THE FAMILY SYSTEM IN VEDIC PERIOD WAS:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2019
A) MATRIARCHAL
B) PATRIARCHAL
C) DEMOCRATIC
D) SOCIALIST
ANSWER: B) PATRIARCHAL
EXPLANATION:
THE VEDIC SOCIETY FOLLOWED A PATRIARCHAL SYSTEM, WHERE THE FATHER WAS THE HEAD.
Q38. WRITING SYSTEM DURING VEDIC PERIOD WAS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) FULLY DEVELOPED
B) PARTIALLY DEVELOPED
C) NOT DEVELOPED
D) HIGHLY ADVANCED
ANSWER: C) NOT DEVELOPED
EXPLANATION:
KNOWLEDGE WAS TRANSMITTED ORALLY, NOT THROUGH WRITING.
Q39. RELIGION IN VEDIC PERIOD WAS MAINLY:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2020
A) IDOL WORSHIP
B) NATURE WORSHIP
C) MONOTHEISM
D) ATHEISM
ANSWER: B) NATURE WORSHIP
EXPLANATION:
PEOPLE WORSHIPPED NATURAL FORCES LIKE AGNI, INDRA, VARUNA.
Q40. THE TERM “VISH” REFERS TO:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2021
A) KING
B) CLAN
C) PRIEST
D) ARMY
ANSWER: B) CLAN
EXPLANATION:
“VISH” WAS A GROUP OF FAMILIES OR CLAN.
Q41. THE TERM “JANA” MEANS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) VILLAGE
B) TRIBE
C) FAMILY
D) KINGDOM
ANSWER: B) TRIBE
EXPLANATION:
“JANA” REFERS TO A TRIBAL COMMUNITY.
Q42. SABHA WAS:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2017
A) GENERAL ASSEMBLY
B) ELITE COUNCIL
C) COURT
D) ARMY
ANSWER: B) ELITE COUNCIL
EXPLANATION:
SABHA CONSISTED OF SELECTED ELDERS AND NOBLES.
Q43. SAMITI WAS:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) RELIGIOUS TEXT
B) ELITE COUNCIL
C) GENERAL ASSEMBLY
D) TAX SYSTEM
ANSWER: C) GENERAL ASSEMBLY
EXPLANATION:
SAMITI WAS A BROADER ASSEMBLY OF PEOPLE.
Q44. ASHWAMEDHA YAJNA WAS RELATED TO:
EXAM: SSC GD 2018
A) MARRIAGE
B) WAR
C) ROYAL AUTHORITY
D) AGRICULTURE
ANSWER: C) ROYAL AUTHORITY
EXPLANATION:
IT SYMBOLIZED THE POWER AND SUPREMACY OF THE KING.
Q45. THE LANGUAGE OF RIGVEDA IS:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2019
A) PALI
B) PRAKRIT
C) SANSKRIT
D) TAMIL
ANSWER: C) SANSKRIT
EXPLANATION:
RIGVEDA IS COMPOSED IN EARLY VEDIC SANSKRIT.
TOPIC 3: BUDDHISM & JAINISM (Q46–Q70)
Q46. WHO FOUNDED BUDDHISM?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2017, SSC GD 2020, SSC CGL 2022
A) MAHAVIRA
B) ASHOKA
C) GAUTAMA BUDDHA
D) NAGARJUNA
ANSWER: C) GAUTAMA BUDDHA
EXPLANATION:
BUDDHISM WAS FOUNDED BY GAUTAMA BUDDHA IN THE 6TH CENTURY BCE.
Q47. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF JAINISM?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2019
A) BUDDHA
B) MAHAVIRA
C) PARSHVANATHA
D) RISHABHANATHA
ANSWER: B) MAHAVIRA
EXPLANATION:
MAHAVIRA IS REGARDED AS THE 24TH TIRTHANKARA AND FOUNDER OF JAINISM.
Q48. MAHAVIRA WAS THE ______ TIRTHANKARA.
EXAM: SSC CGL 2018, SSC GD 2021
A) 21ST
B) 22ND
C) 23RD
D) 24TH
ANSWER: D) 24TH
EXPLANATION:
MAHAVIRA WAS THE LAST (24TH) TIRTHANKARA.
Q49. BIRTHPLACE OF BUDDHA IS:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2020
A) SARNATH
B) LUMBINI
C) BODH GAYA
D) KUSHINAGAR
ANSWER: B) LUMBINI
EXPLANATION:
BUDDHA WAS BORN AT LUMBINI (PRESENT NEPAL).
Q50. BUDDHA ATTAINED ENLIGHTENMENT AT:
EXAM: SSC GD 2019
A) LUMBINI
B) SARNATH
C) BODH GAYA
D) RAJGIR
ANSWER: C) BODH GAYA
EXPLANATION:
HE ATTAINED ENLIGHTENMENT UNDER THE BODHI TREE.
Q51. FIRST SERMON WAS GIVEN AT:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2018
A) KUSHINAGAR
B) SARNATH
C) RAJGIR
D) VAISHALI
ANSWER: B) SARNATH
EXPLANATION:
KNOWN AS DHARMACHAKRA PRAVARTAN.
Q52. BUDDHA ATTAINED MAHAPARINIRVANA AT:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) BODH GAYA
B) SARNATH
C) KUSHINAGAR
D) LUMBINI
ANSWER: C) KUSHINAGAR
EXPLANATION:
HE DIED AT KUSHINAGAR.
Q53. BUDDHIST SACRED TEXTS ARE CALLED:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2019
A) VEDAS
B) UPANISHADS
C) TRIPITAKA
D) AGAMAS
ANSWER: C) TRIPITAKA
EXPLANATION:
TRIPITAKA MEANS THREE BASKETS OF TEACHINGS.
Q54. JAIN SACRED TEXTS ARE:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) VEDAS
B) TRIPITAKA
C) AGAMAS
D) PURANAS
ANSWER: C) AGAMAS
EXPLANATION:
AGAMAS CONTAIN TEACHINGS OF JAIN TIRTHANKARAS.
Q55. THE SYMBOL OF BUDDHISM IS:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2020
A) LOTUS
B) WHEEL
C) TREE
D) HAND
ANSWER: B) WHEEL
EXPLANATION:
REPRESENTS DHARMA CHAKRA (WHEEL OF LAW).
Q56. THE PRINCIPLE OF AHIMSA IS MAINLY ASSOCIATED WITH:
EXAM: SSC GD 2018
A) BUDDHISM
B) JAINISM
C) HINDUISM
D) SIKHISM
ANSWER: B) JAINISM
EXPLANATION:
AHIMSA IS THE CORE TEACHING OF JAINISM.
Q57. LANGUAGE USED BY BUDDHA:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2019
A) SANSKRIT
B) PALI
C) TAMIL
D) PERSIAN
ANSWER: B) PALI
EXPLANATION:
BUDDHA PREACHED IN PALI LANGUAGE.
Q58. JAINISM USED WHICH LANGUAGE?
EXAM: SSC MTS 2021
A) SANSKRIT
B) PRAKRIT
C) PALI
D) HINDI
ANSWER: B) PRAKRIT
Q59. TRIRATNA BELONGS TO:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) JAINISM
B) BUDDHISM
C) VEDIC
D) GUPTA
ANSWER: B) BUDDHISM
Q60. THE BUDDHIST MONKS WERE CALLED:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2017
A) YOGIS
B) SADHUS
C) SANGHA
D) BHIKSHUS
ANSWER: D) BHIKSHUS
Q61. MIDDLE PATH WAS GIVEN BY:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) MAHAVIRA
B) BUDDHA
C) ASHOKA
D) CHANAKYA
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: AVOIDS EXTREMES OF LUXURY AND AUSTERITY
TOPIC 3: BUDDHISM & JAINISM
Q62. FOUR NOBLE TRUTHS BELONG TO:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) JAINISM
B) BUDDHISM
C) VEDIC RELIGION
D) SHAIVISM
ANSWER: B) BUDDHISM
EXPLANATION:
THE FOUR NOBLE TRUTHS EXPLAIN THE NATURE OF SUFFERING AND THE PATH TO OVERCOME IT IN BUDDHISM.
Q63. EIGHTFOLD PATH IS RELATED TO:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) JAINISM
B) BUDDHISM
C) GUPTA PERIOD
D) MAURYAN PERIOD
ANSWER: B) BUDDHISM
EXPLANATION:
THE EIGHTFOLD PATH IS THE PATH TO ATTAIN NIRVANA IN BUDDHISM.
Q64. DIGAMBARA SECT BELONGS TO:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2019
A) BUDDHISM
B) JAINISM
C) HINDUISM
D) SIKHISM
ANSWER: B) JAINISM
EXPLANATION:
DIGAMBARA IS ONE OF THE TWO MAIN SECTS OF JAINISM.
Q65. SVETAMBARA SECT BELONGS TO:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) BUDDHISM
B) JAINISM
C) VEDIC RELIGION
D) SHAIVISM
ANSWER: B) JAINISM
EXPLANATION:
SVETAMBARA IS THE OTHER MAJOR SECT OF JAINISM.
Q66. THE FIRST BUDDHIST COUNCIL WAS HELD AT:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2021
A) VAISHALI
B) RAJGRIHA
C) PATALIPUTRA
D) SARNATH
ANSWER: B) RAJGRIHA
EXPLANATION:
THE FIRST COUNCIL WAS HELD AT RAJGRIHA UNDER AJATASHATRU.
Q67. KARMA THEORY IS COMMON IN:
EXAM: SSC GD 2019
A) ONLY BUDDHISM
B) ONLY JAINISM
C) BOTH BUDDHISM AND JAINISM
D) NEITHER
ANSWER: C) BOTH BUDDHISM AND JAINISM
EXPLANATION:
BOTH RELIGIONS BELIEVE IN KARMA AND ITS EFFECTS.
Q68. REBIRTH IS BELIEVED IN:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) BUDDHISM ONLY
B) JAINISM ONLY
C) BOTH
D) NONE
ANSWER: C) BOTH
EXPLANATION:
BOTH RELIGIONS BELIEVE IN THE CYCLE OF BIRTH AND REBIRTH.
Q69. MAHAYANA IS A SECT OF:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2018
A) JAINISM
B) BUDDHISM
C) HINDUISM
D) SIKHISM
ANSWER: B) BUDDHISM
EXPLANATION:
MAHAYANA EMPHASIZES BODHISATTVA IDEAL.
Q70. HINAYANA IS A SECT OF:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) JAINISM
B) BUDDHISM
C) VEDIC RELIGION
D) SHAIVISM
ANSWER: B) BUDDHISM
EXPLANATION:
HINAYANA FOCUSES ON INDIVIDUAL SALVATION.
TOPIC 4: MAURYAN EMPIRE
Q71. FOUNDER OF MAURYAN EMPIRE?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2017, SSC CHSL 2019
A) ASHOKA
B) CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA
C) BINDUSARA
D) HARSHA
ANSWER: B) CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA
EXPLANATION:
HE ESTABLISHED THE MAURYAN EMPIRE IN 321 BCE.
Q72. CHANAKYA IS ALSO KNOWN AS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2019
A) KALIDASA
B) VISHNUGUPTA
C) ARYABHATA
D) PANINI
ANSWER: B) VISHNUGUPTA
EXPLANATION:
CHANAKYA IS ALSO CALLED VISHNUGUPTA OR KAUTILYA.
Q73. ARTHASHASTRA WAS WRITTEN BY:
EXAM: SSC CPO 2020
A) KALIDASA
B) CHANAKYA
C) ASHOKA
D) PANINI
ANSWER: B) CHANAKYA
EXPLANATION:
ARTHASHASTRA DEALS WITH STATECRAFT AND ECONOMY.
Q74. GREEK AMBASSADOR IN MAURYAN COURT WAS:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2018
A) FA-HIEN
B) MEGASTHENES
C) HIUEN TSANG
D) PLINY
ANSWER: B) MEGASTHENES
EXPLANATION:
HE WROTE INDICA, DESCRIBING MAURYAN INDIA.
Q75. ASHOKA FOUGHT THE KALINGA WAR IN:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) 326 BCE
B) 321 BCE
C) 261 BCE
D) 273 BCE
ANSWER: C) 261 BCE
EXPLANATION:
AFTER THIS WAR, ASHOKA ADOPTED BUDDHISM.
Q76. ASHOKA ADOPTED WHICH RELIGION?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2023
A) JAINISM
B) BUDDHISM
C) HINDUISM
D) SIKHISM
ANSWER: B) BUDDHISM
EXPLANATION:
HE PROMOTED PEACE AND NON-VIOLENCE.
Q77. MAURYAN CAPITAL WAS:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2022
A) DELHI
B) PATALIPUTRA
C) UJJAIN
D) TAXILA
ANSWER: B) PATALIPUTRA
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS THE ADMINISTRATIVE CENTER.
Q78. ASHOKAN EDICTS WERE WRITTEN IN:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) SANSKRIT
B) PRAKRIT
C) PERSIAN
D) GREEK
ANSWER: B) PRAKRIT
EXPLANATION:
COMMON PEOPLE COULD UNDERSTAND THEM.
Q79. DHAMMA POLICY WAS INTRODUCED BY:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) CHANDRAGUPTA
B) BINDUSARA
C) ASHOKA
D) HARSHA
ANSWER: C) ASHOKA
EXPLANATION:
DHAMMA EMPHASIZED MORAL VALUES.
Q80. LION CAPITAL IS LOCATED AT:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2022
A) DELHI
B) SARNATH
C) PATNA
D) AGRA
ANSWER: B) SARNATH
EXPLANATION:
IT IS INDIA’S NATIONAL EMBLEM.
Q81. BINDUSARA WAS THE SON OF:
EXAM: SSC GD 2018
A) ASHOKA
B) CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA
C) HARSHA
D) BIMBISARA
ANSWER: B) CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA
EXPLANATION:
HE RULED AFTER CHANDRAGUPTA.
Q82. MAURYAN ADMINISTRATION WAS:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2019
A) DECENTRALIZED
B) FEDERAL
C) CENTRALIZED
D) DEMOCRATIC
ANSWER: C) CENTRALIZED
EXPLANATION:
STRONG CONTROL BY THE EMPEROR.
Q83. USE OF SPIES WAS COMMON IN:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) GUPTA EMPIRE
B) MAURYAN EMPIRE
C) MUGHAL EMPIRE
D) DELHI SULTANATE
ANSWER: B) MAURYAN EMPIRE
EXPLANATION:
MENTIONED IN ARTHASHASTRA.
Q84. ASHOKA’S INSCRIPTIONS ARE KNOWN AS:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) MANUSCRIPTS
B) EDICTS
C) VEDAS
D) SUTRAS
ANSWER: B) EDICTS
EXPLANATION:
THEY SPREAD HIS POLICIES.
Q85. KALINGA WAR CHANGED ASHOKA’S:
EXAM: SSC GD 2019
A) CAPITAL
B) RELIGION
C) POLICY
D) ARMY
ANSWER: C) POLICY
EXPLANATION:
HE SHIFTED TO PEACE AND DHAMMA.
TOPIC 5: GUPTA EMPIRE (Q86–Q100)
Q86. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF THE GUPTA EMPIRE?
EXAM: SSC GD 2019
A) CHANDRAGUPTA I
B) SAMUDRAGUPTA
C) ASHOKA
D) HARSHA
ANSWER: A) CHANDRAGUPTA I
EXPLANATION:
CHANDRAGUPTA I IS CONSIDERED THE FOUNDER OF THE GUPTA EMPIRE.
Q87. THE GUPTA PERIOD IS KNOWN AS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2019, SSC MTS 2022
A) DARK AGE
B) GOLDEN AGE
C) IRON AGE
D) STONE AGE
ANSWER: B) GOLDEN AGE
EXPLANATION:
IT IS CALLED THE GOLDEN AGE DUE TO PROGRESS IN SCIENCE, ART, AND LITERATURE.
Q88. WHO IS KNOWN AS THE “NAPOLEON OF INDIA”?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2016, SSC CHSL 2021
A) CHANDRAGUPTA I
B) SAMUDRAGUPTA
C) SKANDAGUPTA
D) HARSHAVARDHANA
ANSWER: B) SAMUDRAGUPTA
EXPLANATION:
DUE TO HIS MILITARY CONQUESTS AND EXPANSION, HE EARNED THIS TITLE.
Q89. KALIDASA WAS A FAMOUS:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2020
A) SCIENTIST
B) POET
C) KING
D) GENERAL
ANSWER: B) POET
EXPLANATION:
KALIDASA WAS A GREAT SANSKRIT POET AND DRAMATIST.
Q90. ARYABHATA IS KNOWN FOR:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) MEDICINE
B) ASTRONOMY
C) LITERATURE
D) POLITICS
ANSWER: B) ASTRONOMY
EXPLANATION:
ARYABHATA MADE IMPORTANT CONTRIBUTIONS IN MATHEMATICS AND ASTRONOMY.
Q91. THE DECIMAL SYSTEM WAS DEVELOPED DURING:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2022
A) MAURYAN PERIOD
B) GUPTA PERIOD
C) VEDIC PERIOD
D) MUGHAL PERIOD
ANSWER: B) GUPTA PERIOD
EXPLANATION:
THE DECIMAL SYSTEM AND CONCEPT OF ZERO WERE DEVELOPED.
Q92. NALANDA UNIVERSITY WAS FAMOUS FOR:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2021
A) TRADE
B) WARFARE
C) EDUCATION
D) AGRICULTURE
ANSWER: C) EDUCATION
EXPLANATION:
NALANDA WAS A WORLD-RENOWNED CENTER OF LEARNING.
Q93. WHICH CHINESE TRAVELER VISITED DURING THE GUPTA PERIOD?
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) HIUEN TSANG
B) FA-HIEN
C) MEGASTHENES
D) IBN BATTUTA
ANSWER: B) FA-HIEN
EXPLANATION:
FA-HIEN VISITED INDIA DURING CHANDRAGUPTA II’S REIGN.
Q94. GUPTA COINS WERE MAINLY MADE OF:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2019
A) SILVER
B) GOLD
C) COPPER
D) IRON
ANSWER: B) GOLD
EXPLANATION:
GUPTA RULERS ISSUED HIGH-QUALITY GOLD COINS.
Q95. GUPTA ART IS FAMOUS FOR:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) SIMPLICITY
B) EXCELLENCE
C) ROUGHNESS
D) PLAINNESS
ANSWER: B) EXCELLENCE
EXPLANATION:
GUPTA ART REACHED A HIGH LEVEL OF PERFECTION.
Q96. THE MAIN LANGUAGE OF GUPTA LITERATURE WAS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) PALI
B) PRAKRIT
C) SANSKRIT
D) TAMIL
ANSWER: C) SANSKRIT
EXPLANATION:
MOST LITERATURE WAS WRITTEN IN SANSKRIT.
Q97. THE DECLINE OF GUPTA EMPIRE WAS DUE TO:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2019
A) INTERNAL CONFLICT
B) HUN INVASION
C) WEAK RULERS
D) ALL OF THE ABOVE
ANSWER: D) ALL OF THE ABOVE
EXPLANATION:
MULTIPLE FACTORS INCLUDING HUN INVASION AND WEAK RULERS CAUSED DECLINE.
Q98. TRADE DURING GUPTA PERIOD:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) DECLINED
B) FLOURISHED
C) STOPPED
D) WAS LIMITED
ANSWER: B) FLOURISHED
EXPLANATION:
TRADE AND COMMERCE WERE HIGHLY DEVELOPED.
Q99. SCIENCE IN GUPTA PERIOD WAS:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2020
A) BACKWARD
B) AVERAGE
C) ADVANCED
D) UNKNOWN
ANSWER: C) ADVANCED
EXPLANATION:
MAJOR ADVANCEMENTS IN MATHEMATICS AND ASTRONOMY.
Q100. GUPTA ADMINISTRATION WAS:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2019
A) WEAK
B) EFFICIENT
C) CORRUPT
D) DISORGANIZED
ANSWER: B) EFFICIENT
EXPLANATION:
THE ADMINISTRATION WAS WELL-ORGANIZED AND EFFECTIVE.
ANCIENT HISTORY MCQS (Q101–Q130)
MIXED ADVANCED QUESTIONS
Q101. WHICH INDUS SITE IS LOCATED IN HARYANA?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) LOTHAL
B) RAKHIGARHI
C) DHOLAVIRA
D) KALIBANGAN
ANSWER: B) RAKHIGARHI
EXPLANATION:
RAKHIGARHI IS ONE OF THE LARGEST INDUS VALLEY SITES IN HARYANA, INDIA.
Q102. DHOLAVIRA IS LOCATED IN WHICH STATE?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) राजस्थान
B) GUJARAT
C) PUNJAB
D) HARYANA
ANSWER: B) GUJARAT
EXPLANATION:
DHOLAVIRA IS LOCATED IN GUJARAT (KUTCH REGION).
Q103. WHICH FEATURE IS UNIQUE TO DHOLAVIRA?
EXAM: SSC MTS 2022
A) DOCKYARD
B) WATER MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
C) GREAT BATH
D) FIRE ALTAR
ANSWER: B) WATER MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
EXPLANATION:
DHOLAVIRA IS FAMOUS FOR ITS ADVANCED WATER CONSERVATION SYSTEM.
Q104. WHICH VEDIC TEXT DEALS WITH RITUALS?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) RIGVEDA
B) SAMAVEDA
C) YAJURVEDA
D) ATHARVAVEDA
ANSWER: C) YAJURVEDA
EXPLANATION:
YAJURVEDA CONTAINS RITUAL FORMULAS AND SACRIFICIAL PROCEDURES.
Q105. UPANISHADS ARE RELATED TO:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2020
A) RITUALS
B) PHILOSOPHY
C) WAR
D) TRADE
ANSWER: B) PHILOSOPHY
EXPLANATION:
UPANISHADS FOCUS ON SPIRITUAL KNOWLEDGE AND PHILOSOPHY.
Q106. WHO COMPILED THE VEDAS?
EXAM: SSC GD 2019
A) VALMIKI
B) VED VYASA
C) KALIDASA
D) PANINI
ANSWER: B) VED VYASA
EXPLANATION:
VED VYASA IS CREDITED WITH COMPILING THE VEDAS.
Q107. THE TERM “NIRVANA” MEANS:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) DEATH
B) SALVATION
C) REBIRTH
D) HEAVEN
ANSWER: B) SALVATION
EXPLANATION:
NIRVANA IS THE FREEDOM FROM CYCLE OF BIRTH AND DEATH.
Q108. WHO WAS THE FIRST TIRTHANKARA OF JAINISM?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) MAHAVIRA
B) PARSHVANATHA
C) RISHABHANATHA
D) AJITANATHA
ANSWER: C) RISHABHANATHA
EXPLANATION:
RISHABHANATHA WAS THE FIRST TIRTHANKARA.
Q109. WHICH DYNASTY PRECEDED MAURYAN EMPIRE?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) GUPTA
B) NANDA
C) KUSHAN
D) SATAVAHANA
ANSWER: B) NANDA
EXPLANATION:
THE MAURYAN EMPIRE REPLACED THE NANDA DYNASTY.
Q110. MEGASTHENES WROTE:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2019
A) ARTHASHASTRA
B) INDICA
C) RAMAYANA
D) MAHABHARATA
ANSWER: B) INDICA
EXPLANATION:
INDICA DESCRIBES MAURYAN ADMINISTRATION AND SOCIETY.
Q111. WHICH RULER ISSUED ROCK EDICTS?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2022
A) CHANDRAGUPTA
B) ASHOKA
C) BINDUSARA
D) SAMUDRAGUPTA
ANSWER: B) ASHOKA
EXPLANATION:
ASHOKA SPREAD HIS MESSAGE THROUGH ROCK AND PILLAR EDICTS.
Q112. GUPTA RULER WHO DEFEATED HUNAS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) CHANDRAGUPTA I
B) SAMUDRAGUPTA
C) SKANDAGUPTA
D) KUMARAGUPTA
ANSWER: C) SKANDAGUPTA
EXPLANATION:
SKANDAGUPTA SUCCESSFULLY REPELLED HUN INVASIONS.
Q113. WHO WROTE “MEGHADUTA”?
EXAM: SSC MTS 2020
A) KALIDASA
B) BANABHATTA
C) ARYABHATA
D) PANINI
ANSWER: A) KALIDASA
EXPLANATION:
MEGHADUTA IS A FAMOUS POEM BY KALIDASA.
Q114. ARYABHATA PROPOSED THAT EARTH:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2022
A) IS FLAT
B) ROTATES ON AXIS
C) IS CENTER OF UNIVERSE
D) IS STATIONARY
ANSWER: B) ROTATES ON AXIS
EXPLANATION:
ARYABHATA EXPLAINED ROTATION OF EARTH.
Q115. WHICH GUPTA RULER IS KNOWN AS VIKRAMADITYA?
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) CHANDRAGUPTA I
B) CHANDRAGUPTA II
C) SAMUDRAGUPTA
D) SKANDAGUPTA
ANSWER: B) CHANDRAGUPTA II
EXPLANATION:
HE ADOPTED THE TITLE VIKRAMADITYA.
Q116. AJANTA CAVES ARE RELATED TO:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) JAINISM
B) BUDDHISM
C) HINDUISM
D) SIKHISM
ANSWER: B) BUDDHISM
EXPLANATION:
AJANTA CAVES CONTAIN BUDDHIST PAINTINGS AND SCULPTURES.
Q117. ELLORA CAVES ARE RELATED TO:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) ONLY BUDDHISM
B) ONLY JAINISM
C) ALL THREE RELIGIONS
D) ONLY HINDUISM
ANSWER: C) ALL THREE RELIGIONS
EXPLANATION:
ELLORA INCLUDES BUDDHIST, HINDU, AND JAIN CAVES.
Q118. SANCHI STUPA WAS BUILT BY:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2019
A) CHANDRAGUPTA
B) ASHOKA
C) SAMUDRAGUPTA
D) HARSHA
ANSWER: B) ASHOKA
EXPLANATION:
ASHOKA BUILT MANY STUPAS INCLUDING SANCHI.
Q119. WHICH SCRIPT WAS USED IN ASHOKAN INSCRIPTIONS?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) BRAHMI
B) KHAROSTHI
C) BOTH
D) NONE
ANSWER: C) BOTH
EXPLANATION:
ASHOKA USED BRAHMI AND KHAROSTHI SCRIPTS.
Q120. PANINI IS KNOWN FOR:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) MEDICINE
B) GRAMMAR
C) ASTRONOMY
D) WARFARE
ANSWER: B) GRAMMAR
EXPLANATION:
PANINI WROTE ASHTADHYAYI (GRAMMAR TEXT).
Q121. TAXILA WAS FAMOUS FOR:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) TRADE
B) EDUCATION
C) WAR
D) RELIGION
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: ANCIENT EDUCATION CENTER
Q122. BIMBISARA BELONGED TO:
EXAM: SSC GD 2019
A) MAURYA
B) GUPTA
C) HARYANKA
D) NANDA
ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION: EARLY MAGADHA RULER
Q123. AJATASHATRU WAS THE SON OF:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2020
A) CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA
B) BIMBISARA
C) ASHOKA
D) BINDUSARA
ANSWER: B) BIMBISARA
EXPLANATION:
AJATASHATRU WAS THE SON OF BIMBISARA AND RULER OF MAGADHA.
Q124. THE CAPITAL OF MAGADHA DURING EARLY PERIOD WAS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2019
A) PATALIPUTRA
B) RAJGIR
C) VAISHALI
D) UJJAIN
ANSWER: B) RAJGIR
EXPLANATION:
RAJGIR (RAJAGRIHA) WAS THE EARLY CAPITAL OF MAGADHA.
Q125. THE LATER CAPITAL OF MAGADHA BECAME:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) UJJAIN
B) TAXILA
C) PATALIPUTRA
D) KASHI
ANSWER: C) PATALIPUTRA
EXPLANATION:
PATALIPUTRA LATER BECAME THE MAJOR POLITICAL CENTER.
Q126. HARYANKA DYNASTY WAS ASSOCIATED WITH:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2020
A) GUPTA EMPIRE
B) MAURYAN EMPIRE
C) MAGADHA
D) KUSHAN EMPIRE
ANSWER: C) MAGADHA
EXPLANATION:
THE HARYANKA DYNASTY RULED THE MAGADHA REGION.
Q127. UJJAIN WAS AN IMPORTANT CENTER OF:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) AGRICULTURE
B) TRADE
C) RELIGION
D) WARFARE
ANSWER: B) TRADE
EXPLANATION:
UJJAIN WAS A MAJOR TRADE AND COMMERCIAL HUB.
Q128. VAISHALI WAS KNOWN AS A:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2019
A) MONARCHY
B) REPUBLIC
C) EMPIRE
D) KINGDOM
ANSWER: B) REPUBLIC
EXPLANATION:
VAISHALI IS CONSIDERED ONE OF THE EARLIEST REPUBLICS.
Q129. WHICH IS CONSIDERED THE FIRST REPUBLIC IN THE WORLD?
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) ATHENS
B) ROME
C) VAISHALI
D) SPARTA
ANSWER: C) VAISHALI
EXPLANATION:
VAISHALI HAD A REPUBLICAN FORM OF GOVERNANCE.
Q130. THE SECOND BUDDHIST COUNCIL WAS HELD AT:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) RAJGRIHA
B) VAISHALI
C) PATALIPUTRA
D) SARNATH
ANSWER: B) VAISHALI
EXPLANATION:
THE SECOND COUNCIL WAS HELD AT VAISHALI TO SETTLE DISPUTES.
ANCIENT HISTORY MCQS (Q131–Q200)
Q131. WHICH MAHAJANAPADA WAS THE MOST POWERFUL IN 6TH CENTURY BCE?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) KASHI
B) MAGADHA
C) AVANTI
D) KOSALA
ANSWER: B) MAGADHA
EXPLANATION:
MAGADHA BECAME THE MOST POWERFUL DUE TO FERTILE LAND, IRON RESOURCES, AND STRONG RULERS.
Q132. THE NUMBER OF MAHAJANAPADAS WAS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2019
A) 12
B) 14
C) 16
D) 18
ANSWER: C) 16
EXPLANATION:
THERE WERE 16 MAHAJANAPADAS IN ANCIENT INDIA.
Q133. WHICH MAHAJANAPADA HAD ITS CAPITAL AT UJJAIN?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) AVANTI
B) KOSALA
C) MAGADHA
D) VATSA
ANSWER: A) AVANTI
EXPLANATION:
AVANTI’S CAPITAL WAS UJJAIN, A MAJOR TRADE CENTER.
Q134. KOSALA’S CAPITAL WAS:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2021
A) KASHI
B) SHRAVASTI
C) VAISHALI
D) RAJGIR
ANSWER: B) SHRAVASTI
EXPLANATION:
SHRAVASTI WAS THE CAPITAL OF KOSALA KINGDOM.
Q135. VATSA’S CAPITAL WAS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) KAUSHAMBI
B) UJJAIN
C) PATALIPUTRA
D) TAXILA
ANSWER: A) KAUSHAMBI
EXPLANATION:
KAUSHAMBI WAS AN IMPORTANT POLITICAL AND TRADE CENTER.
Q136. THE CAPITAL OF KASHI WAS:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2020
A) VARANASI
B) UJJAIN
C) RAJGIR
D) PATALIPUTRA
ANSWER: A) VARANASI
EXPLANATION:
KASHI WAS CENTERED AROUND VARANASI.
Q137. WHICH RULER IS KNOWN AS “AMITRAGHATA”?
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) ASHOKA
B) BINDUSARA
C) CHANDRAGUPTA
D) BIMBISARA
ANSWER: B) BINDUSARA
EXPLANATION:
BINDUSARA WAS CALLED AMITRAGHATA (SLAYER OF ENEMIES).
Q138. THE CAPITAL OF AVANTI WAS:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2019
A) UJJAIN
B) TAXILA
C) VAISHALI
D) KASHI
ANSWER: A) UJJAIN
EXPLANATION:
UJJAIN WAS THE MAIN CENTER OF AVANTI.
Q139. WHICH MAHAJANAPADA WAS A REPUBLIC?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2022
A) MAGADHA
B) KOSALA
C) VAJJI
D) AVANTI
ANSWER: C) VAJJI
EXPLANATION:
VAJJI (VAISHALI) HAD A REPUBLICAN SYSTEM.
Q140. VAJJI CONFEDERACY INCLUDED:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) LICHCHHAVIS
B) MAURYAS
C) GUPTAS
D) KUSHANS
ANSWER: A) LICHCHHAVIS
EXPLANATION:
LICHCHHAVIS WERE PART OF THE VAJJI REPUBLIC.
Q141. THE BATTLE OF HYDASPES WAS FOUGHT BETWEEN:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) ALEXANDER & PORUS
B) CHANDRAGUPTA & SELEUCUS
C) ASHOKA & KALINGA
D) BIMBISARA & AJATASHATRU
ANSWER: A) ALEXANDER & PORUS
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS FOUGHT ON THE JHELUM RIVER (HYDASPES).
Q142. PORUS RULED OVER:
EXAM: SSC GD 2019
A) MAGADHA
B) PUNJAB
C) AVANTI
D) KOSALA
ANSWER: B) PUNJAB
EXPLANATION:
PORUS WAS A KING OF THE PUNJAB REGION.
Q143. ALEXANDER INVADED INDIA IN:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2020
A) 326 BCE
B) 321 BCE
C) 300 BCE
D) 250 BCE
ANSWER: A) 326 BCE
EXPLANATION:
ALEXANDER REACHED INDIA IN 326 BCE.
Q144. SELEUCUS WAS DEFEATED BY:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) ASHOKA
B) CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA
C) BINDUSARA
D) HARSHA
ANSWER: B) CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA
EXPLANATION:
CHANDRAGUPTA DEFEATED SELEUCUS AND GAINED TERRITORY.
Q145. WHICH RULER MARRIED SELEUCUS’S DAUGHTER?
EXAM: SSC MTS 2022
A) ASHOKA
B) CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA
C) BINDUSARA
D) SAMUDRAGUPTA
ANSWER: B) CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA
EXPLANATION:
MARRIAGE ALLIANCE STRENGTHENED RELATIONS.
Q146. THE CAPITAL OF THE KUSHAN EMPIRE WAS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) PATALIPUTRA
B) MATHURA
C) TAXILA
D) UJJAIN
ANSWER: B) MATHURA
EXPLANATION:
MATHURA WAS ONE OF THE IMPORTANT CAPITALS.
Q147. KANISHKA WAS A RULER OF:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2019
A) MAURYA
B) GUPTA
C) KUSHAN
D) NANDA
ANSWER: C) KUSHAN
EXPLANATION:
KANISHKA WAS THE GREATEST KUSHAN RULER.
Q148. KANISHKA IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) JAINISM
B) BUDDHISM
C) HINDUISM
D) SIKHISM
ANSWER: B) BUDDHISM
EXPLANATION:
HE PROMOTED MAHAYANA BUDDHISM.
Q149. FOURTH BUDDHIST COUNCIL WAS HELD UNDER:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) ASHOKA
B) KANISHKA
C) HARSHA
D) BIMBISARA
ANSWER: B) KANISHKA
EXPLANATION:
HELD IN KASHMIR.
Q150. GANDHARA ART IS A BLEND OF:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2022
A) INDIAN & GREEK
B) INDIAN & PERSIAN
C) INDIAN & CHINESE
D) INDIAN & ROMAN
ANSWER: A) INDIAN & GREEK
EXPLANATION:
IT SHOWS GRECO-INDIAN INFLUENCE.
Q151. MATHURA SCHOOL OF ART IS RELATED TO:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) GREEK STYLE
B) INDIGENOUS STYLE
C) PERSIAN STYLE
D) ROMAN STYLE
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: PURE INDIAN STYLE
Q152. WHICH DYNASTY BUILT SUN TEMPLE AT KONARK?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) MAURYA
B) GUPTA
C) GANGA
D) CHOLA
ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION: BUILT BY EASTERN GANGA DYNASTY
Q153. HARSHAVARDHANA BELONGED TO WHICH DYNASTY?
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) MAURYA
B) GUPTA
C) PUSHYABHUTI
D) KUSHAN
ANSWER: C) PUSHYABHUTI
EXPLANATION:
HARSHAVARDHANA WAS THE RULER OF THE PUSHYABHUTI DYNASTY.
Q154. THE CAPITAL OF HARSHAVARDHANA WAS:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) DELHI
B) KANNAUJ
C) PATALIPUTRA
D) UJJAIN
ANSWER: B) KANNAUJ
EXPLANATION:
KANNAUJ BECAME THE POLITICAL CENTER UNDER HARSHA.
Q155. HIUEN TSANG VISITED INDIA DURING THE REIGN OF:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2019
A) ASHOKA
B) CHANDRAGUPTA II
C) HARSHAVARDHANA
D) SAMUDRAGUPTA
ANSWER: C) HARSHAVARDHANA
EXPLANATION:
THE CHINESE TRAVELER HIUEN TSANG VISITED DURING HARSHA’S REIGN.
Q156. HARSHAVARDHANA WAS A FOLLOWER OF:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) JAINISM
B) BUDDHISM
C) SHAIVISM
D) VAISHNAVISM
ANSWER: B) BUDDHISM
EXPLANATION:
HARSHA LATER BECAME A PATRON OF BUDDHISM.
Q157. NALANDA UNIVERSITY FLOURISHED UNDER:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2021
A) MAURYAS ONLY
B) GUPTAS ONLY
C) GUPTAS AND HARSHA
D) MUGHALS
ANSWER: C) GUPTAS AND HARSHA
EXPLANATION:
NALANDA REACHED GREAT HEIGHTS UNDER GUPTA RULERS AND HARSHA.
Q158. AJANTA PAINTINGS MAINLY DEPICT:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) HINDU MYTHOLOGY
B) JAIN TEACHINGS
C) BUDDHIST THEMES
D) WAR SCENES
ANSWER: C) BUDDHIST THEMES
EXPLANATION:
AJANTA CAVES ILLUSTRATE JATAKA TALES OF BUDDHA.
Q159. ELLORA CAVES ARE LOCATED IN:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) GUJARAT
B) MAHARASHTRA
C) MADHYA PRADESH
D) RAJASTHAN
ANSWER: B) MAHARASHTRA
EXPLANATION:
ELLORA CAVES ARE IN AURANGABAD, MAHARASHTRA.
Q160. SARNATH IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2022
A) BIRTH OF BUDDHA
B) ENLIGHTENMENT
C) FIRST SERMON
D) DEATH
ANSWER: C) FIRST SERMON
EXPLANATION:
BUDDHA DELIVERED HIS FIRST SERMON AT SARNATH.
Q161. BODH GAYA IS LOCATED IN:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) UTTAR PRADESH
B) BIHAR
C) MADHYA PRADESH
D) ODISHA
ANSWER: B) BIHAR
EXPLANATION:
IT IS THE PLACE WHERE BUDDHA ATTAINED ENLIGHTENMENT.
Q162. KUSHINAGAR IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2020
A) BIRTH OF BUDDHA
B) ENLIGHTENMENT
C) FIRST SERMON
D) MAHAPARINIRVANA
ANSWER: D) MAHAPARINIRVANA
EXPLANATION:
BUDDHA ATTAINED MAHAPARINIRVANA AT KUSHINAGAR.
Q163. VAISHALI IS LOCATED IN:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2019
A) UTTAR PRADESH
B) BIHAR
C) GUJARAT
D) RAJASTHAN
ANSWER: B) BIHAR
EXPLANATION:
VAISHALI IS AN ANCIENT CITY IN BIHAR.
Q164. TAXILA IS LOCATED IN PRESENT-DAY:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) INDIA
B) NEPAL
C) PAKISTAN
D) BANGLADESH
ANSWER: C) PAKISTAN
EXPLANATION:
TAXILA IS NOW IN PAKISTAN.
Q165. “INDICA” GIVES INFORMATION ABOUT:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2020
A) GUPTA EMPIRE
B) MAURYAN EMPIRE
C) MUGHAL EMPIRE
D) DELHI SULTANATE
ANSWER: B) MAURYAN EMPIRE
EXPLANATION:
MEGASTHENES DESCRIBED MAURYAN INDIA IN INDICA.
Q166. ARTHASHASTRA DEALS WITH:
EXAM: SSC GD 2019
A) RELIGION
B) POLITICS AND ECONOMY
C) LITERATURE
D) ART
ANSWER: B) POLITICS AND ECONOMY
EXPLANATION:
IT IS A TREATISE ON STATECRAFT AND GOVERNANCE.
Q167. SANGAM LITERATURE BELONGS TO:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) NORTH INDIA
B) SOUTH INDIA
C) EAST INDIA
D) WEST INDIA
ANSWER: B) SOUTH INDIA
EXPLANATION:
IT IS EARLY TAMIL LITERATURE OF SOUTH INDIA.
Q168. LANGUAGE OF SANGAM LITERATURE IS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) SANSKRIT
B) PALI
C) TAMIL
D) PRAKRIT
ANSWER: C) TAMIL
EXPLANATION:
WRITTEN IN TAMIL LANGUAGE.
Q169. CHOLA DYNASTY IS FAMOUS FOR:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) AGRICULTURE
B) NAVY
C) LITERATURE
D) TRADE
ANSWER: B) NAVY
EXPLANATION:
CHOLAS HAD A POWERFUL NAVAL FORCE.
Q170. PALLAVAS ARE KNOWN FOR:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) TRADE
B) TEMPLES
C) WAR
D) COINS
ANSWER: B) TEMPLES
EXPLANATION:
THEY BUILT ROCK-CUT TEMPLES (MAHABALIPURAM).
Q171. SATAVAHANAS RULED IN:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2019
A) NORTH INDIA
B) SOUTH INDIA
C) DECCAN
D) EAST INDIA
ANSWER: C) DECCAN
EXPLANATION:
THEY RULED THE DECCAN REGION.
Q172. PRAKRIT LANGUAGE WAS USED IN:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) GUPTA INSCRIPTIONS
B) MAURYAN INSCRIPTIONS
C) MUGHAL RECORDS
D) BRITISH RECORDS
ANSWER: B) MAURYAN INSCRIPTIONS
EXPLANATION:
ASHOKA USED PRAKRIT FOR COMMON PEOPLE.
Q173. BRAHMI SCRIPT WAS DECIPHERED BY:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2022
A) MAX MULLER
B) JAMES PRINSEP
C) WILLIAM JONES
D) MEGASTHENES
ANSWER: B) JAMES PRINSEP
EXPLANATION:
HE DECODED ASHOKAN INSCRIPTIONS.
Q174. ASHOKA’S EMBLEM CONSISTS OF:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2020
A) TWO LIONS
B) THREE LIONS
C) FOUR LIONS
D) FIVE LIONS
ANSWER: C) FOUR LIONS
EXPLANATION:
THE LION CAPITAL HAS FOUR LIONS BACK-TO-BACK.
Q175. GUPTA COINS MAINLY DEPICT:
EXAM: SSC GD 2019
A) GODS
B) ANIMALS
C) KINGS
D) FARMERS
ANSWER: C) KINGS
EXPLANATION:
COINS SHOW PORTRAITS OF RULERS.
Q176. VEDAS ARE:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) SCIENTIFIC TEXTS
B) RELIGIOUS TEXTS
C) LEGAL TEXTS
D) ECONOMIC TEXTS
ANSWER: B) RELIGIOUS TEXTS
EXPLANATION:
THEY ARE THE OLDEST SACRED TEXTS OF INDIA.
Q177. UPANISHADS DEAL WITH:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) RITUALS
B) PHILOSOPHY
C) WAR
D) TRADE
ANSWER: B) PHILOSOPHY
EXPLANATION:
THEY FOCUS ON SPIRITUAL KNOWLEDGE.
Q178. JAINISM EMPHASIZES:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2019
A) WAR
B) NON-VIOLENCE
C) TRADE
D) AGRICULTURE
ANSWER: B) NON-VIOLENCE
EXPLANATION:
AHIMSA IS THE CORE PRINCIPLE.
Q179. BUDDHISM REJECTS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) KARMA
B) REBIRTH
C) CASTE SYSTEM
D) NIRVANA
ANSWER: C) CASTE SYSTEM
EXPLANATION:
BUDDHISM OPPOSED SOCIAL INEQUALITY.
Q180. BUDDHA’S ORIGINAL NAME WAS:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2022
A) ASHOKA
B) SIDDHARTHA
C) MAHAVIRA
D) RAHUL
ANSWER: B) SIDDHARTHA
EXPLANATION:
HIS BIRTH NAME WAS SIDDHARTHA GAUTAMA.
Q181. WHO WAS THE MOTHER OF GAUTAMA BUDDHA?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) MAHAPRAJAPATI
B) MAYA DEVI
C) YASHODHARA
D) GAUTAMI
ANSWER: B) MAYA DEVI
EXPLANATION:
MAYA DEVI WAS THE MOTHER OF GAUTAMA BUDDHA.
Q182. WHO WAS THE WIFE OF GAUTAMA BUDDHA?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) MAYA DEVI
B) YASHODHARA
C) GAUTAMI
D) AMRAPALI
ANSWER: B) YASHODHARA
EXPLANATION:
YASHODHARA WAS THE WIFE OF SIDDHARTHA GAUTAMA.
Q183. WHAT WAS THE NAME OF BUDDHA’S SON?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) RAHUL
B) ANAND
C) DEVADATTA
D) UPALI
ANSWER: A) RAHUL
EXPLANATION:
RAHUL WAS THE SON OF BUDDHA.
Q184. WHO WAS THE FIRST DISCIPLE OF BUDDHA?
EXAM: SSC MTS 2021
A) ANAND
B) SARIPUTTA
C) KONDANNA
D) MAHAKASHYAPA
ANSWER: C) KONDANNA
EXPLANATION:
KONDANNA WAS THE FIRST TO UNDERSTAND BUDDHA’S TEACHINGS.
Q185. WHO AMONG THE FOLLOWING WAS A FAMOUS DISCIPLE OF BUDDHA?
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) CHANAKYA
B) ANANDA
C) KALIDASA
D) ARYABHATA
ANSWER: B) ANANDA
EXPLANATION:
ANANDA WAS A CLOSE DISCIPLE AND ATTENDANT OF BUDDHA.
Q186. WHO WAS THE ROYAL PATRON OF BUDDHISM?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2020
A) CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA
B) ASHOKA
C) HARSHA
D) BIMBISARA
ANSWER: B) ASHOKA
EXPLANATION:
ASHOKA STRONGLY PROMOTED BUDDHISM ACROSS INDIA AND ABROAD.
Q187. WHICH PLACE IS ASSOCIATED WITH BUDDHA’S ENLIGHTENMENT?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) LUMBINI
B) SARNATH
C) BODH GAYA
D) KUSHINAGAR
ANSWER: C) BODH GAYA
EXPLANATION:
BUDDHA ATTAINED ENLIGHTENMENT AT BODH GAYA.
Q188. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF THE NANDA DYNASTY?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) MAHAPADMA NANDA
B) DHANA NANDA
C) BIMBISARA
D) AJATASHATRU
ANSWER: A) MAHAPADMA NANDA
EXPLANATION:
MAHAPADMA NANDA FOUNDED THE NANDA DYNASTY.
Q189. WHICH RULER WAS OVERTHROWN BY CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA?
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) BIMBISARA
B) DHANA NANDA
C) ASHOKA
D) BINDUSARA
ANSWER: B) DHANA NANDA
EXPLANATION:
CHANDRAGUPTA DEFEATED DHANA NANDA, THE LAST NANDA RULER.
Q190. WHICH MAURYAN RULER EXPANDED THE EMPIRE TO THE MAXIMUM EXTENT?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2022
A) CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA
B) BINDUSARA
C) ASHOKA
D) DASHARATHA
ANSWER: C) ASHOKA
EXPLANATION:
ASHOKA EXPANDED THE EMPIRE TO ITS GREATEST EXTENT.
Q191. WHICH RULER IS KNOWN FOR JUNAGARH INSCRIPTION?
EXAM: SSC MTS 2020
A) ASHOKA
B) RUDRADAMAN
C) SAMUDRAGUPTA
D) KANISHKA
ANSWER: B) RUDRADAMAN
EXPLANATION:
JUNAGARH INSCRIPTION IS LINKED TO RUDRADAMAN (SHAKA RULER).
Q192. WHICH DYNASTY INTRODUCED GOLD COINS IN INDIA?
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) MAURYA
B) GUPTA
C) KUSHAN
D) NANDA
ANSWER: C) KUSHAN
EXPLANATION:
KUSHANS WERE AMONG THE FIRST TO ISSUE GOLD COINS IN LARGE NUMBERS.
Q193. WHO WAS THE LAST RULER OF THE MAURYAN DYNASTY?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) ASHOKA
B) BRIHADRATHA
C) BINDUSARA
D) DASHARATHA
ANSWER: B) BRIHADRATHA
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS KILLED BY PUSHYAMITRA SHUNGA.
Q194. SHUNGA DYNASTY WAS FOUNDED BY:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) PUSHYAMITRA SHUNGA
B) CHANDRAGUPTA
C) ASHOKA
D) KANISHKA
ANSWER: A) PUSHYAMITRA SHUNGA
EXPLANATION:
HE OVERTHREW THE LAST MAURYAN RULER.
Q195. KANVA DYNASTY SUCCEEDED:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) MAURYA
B) SHUNGA
C) GUPTA
D) KUSHAN
ANSWER: B) SHUNGA
EXPLANATION:
KANVAS REPLACED THE SHUNGA DYNASTY.
Q196. WHICH RULER ISSUED ALLAHABAD PILLAR INSCRIPTION?
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) ASHOKA
B) SAMUDRAGUPTA
C) CHANDRAGUPTA I
D) HARSHA
ANSWER: B) SAMUDRAGUPTA
EXPLANATION:
IT DESCRIBES HIS MILITARY ACHIEVEMENTS.
Q197. THE AUTHOR OF ALLAHABAD INSCRIPTION WAS:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) KALIDASA
B) HARISENA
C) BANABHATTA
D) ARYABHATA
ANSWER: B) HARISENA
EXPLANATION:
HARISENA WAS THE COURT POET OF SAMUDRAGUPTA.
Q198. WHO FOUNDED THE VAKATAKA DYNASTY?
EXAM: SSC MTS 2019
A) PRAVARASENA I
B) VINDHYASHAKTI
C) RUDRASENA
D) HARSHA
ANSWER: B) VINDHYASHAKTI
EXPLANATION:
VINDHYASHAKTI WAS THE FOUNDER OF VAKATAKA DYNASTY.
Q199. WHICH DYNASTY WAS CONTEMPORARY TO GUPTAS?
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) MAURYA
B) VAKATAKA
C) NANDA
D) SHUNGA
ANSWER: B) VAKATAKA
EXPLANATION:
VAKATAKAS WERE CONTEMPORARIES OF THE GUPTAS.
Q200. WHICH ANCIENT UNIVERSITY IS LOCATED IN BIHAR?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2022
A) TAXILA
B) NALANDA
C) VIKRAMSHILA
D) BOTH B AND C
ANSWER: D) BOTH B AND C
EXPLANATION:
BOTH NALANDA AND VIKRAMSHILA WERE LOCATED IN BIHAR.
ANCIENT HISTORY MCQS (Q201–Q240)
REMAINING TOPICS: POST-MAURYAN, SANGAM AGE, ART & CULTURE
Q201. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF THE INDO-GREEK KINGDOM IN INDIA?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) MENANDER
B) DEMETRIUS
C) KANISHKA
D) CHANDRAGUPTA
ANSWER: B) DEMETRIUS
EXPLANATION:
DEMETRIUS WAS ONE OF THE FIRST INDO-GREEK RULERS TO INVADE INDIA.
Q202. MENANDER IS ALSO KNOWN AS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) MILINDA
B) ASHOKA
C) KANISHKA
D) RUDRADAMAN
ANSWER: A) MILINDA
EXPLANATION:
MENANDER IS KNOWN AS MILINDA IN BUDDHIST TEXTS (MILINDAPANHO).
Q203. WHICH TEXT RECORDS THE DIALOGUE BETWEEN MENANDER AND NAGASENA?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) ARTHASHASTRA
B) MILINDAPANHO
C) TRIPITAKA
D) RAMAYANA
ANSWER: B) MILINDAPANHO
EXPLANATION:
IT CONTAINS PHILOSOPHICAL DISCUSSIONS BETWEEN MILINDA AND NAGASENA.
Q204. WHO FOUNDED THE SHAKA DYNASTY IN INDIA?
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) KANISHKA
B) MAUES
C) CHANDRAGUPTA
D) ASHOKA
ANSWER: B) MAUES
EXPLANATION:
MAUES (MOGA) WAS THE FIRST SHAKA RULER IN INDIA.
Q205. THE FAMOUS JUNAGARH INSCRIPTION WAS WRITTEN IN:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2022
A) SANSKRIT
B) PRAKRIT
C) PALI
D) PERSIAN
ANSWER: A) SANSKRIT
EXPLANATION:
RUDRADAMAN’S INSCRIPTION IS ONE OF THE EARLIEST SANSKRIT INSCRIPTIONS.
Q206. SATAVAHANA RULERS WERE ALSO KNOWN AS:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2021
A) ANDHRAS
B) GUPTAS
C) KUSHANS
D) MAURYAS
ANSWER: A) ANDHRAS
EXPLANATION:
SATAVAHANAS ARE REFERRED TO AS ANDHRA DYNASTY.
Q207. GAUTAMIPUTRA SATAKARNI BELONGED TO:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) MAURYA DYNASTY
B) GUPTA DYNASTY
C) SATAVAHANA DYNASTY
D) KUSHAN DYNASTY
ANSWER: C) SATAVAHANA DYNASTY
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS THE GREATEST SATAVAHANA RULER.
Q208. WHICH PORT WAS FAMOUS IN SATAVAHANA PERIOD?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) LOTHAL
B) SOPARA
C) SURAT
D) KANDLA
ANSWER: B) SOPARA
EXPLANATION:
SOPARA WAS AN IMPORTANT TRADE PORT.
Q209. SANGAM AGE REFERS TO WHICH REGION?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) NORTH INDIA
B) SOUTH INDIA
C) EAST INDIA
D) WEST INDIA
ANSWER: B) SOUTH INDIA
EXPLANATION:
SANGAM AGE FLOURISHED IN TAMIL NADU REGION.
Q210. THE THREE SANGAMS WERE HELD IN:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) MADURAI
B) DELHI
C) PATALIPUTRA
D) UJJAIN
ANSWER: A) MADURAI
EXPLANATION:
MADURAI WAS THE CENTER OF SANGAM ASSEMBLIES.
Q211. WHICH DYNASTY WAS PART OF SANGAM AGE?
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) MAURYA
B) CHOLA
C) GUPTA
D) NANDA
ANSWER: B) CHOLA
EXPLANATION:
CHOLAS, CHERAS, AND PANDYAS WERE PROMINENT.
Q212. CHERA DYNASTY RULED IN:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2019
A) TAMIL NADU
B) KERALA
C) ANDHRA PRADESH
D) KARNATAKA
ANSWER: B) KERALA
EXPLANATION:
CHERA RULERS CONTROLLED KERALA REGION.
Q213. PANDYA DYNASTY CAPITAL WAS:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) MADURAI
B) UJJAIN
C) KANCHI
D) PATALIPUTRA
ANSWER: A) MADURAI
EXPLANATION:
MADURAI WAS THEIR CAPITAL AND CULTURAL CENTER.
Q214. WHICH SANGAM TEXT DEALS WITH GRAMMAR?
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) TOLKAPPIYAM
B) SILAPPADIKARAM
C) MANIMEKALAI
D) ARTHASHASTRA
ANSWER: A) TOLKAPPIYAM
EXPLANATION:
TOLKAPPIYAM IS THE EARLIEST TAMIL GRAMMAR TEXT.
Q215. SILAPPADIKARAM WAS WRITTEN BY:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2022
A) ILANGO ADIGAL
B) TIRUVALLUVAR
C) KALIDASA
D) PANINI
ANSWER: A) ILANGO ADIGAL
EXPLANATION:
IT IS A FAMOUS TAMIL EPIC.
Q216. MANIMEKALAI IS RELATED TO:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) JAINISM
B) BUDDHISM
C) HINDUISM
D) SIKHISM
ANSWER: B) BUDDHISM
EXPLANATION:
IT REFLECTS BUDDHIST PHILOSOPHY.
Q217. WHICH METAL WAS WIDELY USED IN SANGAM AGE?
EXAM: SSC MTS 2021
A) IRON
B) GOLD
C) SILVER
D) COPPER
ANSWER: A) IRON
EXPLANATION:
IRON TOOLS IMPROVED AGRICULTURE.
Q218. THE CHIEF OCCUPATION IN SANGAM AGE WAS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) TRADE
B) AGRICULTURE
C) HUNTING
D) FISHING
ANSWER: B) AGRICULTURE
EXPLANATION:
AGRICULTURE WAS THE MAIN OCCUPATION.
Q219. ROMAN TRADE DURING SANGAM AGE WAS WITH:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) NORTH INDIA
B) SOUTH INDIA
C) EAST INDIA
D) WEST INDIA
ANSWER: B) SOUTH INDIA
EXPLANATION:
ROMANS TRADED WITH SOUTH INDIAN PORTS.
Q220. WHICH SITE SHOWS ROMAN COINS IN INDIA?
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) HARAPPA
B) ARIKAMEDU
C) TAXILA
D) VAISHALI
ANSWER: B) ARIKAMEDU
EXPLANATION:
EVIDENCE OF INDO-ROMAN TRADE.
Q221. AMARAVATI STUPA IS LOCATED IN:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) TAMIL NADU
B) ANDHRA PRADESH
C) KARNATAKA
D) ODISHA
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: FAMOUS BUDDHIST SITE
ANCIENT HISTORY MCQS (Q222–Q240 CONTINUED)
Q222. SANCHI STUPA IS LOCATED IN:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) UTTAR PRADESH
B) MADHYA PRADESH
C) BIHAR
D) RAJASTHAN
ANSWER: B) MADHYA PRADESH
EXPLANATION:
SANCHI STUPA IS LOCATED NEAR BHOPAL IN MADHYA PRADESH AND WAS BUILT BY ASHOKA.
Q223. BHARHUT STUPA IS LOCATED IN:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) UTTAR PRADESH
B) MADHYA PRADESH
C) BIHAR
D) ODISHA
ANSWER: B) MADHYA PRADESH
EXPLANATION:
BHARHUT STUPA IS AN IMPORTANT BUDDHIST SITE IN MADHYA PRADESH.
Q224. ROCK-CUT ARCHITECTURE IN INDIA BEGAN DURING:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2022
A) GUPTA PERIOD
B) MAURYAN PERIOD
C) VEDIC PERIOD
D) MUGHAL PERIOD
ANSWER: B) MAURYAN PERIOD
EXPLANATION:
ROCK-CUT ARCHITECTURE STARTED DURING THE MAURYAN PERIOD, ESPECIALLY UNDER ASHOKA.
Q225. BARABAR CAVES WERE BUILT BY:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2021
A) CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA
B) ASHOKA
C) SAMUDRAGUPTA
D) KANISHKA
ANSWER: B) ASHOKA
EXPLANATION:
BARABAR CAVES ARE THE EARLIEST ROCK-CUT CAVES BUILT BY ASHOKA.
Q226. AJANTA CAVES ARE FAMOUS FOR:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) SCULPTURE
B) PAINTINGS
C) INSCRIPTIONS
D) COINS
ANSWER: B) PAINTINGS
EXPLANATION:
AJANTA CAVES ARE RENOWNED FOR THEIR BUDDHIST PAINTINGS AND MURALS.
Q227. ELLORA CAVES ARE FAMOUS FOR:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2020
A) PAINTINGS
B) ROCK-CUT TEMPLES
C) COINS
D) SCRIPTS
ANSWER: B) ROCK-CUT TEMPLES
EXPLANATION:
ELLORA CAVES SHOWCASE ROCK-CUT ARCHITECTURE OF HINDU, BUDDHIST, AND JAIN RELIGIONS.
Q228. STUPA IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) JAINISM
B) BUDDHISM
C) HINDUISM
D) SIKHISM
ANSWER: B) BUDDHISM
EXPLANATION:
STUPAS ARE BUDDHIST STRUCTURES CONTAINING RELICS.
Q229. CHAITYA REFERS TO:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) MONASTERY
B) PRAYER HALL
C) TEMPLE
D) PALACE
ANSWER: B) PRAYER HALL
EXPLANATION:
CHAITYAS ARE BUDDHIST PRAYER HALLS.
Q230. VIHARA REFERS TO:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2020
A) TEMPLE
B) MONASTERY
C) PALACE
D) FORT
ANSWER: B) MONASTERY
EXPLANATION:
VIHARAS WERE RESIDENCES FOR BUDDHIST MONKS.
Q231. THE SANCHI STUPA WAS ENLARGED BY:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) ASHOKA
B) SHUNGAS
C) GUPTAS
D) KUSHANS
ANSWER: B) SHUNGAS
EXPLANATION:
THE SHUNGA RULERS EXPANDED AND DECORATED THE STUPA.
Q232. WHICH ART STYLE DEVELOPED DURING KUSHAN PERIOD?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) GANDHARA
B) MUGHAL
C) RAJPUT
D) DRAVIDIAN
ANSWER: A) GANDHARA
EXPLANATION:
GANDHARA ART DEVELOPED WITH GREEK INFLUENCE.
Q233. MATHURA ART IS MAINLY ASSOCIATED WITH:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) GREEK STYLE
B) PERSIAN STYLE
C) INDIGENOUS INDIAN STYLE
D) ROMAN STYLE
ANSWER: C) INDIGENOUS INDIAN STYLE
EXPLANATION:
MATHURA ART REFLECTS PURE INDIAN TRADITIONS.
Q234. WHICH RULER PATRONIZED GANDHARA ART?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2022
A) ASHOKA
B) KANISHKA
C) SAMUDRAGUPTA
D) HARSHA
ANSWER: B) KANISHKA
EXPLANATION:
KANISHKA PROMOTED GANDHARA SCHOOL OF ART.
Q235. AMARAVATI ART IS RELATED TO:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) JAINISM
B) BUDDHISM
C) HINDUISM
D) SIKHISM
ANSWER: B) BUDDHISM
EXPLANATION:
AMARAVATI ART DEPICTS BUDDHIST THEMES.
Q236. WHICH MATERIAL WAS MAINLY USED IN GANDHARA ART?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2020
A) MARBLE
B) SANDSTONE
C) GREY STONE
D) WOOD
ANSWER: C) GREY STONE
EXPLANATION:
GANDHARA SCULPTURES WERE MADE USING GREY SCHIST STONE.
Q237. WHICH MATERIAL WAS MAINLY USED IN MATHURA ART?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) GRANITE
B) RED SANDSTONE
C) MARBLE
D) CLAY
ANSWER: B) RED SANDSTONE
EXPLANATION:
MATHURA ART USED RED SANDSTONE.
Q238. THE EARLIEST IMAGES OF BUDDHA WERE MADE IN:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) MAURYAN PERIOD
B) KUSHAN PERIOD
C) GUPTA PERIOD
D) VEDIC PERIOD
ANSWER: B) KUSHAN PERIOD
EXPLANATION:
BUDDHA IMAGES FIRST APPEARED DURING THE KUSHAN PERIOD.
Q239. WHICH STUPA IS KNOWN FOR ITS GATEWAYS (TORANAS)?
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) AMARAVATI
B) SANCHI
C) BHARHUT
D) TAXILA
ANSWER: B) SANCHI
EXPLANATION:
SANCHI STUPA IS FAMOUS FOR ITS DECORATED GATEWAYS (TORANAS).
Q240. BUDDHIST ARCHITECTURE MAINLY INCLUDES:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) TEMPLES ONLY
B) STUPA, CHAITYA, VIHARA
C) FORTS
D) PALACES
ANSWER: B) STUPA, CHAITYA, VIHARA
EXPLANATION:
THESE ARE THE MAIN STRUCTURES OF BUDDHIST ARCHITECTURE.
LEFTOVER TOPICS COVERED
Q241. WHICH GUPTA RULER ISSUED SILVER COINS?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) CHANDRAGUPTA I
B) SAMUDRAGUPTA
C) CHANDRAGUPTA II
D) SKANDAGUPTA
ANSWER: C) CHANDRAGUPTA II
EXPLANATION:
CHANDRAGUPTA II ISSUED SILVER COINS AFTER DEFEATING SHAKAS.
Q242. THE TITLE “DEVANAMPRIYA” WAS USED BY:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA
B) ASHOKA
C) BINDUSARA
D) HARSHA
ANSWER: B) ASHOKA
EXPLANATION:
ASHOKA CALLED HIMSELF DEVANAMPRIYA (BELOVED OF GODS).
Q243. THE TITLE “PRIYADARSI” IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) ASHOKA
B) CHANDRAGUPTA
C) KANISHKA
D) SAMUDRAGUPTA
ANSWER: A) ASHOKA
EXPLANATION:
ASHOKA USED THE TITLE PRIYADARSI IN INSCRIPTIONS.
Q244. WHICH INSCRIPTION MENTIONS KALINGA WAR?
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) ALLAHABAD PILLAR
B) JUNAGARH
C) ROCK EDICT XIII
D) HATHIGUMPHA
ANSWER: C) ROCK EDICT XIII
EXPLANATION:
ROCK EDICT XIII DESCRIBES KALINGA WAR AND ITS IMPACT.
Q245. HATHIGUMPHA INSCRIPTION IS RELATED TO:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2022
A) ASHOKA
B) KHARAVELA
C) SAMUDRAGUPTA
D) KANISHKA
ANSWER: B) KHARAVELA
EXPLANATION:
IT DESCRIBES ACHIEVEMENTS OF KHARAVELA OF KALINGA.
Q246. WHICH RULER ISSUED THE FIRST GOLD COINS IN LARGE NUMBERS IN INDIA?
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) MAURYA
B) GUPTA
C) KUSHAN
D) NANDA
ANSWER: C) KUSHAN
EXPLANATION:
KUSHANS POPULARIZED GOLD COINAGE EXTENSIVELY.
Q247. PUNCH-MARKED COINS BELONG TO:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2022
A) GUPTA PERIOD
B) MAURYAN PERIOD
C) VEDIC PERIOD
D) MUGHAL PERIOD
ANSWER: B) MAURYAN PERIOD
EXPLANATION:
PUNCH-MARKED COINS WERE USED DURING THE MAURYAN ERA.
Q248. WHICH TEXT IS CONSIDERED THE LAW BOOK OF ANCIENT INDIA?
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) ARTHASHASTRA
B) MANUSMRITI
C) VEDAS
D) UPANISHADS
ANSWER: B) MANUSMRITI
EXPLANATION:
MANUSMRITI DEALS WITH LAWS AND SOCIAL CODES.
Q249. PANINI’S ASHTADHYAYI IS RELATED TO:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2020
A) MEDICINE
B) GRAMMAR
C) ASTRONOMY
D) POLITICS
ANSWER: B) GRAMMAR
EXPLANATION:
IT IS A STANDARD SANSKRIT GRAMMAR TEXT.
Q250. CHARAKA IS KNOWN FOR:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) ASTRONOMY
B) MEDICINE
C) LITERATURE
D) POLITICS
ANSWER: B) MEDICINE
EXPLANATION:
CHARAKA WROTE CHARAKA SAMHITA (AYURVEDA).
Q251. SUSHRUTA IS KNOWN FOR:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) SURGERY
B) ASTRONOMY
C) GRAMMAR
D) ART
ANSWER: A) SURGERY
EXPLANATION:
SUSHRUTA IS CALLED THE FATHER OF SURGERY.
Q252. WHICH TEXT DEALS WITH STATECRAFT?
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) ARTHASHASTRA
B) MANUSMRITI
C) RIGVEDA
D) RAMAYANA
ANSWER: A) ARTHASHASTRA
EXPLANATION:
ARTHASHASTRA EXPLAINS ADMINISTRATION AND ECONOMY.
Q253. THE TERM “BHAGA” REFERS TO:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) TAX
B) LAND
C) ARMY
D) TRADE
ANSWER: A) TAX
EXPLANATION:
BHAGA WAS A SHARE OF PRODUCE GIVEN AS TAX.
Q254. WHICH TAX WAS COLLECTED IN KIND?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) BALI
B) BHAGA
C) KARA
D) HIRANYA
ANSWER: B) BHAGA
EXPLANATION:
BHAGA WAS PAID IN AGRICULTURAL PRODUCE.
Q255. WHICH OFFICER COLLECTED TAXES IN MAURYAN PERIOD?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) SENAPATI
B) SAMAHARTA
C) PUROHIT
D) GRAMANI
ANSWER: B) SAMAHARTA
EXPLANATION:
SAMAHARTA WAS THE CHIEF REVENUE OFFICER.
Q256. THE CHIEF MINISTER IN MAURYAN ADMINISTRATION WAS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) SENAPATI
B) MAHAMATYA
C) AMATYA
D) PUROHIT
ANSWER: C) AMATYA
EXPLANATION:
AMATYAS WERE HIGH OFFICIALS/ADVISORS.
Q257. WHICH OFFICER WAS HEAD OF ARMY?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2022
A) AMATYA
B) SENAPATI
C) PUROHIT
D) SAMAHARTA
ANSWER: B) SENAPATI
EXPLANATION:
SENAPATI WAS THE COMMANDER OF ARMY.
Q258. WHICH OFFICER WAS HEAD OF VILLAGE?
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) GRAMANI
B) AMATYA
C) SENAPATI
D) PUROHIT
ANSWER: A) GRAMANI
EXPLANATION:
GRAMANI WAS THE VILLAGE HEADMAN.
Q259. WHICH OFFICER WAS RELATED TO RELIGION?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) PUROHIT
B) SENAPATI
C) AMATYA
D) SAMAHARTA
ANSWER: A) PUROHIT
EXPLANATION:
PUROHIT PERFORMED RELIGIOUS DUTIES.
Q260. WHICH TEXT DESCRIBES MAURYAN ADMINISTRATION?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) ARTHASHASTRA
B) VEDAS
C) UPANISHADS
D) RAMAYANA
ANSWER: A) ARTHASHASTRA
EXPLANATION:
IT PROVIDES DETAILED GOVERNANCE SYSTEM.
ANCIENT HISTORY MCQS (Q262–Q280 CONTINUED)
Q262. LAND GRANTS BECAME COMMON DURING:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) MAURYAN PERIOD
B) GUPTA PERIOD
C) VEDIC PERIOD
D) MUGHAL PERIOD
ANSWER: B) GUPTA PERIOD
EXPLANATION:
DURING THE GUPTA PERIOD, LAND GRANTS TO BRAHMINS AND OFFICIALS BECAME COMMON, LEADING TO FEUDAL PRACTICES.
Q263. THE BEGINNING OF THE FEUDAL SYSTEM IN INDIA IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) MAURYAN PERIOD
B) GUPTA PERIOD
C) VEDIC PERIOD
D) HARAPPAN PERIOD
ANSWER: B) GUPTA PERIOD
EXPLANATION:
FEUDAL ELEMENTS LIKE LAND GRANTS AND DECENTRALIZATION STARTED DURING THE GUPTA AGE.
Q264. SANSKRIT LANGUAGE FLOURISHED DURING:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) MAURYAN PERIOD
B) GUPTA PERIOD
C) MUGHAL PERIOD
D) SULTANATE PERIOD
ANSWER: B) GUPTA PERIOD
EXPLANATION:
GUPTA RULERS PATRONIZED SANSKRIT LITERATURE AND SCHOLARS.
Q265. AJANTA CAVE PAINTINGS MAINLY BELONG TO:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) MAURYAN PERIOD
B) GUPTA PERIOD
C) VEDIC PERIOD
D) KUSHAN PERIOD
ANSWER: B) GUPTA PERIOD
EXPLANATION:
MOST AJANTA PAINTINGS WERE CREATED DURING THE GUPTA PERIOD.
Q266. NALANDA UNIVERSITY WAS SUPPORTED MAINLY BY:
EXAM: SSC MTS 2021
A) MAURYAS
B) GUPTAS
C) MUGHALS
D) BRITISH
ANSWER: B) GUPTAS
EXPLANATION:
NALANDA FLOURISHED UNDER THE PATRONAGE OF GUPTA RULERS.
Q267. THE IRON PILLAR IS LOCATED AT:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) AGRA
B) DELHI
C) JAIPUR
D) VARANASI
ANSWER: B) DELHI
EXPLANATION:
THE IRON PILLAR STANDS IN MEHRAULI, DELHI.
Q268. THE IRON PILLAR BELONGS TO:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2022
A) MAURYAN PERIOD
B) GUPTA PERIOD
C) KUSHAN PERIOD
D) VEDIC PERIOD
ANSWER: B) GUPTA PERIOD
EXPLANATION:
IT IS ATTRIBUTED TO THE GUPTA PERIOD, POSSIBLY CHANDRAGUPTA II.
Q269. THE IRON PILLAR IS FAMOUS FOR ITS RESISTANCE TO:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) HEAT
B) RUST
C) WATER
D) WIND
ANSWER: B) RUST
EXPLANATION:
IT HAS REMAINED RUST-FREE FOR CENTURIES, SHOWING ADVANCED METALLURGY.
Q270. THE GUPTA ERA BEGAN IN:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) 319 AD
B) 300 AD
C) 350 AD
D) 400 AD
ANSWER: A) 319 AD
EXPLANATION:
THE GUPTA ERA IS BELIEVED TO HAVE STARTED IN 319 AD.
Q271. THE MAIN SOURCE OF REVENUE IN GUPTA PERIOD WAS:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) TRADE
B) LAND TAX
C) TRIBUTE
D) WAR
ANSWER: B) LAND TAX
EXPLANATION:
AGRICULTURE WAS THE MAIN SOURCE, SO LAND REVENUE WAS PRIMARY.
Q272. WHICH GUPTA RULER PERFORMED ASHVAMEDHA SACRIFICE?
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) CHANDRAGUPTA I
B) SAMUDRAGUPTA
C) CHANDRAGUPTA II
D) SKANDAGUPTA
ANSWER: B) SAMUDRAGUPTA
EXPLANATION:
HE PERFORMED THE ASHVAMEDHA YAJNA TO SHOW POWER.
Q273. ALLAHABAD PILLAR INSCRIPTION MAINLY PRAISES:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) ASHOKA
B) CHANDRAGUPTA I
C) SAMUDRAGUPTA
D) HARSHA
ANSWER: C) SAMUDRAGUPTA
EXPLANATION:
IT DESCRIBES HIS CONQUESTS AND ACHIEVEMENTS.
Q274. WHICH TEXT WAS WRITTEN BY BANABHATTA?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) MEGHADUTA
B) HARSHACHARITA
C) ARTHASHASTRA
D) ASHTADHYAYI
ANSWER: B) HARSHACHARITA
EXPLANATION:
BANABHATTA WROTE HARSHACHARITA, BIOGRAPHY OF HARSHA.
Q275. WHICH RULER PATRONIZED BANABHATTA?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2020
A) ASHOKA
B) SAMUDRAGUPTA
C) HARSHAVARDHANA
D) KANISHKA
ANSWER: C) HARSHAVARDHANA
EXPLANATION:
BANABHATTA WAS A COURT POET OF HARSHA.
Q276. WHICH BOOK WAS WRITTEN BY KALIDASA?
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) ARTHASHASTRA
B) MEGHADUTA
C) INDICA
D) MILINDAPANHO
ANSWER: B) MEGHADUTA
EXPLANATION:
KALIDASA AUTHORED MEGHADUTA, A FAMOUS SANSKRIT POEM.
Q277. WHICH TEXT IS ASSOCIATED WITH TIRUVALLUVAR?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) TOLKAPPIYAM
B) SILAPPADIKARAM
C) THIRUKKURAL
D) MANIMEKALAI
ANSWER: C) THIRUKKURAL
EXPLANATION:
THIRUKKURAL IS A TAMIL ETHICAL TEXT BY TIRUVALLUVAR.
Q278. WHICH ANCIENT INDIAN TEXT DEALS WITH ETHICS AND MORALITY?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) ARTHASHASTRA
B) THIRUKKURAL
C) VEDAS
D) UPANISHADS
ANSWER: B) THIRUKKURAL
EXPLANATION:
IT FOCUSES ON MORAL VALUES AND ETHICS.
Q279. WHICH RULER IS ASSOCIATED WITH VIKRAM SAMVAT?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA
B) ASHOKA
C) VIKRAMADITYA
D) HARSHA
ANSWER: C) VIKRAMADITYA
EXPLANATION:
VIKRAM SAMVAT CALENDAR IS LINKED TO KING VIKRAMADITYA.
Q280. WHICH CALENDAR ERA IS ASSOCIATED WITH KANISHKA?
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) VIKRAM SAMVAT
B) SAKA ERA
C) GUPTA ERA
D) HIJRI ERA
ANSWER: B) SAKA ERA
EXPLANATION:
KANISHKA IS ASSOCIATED WITH THE SAKA ERA (78 AD).
ANCIENT HISTORY MCQS (Q281–Q300)
Q281. WHICH RULER IS ASSOCIATED WITH NASIK INSCRIPTION?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2022
A) ASHOKA
B) GAUTAMIPUTRA SATAKARNI
C) SAMUDRAGUPTA
D) KANISHKA
ANSWER: B) GAUTAMIPUTRA SATAKARNI
EXPLANATION:
NASIK INSCRIPTION HIGHLIGHTS ACHIEVEMENTS OF GAUTAMIPUTRA SATAKARNI.
Q282. THE NASIK INSCRIPTION WAS ISSUED BY:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) HIS MINISTER
B) HIS QUEEN
C) HIS MOTHER
D) HIS GENERAL
ANSWER: C) HIS MOTHER
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS ISSUED BY GAUTAMI BALASHRI (HIS MOTHER).
Q283. WHICH RULER IS ASSOCIATED WITH GIRNAR INSCRIPTION?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) RUDRADAMAN
B) ASHOKA
C) KANISHKA
D) HARSHA
ANSWER: A) RUDRADAMAN
EXPLANATION:
GIRNAR INSCRIPTION RECORDS ACHIEVEMENTS OF RUDRADAMAN.
Q284. WHICH ANCIENT INDIAN RULER REPAIRED SUDARSHAN LAKE?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) ASHOKA
B) CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA
C) RUDRADAMAN
D) SAMUDRAGUPTA
ANSWER: C) RUDRADAMAN
EXPLANATION:
HE REPAIRED THE SUDARSHAN LAKE AS PER INSCRIPTION.
Q285. WHICH INSCRIPTION MENTIONS CHANDRAGUPTA II?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) ALLAHABAD PILLAR
B) MEHRAULI IRON PILLAR
C) JUNAGARH
D) HATHIGUMPHA
ANSWER: B) MEHRAULI IRON PILLAR
EXPLANATION:
THE IRON PILLAR INSCRIPTION REFERS TO CHANDRAGUPTA II (VIKRAMADITYA).
Q286. THE TERM “VISHTI” REFERS TO:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) TAX
B) FORCED LABOR
C) TRADE
D) ARMY
ANSWER: B) FORCED LABOR
EXPLANATION:
VISHTI MEANS COMPULSORY UNPAID LABOR IN ANCIENT TIMES.
Q287. WHICH TERM REFERS TO CASH TAX?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) BHAGA
B) BALI
C) HIRANYA
D) KARA
ANSWER: C) HIRANYA
EXPLANATION:
HIRANYA WAS TAX PAID IN CASH.
Q288. WHICH TERM REFERS TO VOLUNTARY OFFERING?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) BHAGA
B) BALI
C) KARA
D) HIRANYA
ANSWER: B) BALI
EXPLANATION:
BALI WAS A VOLUNTARY OFFERING TO THE KING.
Q289. WHICH CLASS WAS ENGAGED IN TRADE IN ANCIENT INDIA?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2020
A) BRAHMINS
B) KSHATRIYAS
C) VAISHYAS
D) SHUDRAS
ANSWER: C) VAISHYAS
EXPLANATION:
VAISHYAS WERE INVOLVED IN TRADE AND COMMERCE.
Q290. WHICH CLASS PERFORMED RELIGIOUS DUTIES?
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) BRAHMINS
B) KSHATRIYAS
C) VAISHYAS
D) SHUDRAS
ANSWER: A) BRAHMINS
EXPLANATION:
BRAHMINS WERE RESPONSIBLE FOR RELIGIOUS RITUALS.
Q291. WHICH CLASS RULED AND FOUGHT WARS?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) BRAHMINS
B) KSHATRIYAS
C) VAISHYAS
D) SHUDRAS
ANSWER: B) KSHATRIYAS
EXPLANATION:
KSHATRIYAS WERE WARRIORS AND RULERS.
Q292. WHICH CLASS SERVED OTHER CLASSES?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) BRAHMINS
B) KSHATRIYAS
C) VAISHYAS
D) SHUDRAS
ANSWER: D) SHUDRAS
EXPLANATION:
SHUDRAS WERE ENGAGED IN SERVICE ACTIVITIES.
Q293. WHICH STAGE OF LIFE IS FOR STUDENTS?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) GRIHASTHA
B) VANAPRASTHA
C) BRAHMACHARYA
D) SANNYASA
ANSWER: C) BRAHMACHARYA
EXPLANATION:
BRAHMACHARYA IS THE STUDENT STAGE OF LIFE.
Q294. GRIHASTHA STAGE IS RELATED TO:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) EDUCATION
B) FAMILY LIFE
C) RENUNCIATION
D) FOREST LIFE
ANSWER: B) FAMILY LIFE
EXPLANATION:
GRIHASTHA IS THE HOUSEHOLDER STAGE.
Q295. VANAPRASTHA STAGE MEANS:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) STUDENT LIFE
B) FAMILY LIFE
C) RETIREMENT
D) RENUNCIATION
ANSWER: C) RETIREMENT
EXPLANATION:
VANAPRASTHA MEANS RETIRING TO FOREST LIFE.
Q296. SANNYASA STAGE REFERS TO:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) EDUCATION
B) FAMILY
C) RENUNCIATION
D) TRADE
ANSWER: C) RENUNCIATION
EXPLANATION:
SANNYASA IS THE FINAL STAGE OF RENOUNCING WORLDLY LIFE.
Q297. WHICH TEXT DIVIDES SOCIETY INTO FOUR VARNAS?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2020
A) VEDAS
B) MANUSMRITI
C) ARTHASHASTRA
D) RAMAYANA
ANSWER: B) MANUSMRITI
EXPLANATION:
MANUSMRITI EXPLAINS VARNA SYSTEM CLEARLY.
Q298. WHICH RIVER IS MENTIONED MOST IN RIGVEDA?
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) GANGA
B) YAMUNA
C) SARASWATI
D) INDUS
ANSWER: C) SARASWATI
EXPLANATION:
SARASWATI IS FREQUENTLY MENTIONED IN RIGVEDA.
Q299. WHICH ANIMAL WAS CONSIDERED SACRED IN VEDIC PERIOD?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) HORSE
B) COW
C) ELEPHANT
D) LION
ANSWER: B) COW
EXPLANATION:
COW WAS REGARDED AS SACRED AND VALUABLE.
Q300. WHICH ASSEMBLY WAS LARGER IN VEDIC PERIOD?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) SABHA
B) SAMITI
C) VIDATHA
D) GANA
ANSWER: B) SAMITI
EXPLANATION:
SAMITI WAS THE LARGER GENERAL ASSEMBLY OF PEOPLE.
MICRO / RARELY ASKED AREAS (ADVANCED BOOST)
Q301. THE TERM “GOTRA” IN VEDIC SOCIETY REFERS TO:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2022
A) CLAN OR LINEAGE
B) VILLAGE
C) TRIBE
D) KINGDOM
ANSWER: A) CLAN OR LINEAGE
EXPLANATION:
GOTRA REFERS TO A LINEAGE OR CLAN TRACED FROM A COMMON ANCESTOR.
Q302. THE TERM “JANA” IN VEDIC PERIOD MEANS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) KINGDOM
B) TRIBE
C) VILLAGE
D) FAMILY
ANSWER: B) TRIBE
EXPLANATION:
JANA WAS THE LARGEST SOCIAL UNIT (TRIBE) IN EARLY VEDIC PERIOD.
Q303. THE TERM “VISH” IN VEDIC SOCIETY REFERS TO:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) KING
B) CLAN
C) COMMON PEOPLE
D) PRIEST
ANSWER: C) COMMON PEOPLE
EXPLANATION:
VISH REPRESENTED THE GENERAL POPULATION OF THE TRIBE.
Q304. THE DASARAJNA WAR IS MENTIONED IN:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) YAJURVEDA
B) RIGVEDA
C) SAMAVEDA
D) ATHARVAVEDA
ANSWER: B) RIGVEDA
EXPLANATION:
THE BATTLE OF TEN KINGS (DASARAJNA) IS DESCRIBED IN RIGVEDA.
Q305. THE DASARAJNA WAR WAS FOUGHT ON THE BANKS OF:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) GANGA
B) YAMUNA
C) RAVI
D) SARASWATI
ANSWER: C) RAVI
EXPLANATION:
IT TOOK PLACE ON THE BANKS OF RIVER RAVI.
Q306. THE LEADER OF BHARATA TRIBE IN DASARAJNA WAR WAS:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) SUDAS
B) BHARATA
C) DIVODASA
D) JANAKA
ANSWER: A) SUDAS
EXPLANATION:
KING SUDAS LED THE BHARATA TRIBE TO VICTORY.
Q307. SABHA IN VEDIC PERIOD WAS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) LARGE ASSEMBLY
B) SMALL COUNCIL OF ELDERS
C) ARMY UNIT
D) RELIGIOUS GROUP
ANSWER: B) SMALL COUNCIL OF ELDERS
EXPLANATION:
SABHA WAS A SELECT BODY OF ELDERS AND NOBLES.
Q308. SAMITI IN VEDIC PERIOD WAS:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2022
A) SMALL COUNCIL
B) JUDICIAL BODY
C) GENERAL ASSEMBLY
D) MILITARY UNIT
ANSWER: C) GENERAL ASSEMBLY
EXPLANATION:
SAMITI WAS THE LARGER DEMOCRATIC ASSEMBLY.
Q309. WHICH WAS MORE POWERFUL IN VEDIC PERIOD?
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) SABHA
B) SAMITI
C) BOTH EQUAL
D) NONE
ANSWER: B) SAMITI
EXPLANATION:
SAMITI HAD GREATER AUTHORITY IN DECISION-MAKING.
Q310. THE TERM “VIDATHA” REFERS TO:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) ASSEMBLY
B) MILITARY UNIT
C) RITUAL GATHERING
D) TRADE GROUP
ANSWER: C) RITUAL GATHERING
EXPLANATION:
VIDATHA WAS RELATED TO RELIGIOUS AND SOCIAL GATHERINGS.
BUDDHISM (ADVANCED MICRO)
Q311. THE TERM “BODHISATTVA” REFERS TO:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) ENLIGHTENED BEING
B) ONE SEEKING ENLIGHTENMENT
C) MONK
D) KING
ANSWER: B) ONE SEEKING ENLIGHTENMENT
EXPLANATION:
BODHISATTVA DELAYS NIRVANA TO HELP OTHERS ATTAIN SALVATION.
Q312. HINAYANA BUDDHISM EMPHASIZES:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) IDOL WORSHIP
B) INDIVIDUAL SALVATION
C) RITUALS
D) VEDAS
ANSWER: B) INDIVIDUAL SALVATION
EXPLANATION:
HINAYANA FOCUSES ON SELF-DISCIPLINE AND PERSONAL LIBERATION.
Q313. MAHAYANA BUDDHISM EMPHASIZES:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) NO IDOLS
B) SELF ONLY
C) UNIVERSAL SALVATION
D) RITUAL SACRIFICE
ANSWER: C) UNIVERSAL SALVATION
EXPLANATION:
MAHAYANA PROMOTES SALVATION OF ALL BEINGS.
Q314. WHICH LANGUAGE WAS USED IN EARLY BUDDHIST TEXTS?
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) SANSKRIT
B) PALI
C) TAMIL
D) PERSIAN
ANSWER: B) PALI
EXPLANATION:
BUDDHIST TEACHINGS WERE RECORDED IN PALI LANGUAGE.
Q315. TRIPITAKA CONSISTS OF:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2022
A) 2 PARTS
B) 3 PARTS
C) 4 PARTS
D) 5 PARTS
ANSWER: B) 3 PARTS
EXPLANATION:
TRIPITAKA INCLUDES VINAYA, SUTTA, ABHIDHAMMA PITAKA.
JAINISM (ADVANCED MICRO)
Q316. TOTAL NUMBER OF TIRTHANKARAS IN JAINISM:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) 20
B) 22
C) 24
D) 26
ANSWER: C) 24
EXPLANATION:
JAINISM RECOGNIZES 24 TIRTHANKARAS.
Q317. SYMBOL OF MAHAVIRA IS:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) LION
B) BULL
C) ELEPHANT
D) HORSE
ANSWER: A) LION
EXPLANATION:
EACH TIRTHANKARA HAS A SYMBOL; MAHAVIRA’S IS LION.
Q318. SYMBOL OF RISHABHANATHA IS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) BULL
B) LION
C) SNAKE
D) ELEPHANT
ANSWER: A) BULL
EXPLANATION:
RISHABHANATHA IS REPRESENTED BY A BULL SYMBOL.
TRADE & ROUTES
Q319. UTTARAPATHA REFERS TO:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) SOUTHERN ROUTE
B) NORTHERN TRADE ROUTE
C) RIVER
D) KINGDOM
ANSWER: B) NORTHERN TRADE ROUTE
EXPLANATION:
IT CONNECTED NORTH INDIA WITH CENTRAL ASIA.
Q320. DAKSHINAPATHA REFERS TO:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) NORTHERN ROUTE
B) SOUTHERN ROUTE
C) RIVER
D) MOUNTAIN
ANSWER: B) SOUTHERN ROUTE
EXPLANATION:
IT CONNECTED NORTH INDIA TO SOUTH INDIA.
FOREIGN TRAVELLERS (ADVANCED)
Q321. FA-HIEN VISITED INDIA DURING:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) MAURYAN PERIOD
B) GUPTA PERIOD
C) KUSHAN PERIOD
D) HARSHA PERIOD
ANSWER: B) GUPTA PERIOD
EXPLANATION:
HE VISITED DURING CHANDRAGUPTA II.
Q322. HIUEN TSANG VISITED IN:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) MAURYAN PERIOD
B) GUPTA PERIOD
C) HARSHA PERIOD
D) MUGHAL PERIOD
ANSWER: C) HARSHA PERIOD
EXPLANATION:
HE VISITED DURING HARSHAVARDHANA’S REIGN.
Q323. I-TSING VISITED INDIA FOR:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) TRADE
B) RELIGION
C) WAR
D) AGRICULTURE
ANSWER: B) RELIGION
EXPLANATION:
HE CAME TO STUDY BUDDHISM AND NALANDA.
TEMPLE ARCHITECTURE (BASICS)
Q324. NAGARA STYLE TEMPLE IS FOUND IN:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) SOUTH INDIA
B) NORTH INDIA
C) EAST INDIA
D) WEST INDIA
ANSWER: B) NORTH INDIA
EXPLANATION:
NAGARA STYLE IS TYPICAL OF NORTH INDIA.
Q325. DRAVIDA STYLE TEMPLE IS FOUND IN:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) NORTH INDIA
B) SOUTH INDIA
C) EAST INDIA
D) CENTRAL INDIA
ANSWER: B) SOUTH INDIA
EXPLANATION:
DRAVIDA STYLE IS FOUND IN SOUTH INDIA.
Q326. SHIKHARA IS PART OF:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) MOSQUE
B) TEMPLE
C) PALACE
D) FORT
ANSWER: B) TEMPLE
EXPLANATION:
SHIKHARA IS THE TOWER ABOVE TEMPLE SANCTUM.
Q327. GOPURAM IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) NORTH INDIA
B) SOUTH INDIA
C) WEST INDIA
D) EAST INDIA
ANSWER: B) SOUTH INDIA
EXPLANATION:
GOPURAM IS A LARGE GATEWAY TOWER IN DRAVIDIAN TEMPLES.
Q328. VIMANA IS PART OF:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) TEMPLE
B) MOSQUE
C) PALACE
D) FORT
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: TOWER ABOVE SANCTUM
Q328. VIMANA IN TEMPLE ARCHITECTURE REFERS TO:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) ENTRANCE GATE
B) TOWER ABOVE SANCTUM
C) PRAYER HALL
D) PILLAR
ANSWER: B) TOWER ABOVE SANCTUM
EXPLANATION:
VIMANA IS THE TOWER BUILT ABOVE THE GARBHAGRIHA (SANCTUM) IN SOUTH INDIAN TEMPLES.
Q329. GARBHAGRIHA IN A TEMPLE IS:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) ENTRANCE HALL
B) PILLARED HALL
C) SANCTUM SANCTORUM
D) OUTER COURTYARD
ANSWER: C) SANCTUM SANCTORUM
EXPLANATION:
GARBHAGRIHA IS THE INNERMOST CHAMBER WHERE THE DEITY IS PLACED.
Q330. MANDAPA IN TEMPLE ARCHITECTURE REFERS TO:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2022
A) TOWER
B) HALL
C) GATE
D) WALL
ANSWER: B) HALL
EXPLANATION:
MANDAPA IS A PILLARED HALL USED FOR GATHERINGS AND RITUALS.
Q331. THE TERM “PRADAKSHINA” IN TEMPLE CONTEXT MEANS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) WORSHIP
B) MEDITATION
C) CIRCUMAMBULATION
D) OFFERING
ANSWER: C) CIRCUMAMBULATION
EXPLANATION:
PRADAKSHINA REFERS TO WALKING CLOCKWISE AROUND THE DEITY.
Q332. WHICH PART OF TEMPLE IS USED FOR CIRCUMAMBULATION?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2020
A) MANDAPA
B) PRADAKSHINAPATHA
C) SHIKHARA
D) GOPURAM
ANSWER: B) PRADAKSHINAPATHA
EXPLANATION:
IT IS THE PATH AROUND THE SANCTUM FOR RITUAL WALKING.
Q333. AMALAKA IS PART OF:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) STUPA
B) TEMPLE
C) MOSQUE
D) PALACE
ANSWER: B) TEMPLE
EXPLANATION:
AMALAKA IS A STONE DISC PLACED ON TOP OF THE SHIKHARA IN NORTH INDIAN TEMPLES.
Q334. KALASHA IN TEMPLE ARCHITECTURE IS:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) DOOR
B) POT-SHAPED FINIAL
C) WALL
D) PILLAR
ANSWER: B) POT-SHAPED FINIAL
EXPLANATION:
KALASHA IS THE TOPMOST ELEMENT OF TEMPLE TOWER.
Q335. THE EARLIEST STRUCTURAL TEMPLES IN INDIA WERE BUILT DURING:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) MAURYAN PERIOD
B) GUPTA PERIOD
C) VEDIC PERIOD
D) MUGHAL PERIOD
ANSWER: B) GUPTA PERIOD
EXPLANATION:
STRUCTURAL TEMPLES (STONE/BRICK) BEGAN DURING THE GUPTA PERIOD.
Q336. DEOGARH TEMPLE IS AN EXAMPLE OF:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) DRAVIDA STYLE
B) NAGARA STYLE
C) VESARA STYLE
D) INDO-ISLAMIC STYLE
ANSWER: B) NAGARA STYLE
EXPLANATION:
DASHAVATARA TEMPLE AT DEOGARH IS A CLASSIC NAGARA STYLE TEMPLE.
Q337. MAHABALIPURAM TEMPLES WERE BUILT BY:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) CHOLAS
B) PALLAVAS
C) PANDYAS
D) CHERAS
ANSWER: B) PALLAVAS
EXPLANATION:
PALLAVAS BUILT THE ROCK-CUT TEMPLES AT MAHABALIPURAM.
Q338. BRIHADESHWARA TEMPLE WAS BUILT BY:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) PALLAVAS
B) CHOLAS
C) GUPTAS
D) MAURYAS
ANSWER: B) CHOLAS
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS BUILT BY RAJARAJA CHOLA I IN TAMIL NADU.
Q339. THE SHORE TEMPLE IS LOCATED AT:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) MADURAI
B) MAHABALIPURAM
C) KANCHIPURAM
D) THANJAVUR
ANSWER: B) MAHABALIPURAM
EXPLANATION:
THE SHORE TEMPLE IS A FAMOUS PALLAVA MONUMENT AT MAHABALIPURAM.
Q340. VESARA STYLE OF TEMPLE ARCHITECTURE IS A MIX OF:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2022
A) NAGARA & DRAVIDA
B) PERSIAN & INDIAN
C) GREEK & INDIAN
D) BUDDHIST & JAIN
ANSWER: A) NAGARA & DRAVIDA
EXPLANATION:
VESARA STYLE COMBINES FEATURES OF NORTH AND SOUTH INDIAN TEMPLE ARCHITECTURE.
ANCIENT HISTORY MCQS (Q341–Q380)
ULTRA MICRO / CONCEPTUAL BOOST
Q341. WHICH VEDIC GOD WAS KNOWN AS THE GOD OF FIRE?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) INDRA
B) AGNI
C) VARUNA
D) SOMA
ANSWER: B) AGNI
EXPLANATION:
AGNI WAS THE GOD OF FIRE AND MEDIATOR BETWEEN GODS AND HUMANS.
Q342. INDRA IN VEDIC PERIOD WAS THE GOD OF:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) WATER
B) WAR AND RAIN
C) FIRE
D) WIND
ANSWER: B) WAR AND RAIN
EXPLANATION:
INDRA WAS THE MOST IMPORTANT DEITY, ASSOCIATED WITH THUNDER AND RAIN.
Q343. VARUNA WAS THE GOD OF:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) FIRE
B) WIND
C) WATER
D) EARTH
ANSWER: C) WATER
EXPLANATION:
VARUNA WAS CONSIDERED THE GOD OF WATER AND COSMIC ORDER.
Q344. SOMA WAS ASSOCIATED WITH:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) RIVER
B) DRINK/PLANT
C) FIRE
D) WAR
ANSWER: B) DRINK/PLANT
EXPLANATION:
SOMA WAS A SACRED DRINK AND ALSO A DEITY.
Q345. WHICH VEDIC GOD WAS KNOWN AS “DESTROYER OF ENEMIES”?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2022
A) AGNI
B) INDRA
C) VARUNA
D) SOMA
ANSWER: B) INDRA
EXPLANATION:
INDRA WAS PRAISED AS A WARRIOR GOD WHO DESTROYED ENEMIES.
Q346. THE TERM “RITA” IN VEDIC PERIOD REFERS TO:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) LAW
B) COSMIC ORDER
C) TAX
D) RITUAL
ANSWER: B) COSMIC ORDER
EXPLANATION:
RITA REPRESENTS THE UNIVERSAL NATURAL ORDER AND TRUTH.
Q347. WHICH VEDA IS KNOWN FOR MUSICAL CHANTS?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) RIGVEDA
B) SAMAVEDA
C) YAJURVEDA
D) ATHARVAVEDA
ANSWER: B) SAMAVEDA
EXPLANATION:
SAMAVEDA CONTAINS MELODIES AND MUSICAL HYMNS.
Q348. ATHARVAVEDA MAINLY DEALS WITH:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) WAR
B) MAGIC AND SPELLS
C) TRADE
D) AGRICULTURE
ANSWER: B) MAGIC AND SPELLS
EXPLANATION:
ATHARVAVEDA INCLUDES CHARMS, SPELLS, AND FOLK BELIEFS.
Q349. WHICH VEDA IS THE OLDEST?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) SAMAVEDA
B) YAJURVEDA
C) RIGVEDA
D) ATHARVAVEDA
ANSWER: C) RIGVEDA
EXPLANATION:
RIGVEDA IS THE EARLIEST VEDIC TEXT.
Q350. THE RIGVEDA CONSISTS OF HOW MANY MANDALAS?
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) 8
B) 10
C) 12
D) 16
ANSWER: B) 10
EXPLANATION:
RIGVEDA IS DIVIDED INTO 10 MANDALAS (BOOKS).
ADVANCED RELIGIOUS & SOCIAL TERMS
Q351. WHICH SYSTEM DIVIDED SOCIETY INTO FOUR VARNAS?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) ASHRAMA SYSTEM
B) VARNA SYSTEM
C) CASTE SYSTEM
D) FEUDAL SYSTEM
ANSWER: B) VARNA SYSTEM
EXPLANATION:
VARNA SYSTEM CLASSIFIED SOCIETY INTO FOUR CATEGORIES.
Q352. WHICH VARNA WAS AT THE TOP OF HIERARCHY?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) KSHATRIYA
B) VAISHYA
C) BRAHMIN
D) SHUDRA
ANSWER: C) BRAHMIN
EXPLANATION:
BRAHMINS WERE CONSIDERED HIGHEST DUE TO RELIGIOUS AUTHORITY.
Q353. WHICH VARNA ENGAGED IN TRADE?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2020
A) BRAHMIN
B) KSHATRIYA
C) VAISHYA
D) SHUDRA
ANSWER: C) VAISHYA
EXPLANATION:
VAISHYAS WERE INVOLVED IN TRADE, AGRICULTURE, AND CATTLE REARING.
Q354. WHICH VARNA PERFORMED LABOR WORK?
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) BRAHMIN
B) KSHATRIYA
C) VAISHYA
D) SHUDRA
ANSWER: D) SHUDRA
EXPLANATION:
SHUDRAS WERE ENGAGED IN SERVICE AND LABOR ACTIVITIES.
Q355. THE TERM “ASHRAMA” REFERS TO:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) TAX
B) STAGE OF LIFE
C) TRADE
D) ARMY
ANSWER: B) STAGE OF LIFE
EXPLANATION:
ASHRAMA SYSTEM DIVIDES LIFE INTO FOUR STAGES.
ECONOMY & SOCIETY (ADVANCED)
Q356. THE MAIN OCCUPATION IN EARLY VEDIC PERIOD WAS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) AGRICULTURE
B) TRADE
C) PASTORALISM
D) INDUSTRY
ANSWER: C) PASTORALISM
EXPLANATION:
PEOPLE MAINLY DEPENDED ON CATTLE REARING.
Q357. LATER VEDIC PERIOD SAW RISE OF:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) TRADE ONLY
B) AGRICULTURE
C) INDUSTRY
D) MINING
ANSWER: B) AGRICULTURE
EXPLANATION:
AGRICULTURE BECAME PRIMARY OCCUPATION LATER.
Q358. WHICH METAL WAS UNKNOWN IN EARLY VEDIC PERIOD?
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) GOLD
B) COPPER
C) IRON
D) SILVER
ANSWER: C) IRON
EXPLANATION:
IRON WAS INTRODUCED IN LATER VEDIC PERIOD.
Q359. THE USE OF IRON LED TO:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) TRADE DECLINE
B) AGRICULTURAL EXPANSION
C) WAR DECLINE
D) RELIGION GROWTH
ANSWER: B) AGRICULTURAL EXPANSION
EXPLANATION:
IRON TOOLS HELPED IN CLEARING FORESTS AND FARMING.
Q360. WHICH ANIMAL WAS MOST VALUED IN VEDIC SOCIETY?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) HORSE
B) COW
C) ELEPHANT
D) DOG
ANSWER: B) COW
EXPLANATION:
COW WAS CONSIDERED A MEASURE OF WEALTH.
Q361. THE TERM “GAVISHTI” REFERS TO:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) WAR
B) TRADE
C) RITUAL
D) TAX
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: WAR FOR COWS
ANCIENT HISTORY MCQS (Q362–Q400 CONTINUED)
Q362. WHICH RIVER IS CALLED “SINDHU” IN VEDIC TEXTS?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) GANGA
B) YAMUNA
C) INDUS
D) SARASWATI
ANSWER: C) INDUS
EXPLANATION:
THE TERM “SINDHU” REFERS TO THE INDUS RIVER, FREQUENTLY MENTIONED IN RIGVEDA.
Q363. ARYANS INITIALLY SETTLED IN:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) GANGA VALLEY
B) PUNJAB REGION
C) DECCAN PLATEAU
D) SOUTH INDIA
ANSWER: B) PUNJAB REGION
EXPLANATION:
EARLY ARYANS SETTLED IN THE NORTHWESTERN REGION (SAPTA SINDHU AREA).
Q364. SABHA AND SAMITI IN VEDIC PERIOD WERE:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) RELIGIOUS GROUPS
B) ASSEMBLIES
C) MILITARY UNITS
D) TRADE GUILDS
ANSWER: B) ASSEMBLIES
EXPLANATION:
THEY WERE IMPORTANT POLITICAL ASSEMBLIES.
Q365. VEDIC RELIGION WAS MAINLY BASED ON:
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) IDOL WORSHIP
B) NATURE WORSHIP
C) TEMPLE WORSHIP
D) ANIMAL WORSHIP
ANSWER: B) NATURE WORSHIP
EXPLANATION:
VEDIC PEOPLE WORSHIPPED NATURAL FORCES LIKE FIRE, RAIN, WIND.
Q366. IDOL WORSHIP BECAME COMMON IN:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2022
A) EARLY VEDIC PERIOD
B) LATER VEDIC PERIOD
C) HARAPPAN PERIOD
D) MAURYAN PERIOD
ANSWER: B) LATER VEDIC PERIOD
EXPLANATION:
IDOL WORSHIP DEVELOPED GRADUALLY IN THE LATER VEDIC AGE.
Q367. ASHVAMEDHA SACRIFICE WAS PERFORMED BY:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) TRADERS
B) KINGS
C) PRIESTS
D) FARMERS
ANSWER: B) KINGS
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS PERFORMED TO ASSERT ROYAL SUPREMACY.
Q368. RAJASUYA SACRIFICE WAS RELATED TO:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) AGRICULTURE
B) CORONATION
C) TRADE
D) WAR
ANSWER: B) CORONATION
EXPLANATION:
RAJASUYA WAS A ROYAL CONSECRATION CEREMONY.
Q369. VAJAPEYA SACRIFICE SYMBOLIZED:
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) WAR VICTORY
B) ROYAL POWER
C) TRADE SUCCESS
D) AGRICULTURE
ANSWER: B) ROYAL POWER
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS A PRESTIGIOUS RITUAL SHOWING AUTHORITY.
Q370. SOMA DRINK WAS MAINLY USED IN:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) TRADE
B) RITUALS
C) WAR
D) AGRICULTURE
ANSWER: B) RITUALS
EXPLANATION:
SOMA WAS CONSUMED DURING RELIGIOUS CEREMONIES.
Q371. WHICH VEDIC TEXT DEALS WITH RITUALS?
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) RIGVEDA
B) SAMAVEDA
C) YAJURVEDA
D) ATHARVAVEDA
ANSWER: C) YAJURVEDA
EXPLANATION:
YAJURVEDA CONTAINS INSTRUCTIONS FOR PERFORMING RITUALS.
Q372. THE TERM “ARYA” MEANS:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) NOBLE
B) WARRIOR
C) PRIEST
D) KING
ANSWER: A) NOBLE
EXPLANATION:
ARYA MEANS NOBLE OR RESPECTABLE PERSON.
Q373. WHICH WAS NOT A VEDIC GOD?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) INDRA
B) AGNI
C) VISHNU
D) BUDDHA
ANSWER: D) BUDDHA
EXPLANATION:
BUDDHA BELONGS TO A LATER RELIGIOUS TRADITION.
Q374. WHICH VEDIC DEITY IS ASSOCIATED WITH WIND?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2020
A) VARUNA
B) VAYU
C) AGNI
D) INDRA
ANSWER: B) VAYU
EXPLANATION:
VAYU IS THE GOD OF WIND.
Q375. WHICH ANIMAL WAS USED IN ASHVAMEDHA?
EXAM: SSC GD 2021
A) COW
B) HORSE
C) ELEPHANT
D) GOAT
ANSWER: B) HORSE
EXPLANATION:
ASHVAMEDHA LITERALLY MEANS HORSE SACRIFICE.
Q376. WHICH VEDIC TERM REFERS TO CATTLE WEALTH?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2020
A) GAVISHTI
B) GAVYA
C) GOPA
D) GRIHA
ANSWER: B) GAVYA
EXPLANATION:
GAVYA REFERS TO WEALTH DERIVED FROM CATTLE.
Q377. WHICH RIVER IS NOT MENTIONED IN RIGVEDA?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) SARASWATI
B) INDUS
C) GANGA
D) GODAVARI
ANSWER: D) GODAVARI
EXPLANATION:
GODAVARI BELONGS TO LATER GEOGRAPHICAL EXPANSION.
Q378. WHICH VEDIC GOD IS ASSOCIATED WITH SKY?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) INDRA
B) DYAUS
C) AGNI
D) SOMA
ANSWER: B) DYAUS
EXPLANATION:
DYAUS REPRESENTS THE SKY OR HEAVEN.
Q379. THE WORD “RAJAN” MEANS:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) PRIEST
B) KING
C) WARRIOR
D) FARMER
ANSWER: B) KING
EXPLANATION:
RAJAN WAS THE TRIBAL CHIEF OR KING.
Q380. THE KING IN VEDIC PERIOD WAS ASSISTED BY:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) MINISTERS
B) SABHA & SAMITI
C) ARMY
D) PRIESTS
ANSWER: B) SABHA & SAMITI
EXPLANATION:
THESE ASSEMBLIES ADVISED THE KING.
Q381. WHICH VEDIC TEXT CONTAINS PHILOSOPHICAL IDEAS?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) VEDAS
B) BRAHMANAS
C) UPANISHADS
D) ARANYAKAS
ANSWER: C) UPANISHADS
EXPLANATION:
UPANISHADS DEAL WITH PHILOSOPHY AND SPIRITUALITY.
Q382. WHICH TEXT EXPLAINS RITUALS IN DETAIL?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) UPANISHADS
B) BRAHMANAS
C) VEDAS
D) ARANYAKAS
ANSWER: B) BRAHMANAS
EXPLANATION:
BRAHMANAS ELABORATE ON RITUAL PRACTICES.
Q383. ARANYAKAS ARE RELATED TO:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) FOREST LIFE
B) TRADE
C) WAR
D) AGRICULTURE
ANSWER: A) FOREST LIFE
EXPLANATION:
THEY WERE COMPOSED IN FOREST SETTINGS.
Q384. WHICH VEDIC TEXT IS KNOWN AS “VEDANTA”?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) RIGVEDA
B) BRAHMANA
C) UPANISHADS
D) SAMAVEDA
ANSWER: C) UPANISHADS
EXPLANATION:
UPANISHADS ARE CALLED VEDANTA (END OF VEDAS).
Q385. WHICH STAGE OF LIFE FOLLOWS BRAHMACHARYA?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) SANNYASA
B) VANAPRASTHA
C) GRIHASTHA
D) NONE
ANSWER: C) GRIHASTHA
EXPLANATION:
AFTER STUDENT LIFE COMES HOUSEHOLDER STAGE.
Q386. WHICH STAGE INVOLVES RENUNCIATION?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) BRAHMACHARYA
B) GRIHASTHA
C) VANAPRASTHA
D) SANNYASA
ANSWER: D) SANNYASA
EXPLANATION:
FINAL STAGE INVOLVES COMPLETE RENUNCIATION.
Q387. WHICH STAGE INVOLVES PARTIAL WITHDRAWAL?
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) BRAHMACHARYA
B) GRIHASTHA
C) VANAPRASTHA
D) SANNYASA
ANSWER: C) VANAPRASTHA
EXPLANATION:
IT IS THE RETIREMENT STAGE.
Q388. WHICH SYSTEM DIVIDED LIFE INTO STAGES?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) VARNA
B) ASHRAMA
C) FEUDAL
D) TRADE
ANSWER: B) ASHRAMA
EXPLANATION:
ASHRAMA SYSTEM DIVIDES LIFE INTO FOUR STAGES.
Q389. WHICH METAL MARKED LATER VEDIC ADVANCEMENT?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) GOLD
B) COPPER
C) IRON
D) SILVER
ANSWER: C) IRON
EXPLANATION:
IRON TOOLS REVOLUTIONIZED AGRICULTURE AND WARFARE.
Q390. WHICH ACTIVITY INCREASED IN LATER VEDIC PERIOD?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) PASTORALISM
B) AGRICULTURE
C) HUNTING
D) FISHING
ANSWER: B) AGRICULTURE
EXPLANATION:
FARMING BECAME DOMINANT.
Q391. WHICH CLASS GAINED IMPORTANCE LATER?
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) BRAHMIN
B) KSHATRIYA
C) VAISHYA
D) SHUDRA
ANSWER: A) BRAHMIN
EXPLANATION:
PRIESTS BECAME MORE POWERFUL DUE TO RITUALS.
Q392. WHICH RIVER IS MOST SACRED LATER?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) SARASWATI
B) GANGA
C) INDUS
D) YAMUNA
ANSWER: B) GANGA
EXPLANATION:
GANGA GAINED IMPORTANCE IN LATER PERIOD.
Q393. WHICH SACRIFICE REQUIRED MANY PRIESTS?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) ASHVAMEDHA
B) RAJASUYA
C) VAJAPEYA
D) ALL
ANSWER: D) ALL
EXPLANATION:
ALL MAJOR SACRIFICES NEEDED MANY PRIESTS.
Q394. WHICH VEDIC GOD LOST IMPORTANCE LATER?
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) INDRA
B) VISHNU
C) SHIVA
D) BRAHMA
ANSWER: A) INDRA
EXPLANATION:
INDRA’S IMPORTANCE DECLINED IN LATER PERIOD.
Q395. WHICH GODS GAINED IMPORTANCE LATER?
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) INDRA
B) AGNI
C) VISHNU & SHIVA
D) SOMA
ANSWER: C) VISHNU & SHIVA
EXPLANATION:
THESE BECAME MAJOR DEITIES LATER.
Q396. WHICH CONCEPT BECAME IMPORTANT LATER?
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) RITUALS
B) KARMA
C) TRADE
D) WAR
ANSWER: B) KARMA
EXPLANATION:
KARMA AND REBIRTH CONCEPTS DEVELOPED.
Q397. WHICH BELIEF IS RELATED TO REBIRTH?
EXAM: SSC GD 2022
A) DHARMA
B) KARMA
C) MOKSHA
D) ALL
ANSWER: D) ALL
EXPLANATION:
ALL ARE LINKED TO CYCLE OF LIFE AND REBIRTH.
Q398. MOKSHA MEANS:
EXAM: SSC CGL 2021
A) BIRTH
B) DEATH
C) LIBERATION
D) WAR
ANSWER: C) LIBERATION
EXPLANATION:
MOKSHA IS FREEDOM FROM CYCLE OF REBIRTH.
Q399. DHARMA REFERS TO:
EXAM: SSC GD 2020
A) DUTY
B) TRADE
C) WAR
D) TAX
ANSWER: A) DUTY
EXPLANATION:
DHARMA MEANS RIGHTEOUS DUTY.
Q400. KARMA REFERS TO:
EXAM: SSC CHSL 2021
A) ACTION
B) PRAYER
C) RITUAL
D) WEALTH
ANSWER: A) ACTION
EXPLANATION:
KARMA MEANS ACTIONS AND THEIR CONSEQUENC
SSC TIER-I GK (MCQ): MEDIEVAL HISTORY
MEDIEVAL HISTORY: KEY HIGHLIGHTS
MEDIEVAL INDIAN HISTORY (8TH–18TH CENTURY) IS ONE OF THE MOST IMPORTANT SECTIONS FOR SSC EXAMS LIKE CGL, CHSL, MTS, GD, CPO. QUESTIONS ARE OFTEN REPEATED WITH SLIGHT MODIFICATIONS.
IMPORTANT THEMES YOU MUST KNOW:
DELHI SULTANATE (1206–1526)
MUGHAL EMPIRE (1526–1707+)
ADMINISTRATION & REVENUE SYSTEMS
IMPORTANT BATTLES
RELIGIOUS MOVEMENTS (BHAKTI & SUFI)
ARCHITECTURE & ART
IMPORTANT KINGS & POLICIES
SSC EXAM TREND:
1–2 QUESTIONS ARE DIRECT REPEATS
2–3 QUESTIONS ARE CONCEPT-BASED
FOCUS ON FACTS + YEARS + RULERS
TOPIC 1: DELHI SULTANATE
Q1. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF THE DELHI SULTANATE?
(A) QUTB-UD-DIN AIBAK
(B) ILTUTMISH
(C) BALBAN
(D) MUHAMMAD GHORI
ANSWER: (A) QUTB-UD-DIN AIBAK
EXPLANATION:
QUTB-UD-DIN AIBAK FOUNDED THE DELHI SULTANATE IN 1206 AFTER THE DEATH OF MUHAMMAD GHORI.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017, SSC CHSL 2018
Q2. WHO INTRODUCED THE IQTA SYSTEM IN INDIA?
(A) ILTUTMISH
(B) BALBAN
(C) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(D) RAZIA SULTAN
ANSWER: (A) ILTUTMISH
EXPLANATION:
ILTUTMISH ORGANIZED THE IQTA SYSTEM WHICH WAS A SYSTEM OF LAND REVENUE ASSIGNMENT.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2016
Q3. WHO WAS THE FIRST WOMAN RULER OF DELHI?
(A) NOOR JAHAN
(B) RAZIA SULTAN
(C) CHAND BIBI
(D) MUMTAZ MAHAL
ANSWER: (B) RAZIA SULTAN
EXPLANATION:
RAZIA SULTAN WAS THE ONLY FEMALE RULER OF THE DELHI SULTANATE.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019, SSC MTS 2021
Q4. WHO INTRODUCED MARKET CONTROL POLICY?
(A) ILTUTMISH
(B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(C) BALBAN
(D) SHER SHAH
ANSWER: (B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
EXPLANATION:
ALAUDDIN KHILJI INTRODUCED STRICT MARKET CONTROL TO MAINTAIN ARMY EXPENSES.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2018, SSC GD 2022
Q5. WHO WAS KNOWN AS THE “SECOND ALEXANDER”?
(A) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(B) BALBAN
(C) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
(D) SHER SHAH
ANSWER: (A) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
EXPLANATION:
HE ADOPTED THE TITLE SIKANDAR-E-SANI (SECOND ALEXANDER).
ASKED IN: SSC CPO 2017
TOPIC 2: MUGHAL EMPIRE
Q6. WHO FOUNDED THE MUGHAL EMPIRE IN INDIA?
(A) BABUR
(B) HUMAYUN
(C) AKBAR
(D) SHER SHAH
ANSWER: (A) BABUR
EXPLANATION:
BABUR FOUNDED THE MUGHAL EMPIRE AFTER DEFEATING IBRAHIM LODI IN 1526.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2015, SSC CHSL 2017
Q7. WHICH BATTLE ESTABLISHED MUGHAL RULE IN INDIA?
(A) BATTLE OF KHANWA
(B) FIRST BATTLE OF PANIPAT
(C) BATTLE OF PLASSEY
(D) BATTLE OF TALIKOTA
ANSWER: (B) FIRST BATTLE OF PANIPAT
EXPLANATION:
BABUR DEFEATED IBRAHIM LODI IN 1526.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2019
Q8. WHO INTRODUCED DIN-I-ILAHI?
(A) BABUR
(B) HUMAYUN
(C) AKBAR
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (C) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
AKBAR INTRODUCED A NEW RELIGIOUS SYSTEM CALLED DIN-I-ILAHI.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2016, SSC CHSL 2020
Q9. WHO BUILT THE BULAND DARWAZA?
(A) SHAH JAHAN
(B) AKBAR
(C) AURANGZEB
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (B) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
BUILT TO COMMEMORATE VICTORY OVER GUJARAT.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
Q10. WHO WROTE AKBARNAMA?
(A) ABUL FAZL
(B) BADAUNI
(C) FAIZI
(D) AMIR KHUSRO
ANSWER: (A) ABUL FAZL
EXPLANATION:
AKBARNAMA IS THE OFFICIAL CHRONICLE OF AKBAR’S REIGN.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017, SSC CHSL 2019
TOPIC 3: BHAKTI & SUFI MOVEMENTS
Q11. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF THE BHAKTI MOVEMENT?
(A) KABIR
(B) RAMANANDA
(C) GURU NANAK
(D) CHAITANYA
ANSWER: (B) RAMANANDA
EXPLANATION:
RAMANANDA IS CONSIDERED THE PIONEER OF BHAKTI MOVEMENT IN NORTH INDIA.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q12. KABIR WAS THE DISCIPLE OF WHOM?
(A) RAMANANDA
(B) GURU NANAK
(C) NAMDEV
(D) TULSIDAS
ANSWER: (A) RAMANANDA
EXPLANATION:
KABIR WAS INFLUENCED BY RAMANANDA’S TEACHINGS.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q13. WHO FOUNDED SIKHISM?
(A) GURU GOBIND SINGH
(B) GURU NANAK
(C) GURU ARJAN
(D) GURU TEGH BAHADUR
ANSWER: (B) GURU NANAK
EXPLANATION:
GURU NANAK FOUNDED SIKHISM IN THE 15TH CENTURY.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2020, SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 4: IMPORTANT ADMINISTRATION & POLICIES
Q14. WHO INTRODUCED MANSABDARI SYSTEM?
(A) BABUR
(B) AKBAR
(C) AURANGZEB
(D) SHER SHAH
ANSWER: (B) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
MANSABDARI SYSTEM ORGANIZED MILITARY & CIVIL ADMINISTRATION.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2018, SSC CHSL 2019
Q15. WHO BUILT GRAND TRUNK ROAD?
(A) AKBAR
(B) SHER SHAH SURI
(C) BABUR
(D) HUMAYUN
ANSWER: (B) SHER SHAH SURI
EXPLANATION:
HE REBUILT AND EXTENDED GT ROAD FROM BENGAL TO PUNJAB.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021, SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 1: DELHI SULTANATE (ADVANCED)
Q16. WHO WAS THE REAL FOUNDER OF THE DELHI SULTANATE ADMINISTRATION?
(A) QUTB-UD-DIN AIBAK
(B) ILTUTMISH
(C) BALBAN
(D) RAZIA SULTAN
ANSWER: (B) ILTUTMISH
EXPLANATION:
ALTHOUGH AIBAK FOUNDED THE SULTANATE, ILTUTMISH CONSOLIDATED IT AND IS CONSIDERED THE REAL FOUNDER.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2019
Q17. WHO INTRODUCED THE POLICY OF “BLOOD AND IRON”?
(A) ILTUTMISH
(B) BALBAN
(C) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(D) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
ANSWER: (B) BALBAN
EXPLANATION:
BALBAN FOLLOWED A STRICT POLICY TO STRENGTHEN THE SULTAN’S AUTHORITY.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2020
Q18. MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ SHIFTED HIS CAPITAL FROM DELHI TO WHICH PLACE?
(A) AGRA
(B) DAULATABAD
(C) LAHORE
(D) MULTAN
ANSWER: (B) DAULATABAD
EXPLANATION:
THE CAPITAL SHIFT WAS UNSUCCESSFUL AND CAUSED HARDSHIP.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017, SSC CHSL 2021
Q19. WHO INTRODUCED TOKEN CURRENCY IN INDIA?
(A) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(B) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
(C) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
(D) BALBAN
ANSWER: (B) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION:
HE INTRODUCED COPPER COINS AS TOKEN CURRENCY, WHICH FAILED.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2019
Q20. WHO BUILT THE CITY OF TUGHLAQABAD?
(A) GHIYASUDDIN TUGHLAQ
(B) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
(C) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
(D) BALBAN
ANSWER: (A) GHIYASUDDIN TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION:
HE FOUNDED THE TUGHLAQ DYNASTY AND BUILT TUGHLAQABAD.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 2: MUGHAL EMPIRE (ADVANCED)
Q21. WHO DEFEATED HEMU IN THE SECOND BATTLE OF PANIPAT?
(A) BABUR
(B) AKBAR
(C) HUMAYUN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (B) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
AKBAR (WITH BAIRAM KHAN) DEFEATED HEMU IN 1556.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2016, SSC GD 2021
Q22. WHO WAS THE REGENT OF AKBAR DURING HIS EARLY REIGN?
(A) ABUL FAZL
(B) BAIRAM KHAN
(C) TODAR MAL
(D) MAN SINGH
ANSWER: (B) BAIRAM KHAN
EXPLANATION:
BAIRAM KHAN GUIDED AKBAR IN EARLY YEARS.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q23. WHO INTRODUCED THE ZABTI SYSTEM?
(A) BABUR
(B) AKBAR
(C) SHER SHAH
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (B) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
ZABTI SYSTEM WAS A LAND REVENUE SYSTEM UNDER AKBAR.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2020
Q24. WHO ISSUED THE “ZABT SYSTEM” BASED ON LAND MEASUREMENT?
(A) TODAR MAL
(B) BAIRAM KHAN
(C) BIRBAL
(D) TANSEN
ANSWER: (A) TODAR MAL
EXPLANATION:
TODAR MAL REFORMED REVENUE SYSTEM USING MEASUREMENT.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q25. WHO BANNED SATI DURING MUGHAL PERIOD?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (A) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
AKBAR DISCOURAGED AND REGULATED SATI PRACTICE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2023
TOPIC 3: BHAKTI & SUFI MOVEMENT (ADVANCED)
Q26. WHICH SAINT PREACHED “RAM AND RAHIM ARE ONE”?
(A) GURU NANAK
(B) KABIR
(C) CHAITANYA
(D) TULSIDAS
ANSWER: (B) KABIR
EXPLANATION:
KABIR EMPHASIZED UNITY OF RELIGIONS.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2017, SSC GD 2022
Q27. CHAITANYA MAHAPRABHU WAS ASSOCIATED WITH WHICH DEITY?
(A) RAMA
(B) KRISHNA
(C) SHIVA
(D) VISHNU
ANSWER: (B) KRISHNA
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS A DEVOTEE OF LORD KRISHNA.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2020
Q28. WHICH SUFI SAINT IS ASSOCIATED WITH AJMER?
(A) NIZAMUDDIN AULIYA
(B) MOINUDDIN CHISHTI
(C) BABA FARID
(D) KHWAJA BANDE NAWAZ
ANSWER: (B) MOINUDDIN CHISHTI
EXPLANATION:
HE ESTABLISHED THE CHISHTI ORDER IN INDIA.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2018, SSC GD 2021
TOPIC 4: ARCHITECTURE & CULTURE
Q29. WHO BUILT JAMA MASJID IN DELHI?
(A) AKBAR
(B) SHAH JAHAN
(C) AURANGZEB
(D) BABUR
ANSWER: (B) SHAH JAHAN
EXPLANATION:
JAMA MASJID IS ONE OF THE LARGEST MOSQUES BUILT BY SHAH JAHAN.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q30. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR BUILT THE RED FORT?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (C) SHAH JAHAN
EXPLANATION:
RED FORT WAS BUILT IN DELHI AS MUGHAL CAPITAL.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022, SSC MTS 2023
Q31. WHO BUILT FATEHPUR SIKRI?
(A) BABUR
(B) AKBAR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (B) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS BUILT AS CAPITAL BUT LATER ABANDONED.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017
Q32. WHO CONSTRUCTED HUMAYUN’S TOMB?
(A) AKBAR
(B) HAJI BEGUM
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) NUR JAHAN
ANSWER: (B) HAJI BEGUM
EXPLANATION:
HUMAYUN’S WIDOW BUILT THE TOMB.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2020
TOPIC 5: IMPORTANT BATTLES
Q33. BATTLE OF KHANWA WAS FOUGHT BETWEEN BABUR AND WHOM?
(A) IBRAHIM LODI
(B) RANA SANGA
(C) SHER SHAH
(D) HEMU
ANSWER: (B) RANA SANGA
EXPLANATION:
BABUR DEFEATED RANA SANGA IN 1527.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2016
Q34. BATTLE OF CHAUSA WAS FOUGHT BETWEEN HUMAYUN AND WHOM?
(A) SHER SHAH SURI
(B) AKBAR
(C) BABUR
(D) HEMU
ANSWER: (A) SHER SHAH SURI
EXPLANATION:
HUMAYUN WAS DEFEATED IN 1539.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q35. BATTLE OF HALDIGHATI WAS FOUGHT BETWEEN AKBAR AND WHOM?
(A) RANA PRATAP
(B) RANA SANGA
(C) SHIVAJI
(D) SHER SHAH
ANSWER: (A) RANA PRATAP
EXPLANATION:
FOUGHT IN 1576 BETWEEN MUGHAL ARMY AND MEWAR.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018, SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 1: DELHI SULTANATE
Q36. WHO WAS THE FIRST SULTAN OF DELHI TO INTRODUCE BRANDING OF HORSES (DAGH SYSTEM)?
(A) ILTUTMISH
(B) BALBAN
(C) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(D) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
ANSWER: (C) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
EXPLANATION:
HE INTRODUCED DAGH (BRANDING) AND CHEHRA (DESCRIPTIVE ROLL) SYSTEM FOR ARMY CONTROL.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2018
Q37. WHO AMONG THE FOLLOWING RULERS WAS KNOWN FOR “FORTY NOBLES” (CHAHALGANI)?
(A) QUTB-UD-DIN AIBAK
(B) ILTUTMISH
(C) BALBAN
(D) RAZIA SULTAN
ANSWER: (B) ILTUTMISH
EXPLANATION:
CHAHALGANI WAS A GROUP OF 40 NOBLES FORMED BY ILTUTMISH.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2017
Q38. WHO ABOLISHED THE CHAHALGANI SYSTEM?
(A) BALBAN
(B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(C) ILTUTMISH
(D) FIROZ SHAH
ANSWER: (A) BALBAN
EXPLANATION:
BALBAN CRUSHED THE POWER OF THE FORTY NOBLES.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2020
Q39. WHO INTRODUCED DIWAN-I-ARZ DEPARTMENT?
(A) BALBAN
(B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(C) ILTUTMISH
(D) FIROZ SHAH
ANSWER: (B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
EXPLANATION:
IT DEALT WITH MILITARY ADMINISTRATION.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q40. WHO BUILT HAUZ KHAS IN DELHI?
(A) ILTUTMISH
(B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(C) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
(D) BALBAN
ANSWER: (B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
EXPLANATION:
LATER REPAIRED BY FIROZ SHAH.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 2: MUGHAL EMPIRE
Q41. WHO SUCCEEDED BABUR?
(A) AKBAR
(B) HUMAYUN
(C) JAHANGIR
(D) SHER SHAH
ANSWER: (B) HUMAYUN
EXPLANATION:
HUMAYUN BECAME RULER AFTER BABUR’S DEATH IN 1530.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q42. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR LOST HIS EMPIRE TO SHER SHAH SURI?
(A) BABUR
(B) AKBAR
(C) HUMAYUN
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (C) HUMAYUN
EXPLANATION:
HUMAYUN WAS DEFEATED AND WENT INTO EXILE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q43. WHO INTRODUCED PERSIAN AS COURT LANGUAGE?
(A) BABUR
(B) AKBAR
(C) SHER SHAH
(D) ILTUTMISH
ANSWER: (D) ILTUTMISH
EXPLANATION:
PERSIAN BECAME ADMINISTRATIVE LANGUAGE UNDER HIM.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017
Q44. WHO BUILT THE PEACOCK THRONE?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (C) SHAH JAHAN
EXPLANATION:
SYMBOL OF MUGHAL LUXURY AND POWER.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
Q45. WHO IMPRISONED SHAH JAHAN?
(A) JAHANGIR
(B) AURANGZEB
(C) HUMAYUN
(D) BABUR
ANSWER: (B) AURANGZEB
EXPLANATION:
AURANGZEB IMPRISONED HIS FATHER.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2023
TOPIC 3: BHAKTI & SUFI (MORE PYQS)
Q46. WHO COMPOSED “RAMCHARITMANAS”?
(A) KABIR
(B) TULSIDAS
(C) SURDAS
(D) MIRABAI
ANSWER: (B) TULSIDAS
EXPLANATION:
WRITTEN IN AWADHI LANGUAGE.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2016, SSC CHSL 2019
Q47. SURDAS WAS DEVOTEE OF WHOM?
(A) RAMA
(B) KRISHNA
(C) SHIVA
(D) VISHNU
ANSWER: (B) KRISHNA
EXPLANATION:
HE COMPOSED SUR SAGAR.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q48. WHICH LANGUAGE WAS USED BY KABIR?
(A) SANSKRIT
(B) PERSIAN
(C) HINDI DIALECT
(D) URDU
ANSWER: (C) HINDI DIALECT
EXPLANATION:
KABIR USED SIMPLE LANGUAGE FOR MASSES.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q49. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF CHISHTI ORDER IN INDIA?
(A) KHWAJA MOINUDDIN CHISHTI
(B) NIZAMUDDIN AULIYA
(C) BABA FARID
(D) AMIR KHUSRO
ANSWER: (A) KHWAJA MOINUDDIN CHISHTI
EXPLANATION:
HE SPREAD SUFISM WIDELY.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2018
Q50. WHO WAS KNOWN AS “NIGHTINGALE OF INDIA” IN BHAKTI PERIOD?
(A) MIRABAI
(B) SURDAS
(C) KABIR
(D) TULSIDAS
ANSWER: (A) MIRABAI
EXPLANATION:
SHE WAS DEVOTED TO KRISHNA.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2020
TOPIC 4: ADMINISTRATION & ECONOMY
Q51. WHO INTRODUCED LAND REVENUE SYSTEM BASED ON MEASUREMENT?
(A) SHER SHAH
(B) AKBAR
(C) ALAUDDIN
(D) BALBAN
ANSWER: (A) SHER SHAH
EXPLANATION:
LATER REFINED BY AKBAR.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q52. WHO ISSUED SILVER COIN “RUPIYA”?
(A) AKBAR
(B) SHER SHAH SURI
(C) BABUR
(D) HUMAYUN
ANSWER: (B) SHER SHAH SURI
EXPLANATION:
MODERN RUPEE EVOLVED FROM IT.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017
Q53. WHO MAINTAINED ESPIONAGE SYSTEM IN DELHI SULTANATE?
(A) BALBAN
(B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(C) ILTUTMISH
(D) RAZIA
ANSWER: (B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
EXPLANATION:
SPIES KEPT STRICT WATCH ON NOBLES.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
Q54. WHO INTRODUCED CASH SALARY TO SOLDIERS?
(A) BALBAN
(B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(C) AKBAR
(D) SHER SHAH
ANSWER: (B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
EXPLANATION:
PAID ARMY IN CASH INSTEAD OF LAND.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2020
Q55. WHO INTRODUCED POSTAL SYSTEM IN MEDIEVAL INDIA?
(A) SHER SHAH SURI
(B) AKBAR
(C) BABUR
(D) BALBAN
ANSWER: (A) SHER SHAH SURI
EXPLANATION:
HE SET UP DAK SYSTEM.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
TOPIC 5: ART & ARCHITECTURE
Q56. QUTUB MINAR WAS COMPLETED BY WHOM?
(A) QUTB-UD-DIN AIBAK
(B) ILTUTMISH
(C) BALBAN
(D) ALAUDDIN
ANSWER: (B) ILTUTMISH
EXPLANATION:
AIBAK STARTED, ILTUTMISH COMPLETED.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2016
Q57. TAJ MAHAL WAS BUILT BY WHOM?
(A) AKBAR
(B) SHAH JAHAN
(C) AURANGZEB
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (B) SHAH JAHAN
EXPLANATION:
BUILT IN MEMORY OF MUMTAZ MAHAL.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2019, SSC CHSL 2021
Q58. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR BUILT SHALIMAR BAGH?
(A) BABUR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (B) JAHANGIR
EXPLANATION:
FAMOUS MUGHAL GARDEN IN KASHMIR.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2020
Q59. WHO BUILT AGRA FORT?
(A) BABUR
(B) AKBAR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) HUMAYUN
ANSWER: (B) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
IMPORTANT MUGHAL FORT.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q60. WHICH MONUMENT IS CALLED “DREAM IN MARBLE”?
(A) RED FORT
(B) TAJ MAHAL
(C) JAMA MASJID
(D) FATEHPUR SIKRI
ANSWER: (B) TAJ MAHAL
EXPLANATION:
DUE TO ITS BEAUTY AND ARCHITECTURE.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2017
TOPIC 6: IMPORTANT FACTS & MISC
Q61. WHO WAS LAST MUGHAL EMPEROR?
(A) BAHADUR SHAH I
(B) BAHADUR SHAH II
(C) AKBAR II
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (B) BAHADUR SHAH II
EXPLANATION:
ALSO KNOWN AS ZAFAR.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2015, SSC GD 2021
Q62. WHO WAS KNOWN AS “ZINDA PIR”?
(A) AKBAR
(B) AURANGZEB
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (B) AURANGZEB
EXPLANATION:
DUE TO RELIGIOUS LIFESTYLE.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2020
Q63. WHO WAS THE AUTHOR OF BABURNAMA?
(A) BABUR
(B) ABUL FAZL
(C) GULBADAN BEGUM
(D) BADAUNI
ANSWER: (A) BABUR
EXPLANATION:
AUTOBIOGRAPHY OF BABUR.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q64. WHO WROTE HUMAYUNAMA?
(A) BABUR
(B) GULBADAN BEGUM
(C) ABUL FAZL
(D) AKBAR
ANSWER: (B) GULBADAN BEGUM
EXPLANATION:
HUMAYUN’S BIOGRAPHY.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q65. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF TUGHLAQ DYNASTY?
(A) GHIYASUDDIN TUGHLAQ
(B) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
(C) FIROZ SHAH
(D) BALBAN
ANSWER: (A) GHIYASUDDIN TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION:
HE STARTED TUGHLAQ RULE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2020
Q66–Q100 RAPID FIRE
Q66. WHO INTRODUCED JIZYA TAX AGAIN?
(A) AKBAR
(B) AURANGZEB
(C) BABUR
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (B) AURANGZEB
SSC GD 2022
Q67. WHO ABOLISHED JIZYA TAX?
(A) AKBAR
(B) SHAH JAHAN
(C) AURANGZEB
(D) BABUR
ANSWER: (A) AKBAR
SSC CGL 2016
Q68. WHO WAS CALLED “PRINCE OF BUILDERS”?
(A) AKBAR
(B) SHAH JAHAN
(C) AURANGZEB
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (B) SHAH JAHAN
SSC CHSL 2019
Q69. WHO BUILT ITMAD-UD-DAULAH TOMB?
(A) AKBAR
(B) NOOR JAHAN
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) MUMTAZ MAHAL
ANSWER: (B) NOOR JAHAN
SSC MTS 2021
Q70. WHO INTRODUCED ILAHI CALENDAR?
(A) BABUR
(B) AKBAR
(C) JAHANGIR
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (B) AKBAR
SSC GD 2020
Q71. WHO WAS AKBAR’S FINANCE MINISTER?
(A) BIRBAL
(B) TODAR MAL
(C) TANSEN
(D) ABUL FAZL
ANSWER: (B) TODAR MAL
SSC CGL 2017
Q72. WHO WAS FOUNDER OF LODHI DYNASTY?
(A) BAHLOL LODHI
(B) SIKANDAR LODHI
(C) IBRAHIM LODHI
(D) DAULAT KHAN
ANSWER: (A) BAHLOL LODHI
SSC GD 2021
Q73. WHO SHIFTED CAPITAL FROM AGRA TO DELHI?
(A) AKBAR
(B) SHAH JAHAN
(C) AURANGZEB
(D) BABUR
ANSWER: (B) SHAH JAHAN
SSC CHSL 2020
Q74. WHO WAS CALLED “JAGAT GURU”?
(A) KABIR
(B) SHANKARACHARYA
(C) CHAITANYA
(D) RAMANANDA
ANSWER: (B) SHANKARACHARYA
SSC MTS 2019
Q75. WHO BUILT ALAI DARWAZA?
(A) ILTUTMISH
(B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(C) BALBAN
(D) FIROZ SHAH
ANSWER: (B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
SSC GD 2022
Q76. WHO WROTE AIN-I-AKBARI?
(A) ABUL FAZL
(B) BADAUNI
(C) FAIZI
(D) AKBAR
ANSWER: (A) ABUL FAZL
SSC CGL 2018
Q77. WHO WAS THE FIRST MUGHAL EMPEROR BURIED IN INDIA?
(A) BABUR
(B) HUMAYUN
(C) AKBAR
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (B) HUMAYUN
SSC CHSL 2021
Q78. WHO BUILT PURANA QILA?
(A) SHER SHAH SURI
(B) AKBAR
(C) HUMAYUN
(D) BABUR
ANSWER: (A) SHER SHAH SURI
SSC GD 2020
Q79. WHO WAS THE LAST RULER OF SLAVE DYNASTY?
(A) BALBAN
(B) QAIQABAD
(C) ILTUTMISH
(D) RAZIA
ANSWER: (B) QAIQABAD
SSC MTS 2022
Q80. WHO INTRODUCED IRRIGATION TAX?
(A) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
(B) ALAUDDIN
(C) BALBAN
(D) ILTUTMISH
ANSWER: (A) FIROZ SHAH
SSC GD 2021
Q81. WHO FOUNDED SAYYID DYNASTY?
(A) KHIZR KHAN
(B) MUBARAK SHAH
(C) MUHAMMAD SHAH
(D) ALAM SHAH
ANSWER: (A) KHIZR KHAN
SSC CGL 2017
Q82. WHO BUILT FIROZ SHAH KOTLA?
(A) BALBAN
(B) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
(C) ALAUDDIN
(D) ILTUTMISH
ANSWER: (B) FIROZ SHAH
SSC GD 2022
Q83. WHO WAS THE FIRST AFGHAN RULER OF DELHI?
(A) SHER SHAH
(B) BAHLOL LODHI
(C) IBRAHIM LODHI
(D) SIKANDAR LODHI
ANSWER: (B) BAHLOL LODHI
SSC MTS 2020
Q84. WHO BUILT SIKANDRA TOMB?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (B) JAHANGIR
SSC GD 2021
Q85. WHO WROTE TUZUK-I-JAHANGIRI?
(A) BABUR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) AKBAR
(D) SHAH JAHAN
ANSWER: (B) JAHANGIR
SSC CHSL 2019
Q86. WHO WAS KNOWN AS “ENGINEER KING”?
(A) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
(B) ALAUDDIN
(C) BALBAN
(D) AKBAR
ANSWER: (A) FIROZ SHAH
SSC GD 2020
Q87. WHO ABOLISHED PILGRIMAGE TAX?
(A) AKBAR
(B) AURANGZEB
(C) BABUR
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (A) AKBAR
SSC CGL 2016
Q88. WHO WAS FOUNDER OF VIJAYANAGAR EMPIRE?
(A) HARIHARA & BUKKA
(B) KRISHNADEVARAYA
(C) DEVARAYA
(D) SANGAMA
ANSWER: (A) HARIHARA & BUKKA
SSC GD 2022
Q89. WHO DEFEATED IBRAHIM LODHI?
(A) AKBAR
(B) BABUR
(C) HUMAYUN
(D) SHER SHAH
ANSWER: (B) BABUR
SSC CHSL 2018
Q90. WHO BUILT CHARMINAR?
(A) QULI QUTB SHAH
(B) AURANGZEB
(C) AKBAR
(D) SHAH JAHAN
ANSWER: (A) QULI QUTB SHAH
SSC MTS 2021
Q91. WHO WAS GREATEST RULER OF VIJAYANAGAR EMPIRE?
(A) HARIHARA
(B) BUKKA
(C) KRISHNADEVARAYA
(D) DEVARAYA
ANSWER: (C) KRISHNADEVARAYA
SSC GD 2020
Q92. WHO WROTE AMUKTAMALYADA?
(A) KRISHNADEVARAYA
(B) TULSIDAS
(C) KABIR
(D) SURDAS
ANSWER: (A) KRISHNADEVARAYA
SSC CGL 2018
Q93. WHO BUILT GOL GUMBAZ?
(A) ADIL SHAH
(B) QULI SHAH
(C) BABUR
(D) AKBAR
ANSWER: (A) ADIL SHAH
SSC GD 2021
Q94. WHO WAS FOUNDER OF BAHMANI KINGDOM?
(A) ALAUDDIN BAHMAN SHAH
(B) MUHAMMAD TUGHLAQ
(C) BABUR
(D) SHER SHAH
ANSWER: (A) ALAUDDIN BAHMAN SHAH
SSC CHSL 2019
Q95. WHO DEFEATED VIJAYANAGAR EMPIRE IN TALIKOTA?
(A) BAHMANI RULERS
(B) DECCAN SULTANATES
(C) MUGHALS
(D) MARATHAS
ANSWER: (B) DECCAN SULTANATES
SSC GD 2022
Q96. WHO WAS LAST RULER OF MUGHAL EMPIRE?
(A) BAHADUR SHAH II
(B) AKBAR II
(C) AURANGZEB
(D) SHAH ALAM
ANSWER: (A) BAHADUR SHAH II
SSC CGL 2015
Q97. WHO BUILT LOTUS MAHAL?
(A) VIJAYANAGAR RULERS
(B) MUGHALS
(C) BAHMANI RULERS
(D) MARATHAS
ANSWER: (A) VIJAYANAGAR
SSC MTS 2022
Q98. WHO WAS KNOWN AS “AKBAR OF KASHMIR”?
(A) ZAIN-UL-ABIDIN
(B) SIKANDAR
(C) SHAH MIR
(D) YUSUF SHAH
ANSWER: (A) ZAIN-UL-ABIDIN
SSC GD 2021
Q99. WHO INTRODUCED CANAL IRRIGATION?
(A) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
(B) AKBAR
(C) SHER SHAH
(D) BABUR
ANSWER: (A) FIROZ SHAH
SSC CHSL 2020
Q100. WHO WAS FOUNDER OF MUGHAL EMPIRE?
(A) BABUR
(B) HUMAYUN
(C) AKBAR
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (A) BABUR
SSC CGL 2015, SSC GD 2019
TOPIC 1: REGIONAL KINGDOMS (RAJPUTS & OTHERS)
Q101. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF THE SISODIA DYNASTY OF MEWAR?
(A) RANA SANGA
(B) BAPPA RAWAL
(C) RANA PRATAP
(D) UDAI SINGH
ANSWER: (B) BAPPA RAWAL
EXPLANATION:
BAPPA RAWAL IS CONSIDERED THE FOUNDER OF THE SISODIA DYNASTY OF MEWAR.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q102. WHO BUILT THE CITY OF UDAIPUR?
(A) RANA SANGA
(B) RANA PRATAP
(C) UDAI SINGH II
(D) BAPPA RAWAL
ANSWER: (C) UDAI SINGH II
EXPLANATION:
UDAIPUR WAS FOUNDED AS THE NEW CAPITAL OF MEWAR.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
Q103. WHO WAS THE CAPITAL OF VIJAYANAGAR EMPIRE?
(A) HAMPI
(B) BIJAPUR
(C) GOLCONDA
(D) MADURAI
ANSWER: (A) HAMPI
EXPLANATION:
HAMPI SERVED AS THE CAPITAL OF VIJAYANAGAR.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2020
Q104. WHO WAS THE FAMOUS RULER OF MEWAR KNOWN FOR RESISTANCE AGAINST MUGHALS?
(A) RANA SANGA
(B) RANA PRATAP
(C) UDAI SINGH
(D) BAPPA RAWAL
ANSWER: (B) RANA PRATAP
EXPLANATION:
HE FOUGHT AGAINST AKBAR, ESPECIALLY IN BATTLE OF HALDIGHATI.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q105. WHO FOUNDED THE MARATHA EMPIRE?
(A) SHIVAJI
(B) SAMBHAJI
(C) BAJIRAO I
(D) BALAJI VISHWANATH
ANSWER: (A) SHIVAJI
EXPLANATION:
SHIVAJI ESTABLISHED AN INDEPENDENT MARATHA KINGDOM.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022, SSC CGL 2018
TOPIC 2: MARATHA ADMINISTRATION & EXPANSION
Q106. WHAT WAS THE COUNCIL OF EIGHT MINISTERS UNDER SHIVAJI CALLED?
(A) SABHA
(B) ASHTAPRADHAN
(C) PANCHAYAT
(D) MANTRIPARISHAD
ANSWER: (B) ASHTAPRADHAN
EXPLANATION:
IT ASSISTED SHIVAJI IN ADMINISTRATION.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q107. WHAT WAS THE TAX COLLECTED BY MARATHAS ON LAND CALLED?
(A) JIZYA
(B) CHAUTH
(C) KHIRAJ
(D) USHR
ANSWER: (B) CHAUTH
EXPLANATION:
CHAUTH WAS 1/4TH REVENUE COLLECTED BY MARATHAS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2020
Q108. WHO WAS THE PESHWA OF SHIVAJI?
(A) BALAJI VISHWANATH
(B) MOROPANT PINGLE
(C) BAJIRAO
(D) NANA PHADNAVIS
ANSWER: (B) MOROPANT PINGLE
EXPLANATION:
HE SERVED AS THE PESHWA UNDER SHIVAJI.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2021
Q109. WHO EXPANDED MARATHA POWER IN NORTH INDIA?
(A) SHIVAJI
(B) SAMBHAJI
(C) BAJIRAO I
(D) RAJARAM
ANSWER: (C) BAJIRAO I
EXPLANATION:
BAJIRAO I GREATLY EXPANDED MARATHA INFLUENCE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 3: SOUTH INDIAN KINGDOMS
Q110. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF THE BAHMANI KINGDOM?
(A) ALAUDDIN BAHMAN SHAH
(B) MUHAMMAD TUGHLAQ
(C) BABUR
(D) SHER SHAH
ANSWER: (A) ALAUDDIN BAHMAN SHAH
EXPLANATION:
HE ESTABLISHED BAHMANI RULE IN DECCAN.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017
Q111. WHICH KINGDOM SUCCEEDED THE BAHMANI KINGDOM?
(A) MUGHAL EMPIRE
(B) DECCAN SULTANATES
(C) VIJAYANAGAR
(D) MARATHAS
ANSWER: (B) DECCAN SULTANATES
EXPLANATION:
BAHMANI SPLIT INTO 5 DECCAN SULTANATES.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q112. GOLCONDA WAS FAMOUS FOR WHICH MINERAL?
(A) GOLD
(B) IRON
(C) DIAMONDS
(D) SILVER
ANSWER: (C) DIAMONDS
EXPLANATION:
GOLCONDA MINES WERE WORLD FAMOUS.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2020
Q113. WHO BUILT MEENAKSHI TEMPLE?
(A) NAYAKS
(B) CHOLAS
(C) PALLAVAS
(D) PANDYAS
ANSWER: (A) NAYAKS
EXPLANATION:
TEMPLE ARCHITECTURE FLOURISHED UNDER NAYAKS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 4: LITERATURE & LANGUAGE
Q114. WHO WROTE “PADMAVAT”?
(A) MALIK MUHAMMAD JAYASI
(B) AMIR KHUSRO
(C) KABIR
(D) TULSIDAS
ANSWER: (A) MALIK MUHAMMAD JAYASI
EXPLANATION:
A FAMOUS SUFI EPIC POEM.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q115. AMIR KHUSRO WAS ASSOCIATED WITH WHICH RULER?
(A) BALBAN
(B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(C) AKBAR
(D) BABUR
ANSWER: (B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS A GREAT POET AND MUSICIAN.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2016
Q116. WHICH LANGUAGE DEVELOPED DURING MEDIEVAL PERIOD FROM SANSKRIT?
(A) URDU
(B) HINDI
(C) PERSIAN
(D) ARABIC
ANSWER: (B) HINDI
EXPLANATION:
MODERN INDIAN LANGUAGES EVOLVED IN MEDIEVAL TIMES.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q117. WHO IS CALLED “PARROT OF INDIA”?
(A) AMIR KHUSRO
(B) KABIR
(C) TULSIDAS
(D) KALIDASA
ANSWER: (A) AMIR KHUSRO
EXPLANATION:
DUE TO HIS POETIC BRILLIANCE.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 5: RELIGION & SOCIETY
Q118. WHO FOUNDED LINGAYAT MOVEMENT?
(A) BASAVA
(B) KABIR
(C) NANAK
(D) RAMANANDA
ANSWER: (A) BASAVA
EXPLANATION:
PROMOTED EQUALITY AND ANTI-CASTE IDEAS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2020
Q119. SIKH HOLY BOOK IS CALLED?
(A) VEDAS
(B) QURAN
(C) GURU GRANTH SAHIB
(D) BIBLE
ANSWER: (C) GURU GRANTH SAHIB
EXPLANATION:
SACRED SCRIPTURE OF SIKHISM.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q120. WHO COMPILED GURU GRANTH SAHIB?
(A) GURU NANAK
(B) GURU ARJAN DEV
(C) GURU GOBIND SINGH
(D) GURU TEGH BAHADUR
ANSWER: (B) GURU ARJAN DEV
EXPLANATION:
HE COMPILED SIKH SCRIPTURES.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 6: IMPORTANT MISCELLANEOUS FACTS
Q121. WHO WAS THE FIRST SIKH GURU?
(A) GURU GOBIND SINGH
(B) GURU NANAK
(C) GURU ARJAN
(D) GURU RAM DAS
ANSWER: (B) GURU NANAK
EXPLANATION:
FOUNDER OF SIKHISM.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2015, SSC GD 2021
Q122. WHO WAS THE TENTH SIKH GURU?
(A) GURU NANAK
(B) GURU ARJAN
(C) GURU GOBIND SINGH
(D) GURU TEGH BAHADUR
ANSWER: (C) GURU GOBIND SINGH
EXPLANATION:
HE FOUNDED KHALSA.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2020
Q123. WHAT WAS THE CAPITAL OF BAHMANI KINGDOM?
(A) GOLCONDA
(B) GULBARGA
(C) BIJAPUR
(D) HAMPI
ANSWER: (B) GULBARGA
EXPLANATION:
LATER SHIFTED TO BIDAR.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q124. WHO INTRODUCED PERSIAN LITERATURE IN INDIA?
(A) BABUR
(B) ILTUTMISH
(C) ALAUDDIN
(D) BALBAN
ANSWER: (B) ILTUTMISH
EXPLANATION:
PROMOTED PERSIAN CULTURE.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q125. WHICH MUGHAL RULER WAS CONTEMPORARY OF QUEEN ELIZABETH I?
(A) BABUR
(B) HUMAYUN
(C) AKBAR
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (C) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
THEY RULED DURING THE SAME PERIOD.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 1: DELHI SULTANATE (RARE FACTS)
Q126. WHO WAS THE FIRST RULER TO INTRODUCE REVENUE FARMING (IJARA SYSTEM)?
(A) ILTUTMISH
(B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(C) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
(D) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
ANSWER: (C) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION:
HE INTRODUCED IJARA SYSTEM (REVENUE FARMING), WHICH LATER CAUSED CORRUPTION.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q127. WHICH SULTAN CALLED HIMSELF “SHADOW OF GOD” (ZIL-I-ILAHI)?
(A) ILTUTMISH
(B) BALBAN
(C) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(D) FIROZ SHAH
ANSWER: (B) BALBAN
EXPLANATION:
BALBAN EMPHASIZED DIVINE KINGSHIP.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2019
Q128. WHO INTRODUCED THE PRACTICE OF SIJDA AND PAIBOS?
(A) ILTUTMISH
(B) BALBAN
(C) ALAUDDIN
(D) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
ANSWER: (B) BALBAN
EXPLANATION:
THESE WERE COURT RITUALS SHOWING RESPECT TO SULTAN.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2020
Q129. WHO ESTABLISHED DIWAN-I-KOHI?
(A) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(B) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
(C) FIROZ SHAH
(D) BALBAN
ANSWER: (B) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS AN AGRICULTURAL DEPARTMENT.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q130. WHICH SULTAN WROTE HIS AUTOBIOGRAPHY “FUTUHAT-I-FIROZSHAHI”?
(A) BALBAN
(B) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
(C) ALAUDDIN
(D) ILTUTMISH
ANSWER: (B) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION:
IT DESCRIBES HIS ACHIEVEMENTS.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 2: MUGHAL EMPIRE (RARE FACTS)
Q131. WHO TRANSLATED MAHABHARATA INTO PERSIAN (RAZMNAMA)?
(A) ABUL FAZL
(B) BADAUNI
(C) FAIZI
(D) BIRBAL
ANSWER: (B) BADAUNI
EXPLANATION:
TRANSLATION WAS DONE DURING AKBAR’S REIGN.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2018
Q132. WHO ABOLISHED THE PRACTICE OF SLAVERY?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (A) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
AKBAR TOOK STEPS TO REDUCE SLAVERY.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2023
Q133. WHO INTRODUCED CHAIN OF JUSTICE (ZANJIR-I-ADL)?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (B) JAHANGIR
EXPLANATION:
PEOPLE COULD SEEK JUSTICE DIRECTLY.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q134. WHO BANNED WINE DRINKING IN MUGHAL COURT?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (D) AURANGZEB
EXPLANATION:
AURANGZEB FOLLOWED STRICT ISLAMIC LAWS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q135. WHO WAS THE MOTHER OF SHAH JAHAN?
(A) MUMTAZ MAHAL
(B) NUR JAHAN
(C) JAGAT GOSAIN
(D) HAMIDA BANU BEGUM
ANSWER: (C) JAGAT GOSAIN
EXPLANATION:
SHE WAS ALSO CALLED JODH BAI.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
TOPIC 3: BHAKTI & SUFI (RARE FACTS)
Q136. WHO WAS THE GURU OF GURU NANAK?
(A) RAMANANDA
(B) KABIR
(C) NO HUMAN GURU
(D) TULSIDAS
ANSWER: (C) NO HUMAN GURU
EXPLANATION:
GURU NANAK BELIEVED GOD AS THE ONLY GURU.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q137. WHICH BHAKTI SAINT WAS BLIND?
(A) KABIR
(B) SURDAS
(C) TULSIDAS
(D) MIRABAI
ANSWER: (B) SURDAS
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS A BLIND DEVOTEE OF KRISHNA.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q138. WHO INTRODUCED QAWWALI IN INDIA?
(A) AMIR KHUSRO
(B) NIZAMUDDIN AULIYA
(C) BABA FARID
(D) KABIR
ANSWER: (A) AMIR KHUSRO
EXPLANATION:
HE POPULARIZED QAWWALI MUSIC.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q139. WHICH SUFI SAINT LIVED IN DELHI?
(A) MOINUDDIN CHISHTI
(B) NIZAMUDDIN AULIYA
(C) BABA FARID
(D) BANDE NAWAZ
ANSWER: (B) NIZAMUDDIN AULIYA
EXPLANATION:
HIS DARGAH IS IN DELHI.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2020
Q140. WHICH BHAKTI SAINT WAS FROM MAHARASHTRA?
(A) KABIR
(B) TUKARAM
(C) RAMANANDA
(D) CHAITANYA
ANSWER: (B) TUKARAM
EXPLANATION:
IMPORTANT SAINT OF VARKARI TRADITION.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
TOPIC 4: REGIONAL & DECCAN STATES
Q141. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF ADIL SHAHI DYNASTY?
(A) YUSUF ADIL SHAH
(B) IBRAHIM ADIL SHAH
(C) ALI ADIL SHAH
(D) MUHAMMAD ADIL SHAH
ANSWER: (A) YUSUF ADIL SHAH
EXPLANATION:
HE ESTABLISHED BIJAPUR KINGDOM.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017
Q142. BIJAPUR IS LOCATED IN WHICH PRESENT STATE?
(A) MAHARASHTRA
(B) KARNATAKA
(C) TELANGANA
(D) ANDHRA PRADESH
ANSWER: (B) KARNATAKA
EXPLANATION:
IMPORTANT DECCAN SULTANATE REGION.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q143. WHO WAS FOUNDER OF QUTUB SHAHI DYNASTY?
(A) QULI QUTB SHAH
(B) IBRAHIM QUTB SHAH
(C) MUHAMMAD QUTB SHAH
(D) ABDULLAH QUTB SHAH
ANSWER: (A) QULI QUTB SHAH
EXPLANATION:
FOUNDED GOLCONDA SULTANATE.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q144. WARANGAL WAS CAPITAL OF WHICH KINGDOM?
(A) KAKATIYA
(B) CHOLA
(C) PALLAVA
(D) PANDYA
ANSWER: (A) KAKATIYA
EXPLANATION:
IMPORTANT SOUTH INDIAN KINGDOM.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2020
TOPIC 5: LITERATURE & CULTURE (RARE)
Q145. WHO WROTE “KITAB-UL-HIND”?
(A) AL-BIRUNI
(B) IBN BATTUTA
(C) AMIR KHUSRO
(D) BADAUNI
ANSWER: (A) AL-BIRUNI
EXPLANATION:
BOOK ON INDIAN CULTURE AND SOCIETY.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2016
Q146. IBN BATTUTA VISITED INDIA DURING WHOSE REIGN?
(A) BALBAN
(B) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
(C) ALAUDDIN
(D) ILTUTMISH
ANSWER: (B) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS A MOROCCAN TRAVELER.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q147. WHO WROTE “TARIKH-I-FIROZSHAHI”?
(A) ZIAUDDIN BARANI
(B) AMIR KHUSRO
(C) BADAUNI
(D) ABUL FAZL
ANSWER: (A) ZIAUDDIN BARANI
EXPLANATION:
IMPORTANT HISTORICAL TEXT.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q148. WHICH MUGHAL RULER WAS FOND OF PAINTING?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (B) JAHANGIR
EXPLANATION:
HE ENCOURAGED MUGHAL PAINTINGS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 6: FINAL MISCELLANEOUS
Q149. WHO WAS THE LAST RULER OF TUGHLAQ DYNASTY?
(A) FIROZ SHAH
(B) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
(C) NASIR-UD-DIN MAHMUD
(D) GHIYASUDDIN
ANSWER: (C) NASIR-UD-DIN MAHMUD
EXPLANATION:
LAST RULER BEFORE SAYYID DYNASTY.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
Q150. WHO WAS THE FIRST RULER TO INVADE INDIA FROM CENTRAL ASIA?
(A) BABUR
(B) MAHMUD OF GHAZNI
(C) MUHAMMAD GHORI
(D) TIMUR
ANSWER: (B) MAHMUD OF GHAZNI
EXPLANATION:
HE INVADED INDIA MULTIPLE TIMES.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
TOPIC 1: DELHI SULTANATE (ULTRA-RARE FACTS)
Q151. WHAT WAS THE NAME OF ALAUDDIN KHILJI’S PRICE CONTROL MARKET FOR GRAINS?
(A) SHAHANA-I-MANDI
(B) DIWAN-I-RIYASAT
(C) SARAI ADL
(D) MANDI BAZAAR
ANSWER: (A) SHAHANA-I-MANDI
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS THE GRAIN MARKET UNDER STRICT PRICE CONTROL POLICY.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q152. WHO WAS THE HEAD OF MARKET CONTROL DEPARTMENT UNDER ALAUDDIN KHILJI?
(A) DIWAN-I-ARZ
(B) SHAHNA-I-MANDI
(C) MUHTASIB
(D) WAZIR
ANSWER: (B) SHAHNA-I-MANDI
EXPLANATION:
HE SUPERVISED MARKET REGULATIONS.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q153. WHAT WAS THE LAND TAX CALLED DURING DELHI SULTANATE?
(A) ZAKAT
(B) KHIRAJ
(C) USHR
(D) JIZYA
ANSWER: (B) KHIRAJ
EXPLANATION:
KHIRAJ WAS THE LAND REVENUE TAX.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q154. WHAT WAS THE TAX ON NON-MUSLIMS CALLED?
(A) KHIRAJ
(B) USHR
(C) ZAKAT
(D) JIZYA
ANSWER: (D) JIZYA
EXPLANATION:
LEVIED ON NON-MUSLIM SUBJECTS.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2016, SSC GD 2022
Q155. WHAT WAS THE TAX ON MUSLIMS CALLED?
(A) JIZYA
(B) ZAKAT
(C) KHIRAJ
(D) USHR
ANSWER: (B) ZAKAT
EXPLANATION:
RELIGIOUS TAX PAID BY MUSLIMS.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
TOPIC 2: MUGHAL EMPIRE (ULTRA-DETAILS)
Q156. WHAT WAS THE OFFICIAL LANGUAGE OF MUGHAL COURT?
(A) HINDI
(B) PERSIAN
(C) ARABIC
(D) URDU
ANSWER: (B) PERSIAN
EXPLANATION:
PERSIAN WAS WIDELY USED IN ADMINISTRATION.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q157. WHAT WAS THE REVENUE SYSTEM OF AKBAR KNOWN AS?
(A) ZABTI
(B) IQTA
(C) JAGIR
(D) RYOTWARI
ANSWER: (A) ZABTI
EXPLANATION:
LAND REVENUE SYSTEM BASED ON MEASUREMENT.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2018
Q158. WHAT WAS THE RANK GIVEN UNDER MANSABDARI SYSTEM CALLED?
(A) JAGIR
(B) MANSAB
(C) IQTA
(D) KHALSA
ANSWER: (B) MANSAB
EXPLANATION:
IT INDICATED RANK AND SALARY.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
Q159. WHAT WAS THE ROYAL ORDER OF MUGHAL EMPEROR CALLED?
(A) FARMAN
(B) SANAD
(C) NISHAN
(D) PARWANA
ANSWER: (A) FARMAN
EXPLANATION:
OFFICIAL DECREE ISSUED BY EMPEROR.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2020
Q160. WHAT WAS LAND DIRECTLY UNDER STATE CONTROL CALLED?
(A) JAGIR
(B) KHALISA
(C) INAM
(D) IQTA
ANSWER: (B) KHALISA
EXPLANATION:
REVENUE WENT DIRECTLY TO ROYAL TREASURY.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
TOPIC 3: BHAKTI & SUFI (CONCEPTUAL)
Q161. WHAT WAS THE MAIN AIM OF BHAKTI MOVEMENT?
(A) SPREAD ISLAM
(B) PROMOTE RITUALS
(C) DEVOTION TO GOD
(D) POLITICAL POWER
ANSWER: (C) DEVOTION TO GOD
EXPLANATION:
FOCUSED ON PERSONAL DEVOTION AND EQUALITY.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q162. WHAT WAS THE MAIN TEACHING OF SUFISM?
(A) WEALTH ACCUMULATION
(B) LOVE AND DEVOTION TO GOD
(C) POLITICAL CONTROL
(D) MILITARY EXPANSION
ANSWER: (B) LOVE AND DEVOTION TO GOD
EXPLANATION:
EMPHASIZED SPIRITUAL CONNECTION WITH GOD.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q163. WHICH BHAKTI SAINT OPPOSED CASTE SYSTEM?
(A) KABIR
(B) SURDAS
(C) TULSIDAS
(D) CHAITANYA
ANSWER: (A) KABIR
EXPLANATION:
HE PREACHED EQUALITY.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2020
Q164. WHICH SUFI ORDER WAS MOST POPULAR IN INDIA?
(A) SUHRAWARDI
(B) CHISHTI
(C) QADIRI
(D) NAQSHBANDI
ANSWER: (B) CHISHTI
EXPLANATION:
FOCUSED ON LOVE AND TOLERANCE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 4: ECONOMY & TRADE
Q165. WHAT WAS THE MAIN SOURCE OF INCOME IN MEDIEVAL INDIA?
(A) TRADE
(B) AGRICULTURE
(C) INDUSTRY
(D) MINING
ANSWER: (B) AGRICULTURE
EXPLANATION:
ECONOMY WAS AGRARIAN.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q166. WHICH PORT WAS FAMOUS FOR TRADE DURING MUGHAL PERIOD?
(A) SURAT
(B) CALICUT
(C) MADRAS
(D) BOMBAY
ANSWER: (A) SURAT
EXPLANATION:
MAJOR TRADING PORT.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2020
Q167. WHICH FOREIGN TRAVELERS VISITED INDIA IN MEDIEVAL PERIOD?
(A) IBN BATTUTA
(B) MARCO POLO
(C) BOTH A & B
(D) NONE
ANSWER: (C) BOTH A & B
EXPLANATION:
BOTH VISITED INDIA AT DIFFERENT TIMES.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 5: ART, MUSIC & CULTURE
Q168. WHO WAS THE FAMOUS MUSICIAN IN AKBAR’S COURT?
(A) BIRBAL
(B) TANSEN
(C) TODAR MAL
(D) FAIZI
ANSWER: (B) TANSEN
EXPLANATION:
ONE OF THE NAVRATNAS.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2016
Q169. WHAT STYLE OF PAINTING FLOURISHED UNDER MUGHALS?
(A) RAJPUT
(B) MUGHAL
(C) PAHARI
(D) DECCAN
ANSWER: (B) MUGHAL
EXPLANATION:
BLEND OF PERSIAN AND INDIAN STYLES.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q170. WHICH INSTRUMENT WAS ASSOCIATED WITH TANSEN?
(A) TABLA
(B) VEENA
(C) SITAR
(D) FLUTE
ANSWER: (B) VEENA
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS MASTER OF CLASSICAL MUSIC.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 6: FINAL RARE FACTS
Q171. WHO WAS THE FIRST MUGHAL EMPEROR TO ENTER INDIA?
(A) BABUR
(B) HUMAYUN
(C) AKBAR
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (A) BABUR
EXPLANATION:
HE INVADED INDIA IN 1526.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2020
Q172. WHICH DYNASTY RULED BEFORE MUGHALS?
(A) LODHI
(B) SAYYID
(C) TUGHLAQ
(D) SLAVE
ANSWER: (A) LODHI
EXPLANATION:
IBRAHIM LODHI WAS LAST SULTAN.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q173. WHICH DYNASTY WAS FIRST OF DELHI SULTANATE?
(A) SLAVE DYNASTY
(B) KHILJI
(C) TUGHLAQ
(D) LODHI
ANSWER: (A) SLAVE DYNASTY
EXPLANATION:
ALSO CALLED MAMLUK DYNASTY.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q174. WHAT IS ANOTHER NAME OF SLAVE DYNASTY?
(A) KHALJI
(B) TUGHLAQ
(C) MAMLUK
(D) SAYYID
ANSWER: (C) MAMLUK
EXPLANATION:
SLAVE RULERS WERE CALLED MAMLUKS.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2020
Q175. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR DIED IN 1707?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) AURANGZEB
(D) SHAH JAHAN
ANSWER: (C) AURANGZEB
EXPLANATION:
HIS DEATH MARKED DECLINE OF MUGHAL EMPIRE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 1: DELHI SULTANATE (DEEP FACTS)
Q176. WHICH SULTAN SEPARATED RELIGION FROM POLITICS?
(A) BALBAN
(B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(C) ILTUTMISH
(D) FIROZ SHAH
ANSWER: (B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
EXPLANATION:
HE DECLARED THAT STATE POLICIES WERE NOT BASED ON RELIGION BUT ON POLITICAL NECESSITY.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q177. WHO AMONG THE FOLLOWING SULTANS WAS ILLITERATE?
(A) ILTUTMISH
(B) BALBAN
(C) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(D) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
ANSWER: (C) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
EXPLANATION:
DESPITE BEING ILLITERATE, HE WAS A STRONG ADMINISTRATOR.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q178. WHICH SULTAN INTRODUCED THE SYSTEM OF “BARID” (INTELLIGENCE)?
(A) BALBAN
(B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(C) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
(D) ILTUTMISH
ANSWER: (B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
EXPLANATION:
BARID SYSTEM ENSURED EFFECTIVE INTELLIGENCE NETWORK.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q179. WHO WAS KNOWN AS “PRINCE OF SLAVES”?
(A) QUTB-UD-DIN AIBAK
(B) ILTUTMISH
(C) BALBAN
(D) RAZIA
ANSWER: (A) QUTB-UD-DIN AIBAK
EXPLANATION:
HE ROSE FROM SLAVERY TO SULTAN.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q180. WHICH SULTAN CONSTRUCTED THE ALAI MINAR?
(A) ILTUTMISH
(B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(C) BALBAN
(D) FIROZ SHAH
ANSWER: (B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
EXPLANATION:
IT REMAINED INCOMPLETE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 2: MUGHAL EMPIRE (DEEP FACTS)
Q181. WHO GRANTED PERMISSION TO BRITISH EAST INDIA COMPANY TO TRADE IN INDIA?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (B) JAHANGIR
EXPLANATION:
HE ALLOWED ENGLISH TRADERS TO ESTABLISH FACTORIES.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017, SSC GD 2021
Q182. WHO INTRODUCED “DAHSALA SYSTEM”?
(A) SHER SHAH
(B) AKBAR
(C) JAHANGIR
(D) SHAH JAHAN
ANSWER: (B) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
BASED ON 10-YEAR AVERAGE PRODUCTION.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2020
Q183. WHAT WAS THE MEANING OF “ZAT” IN MANSABDARI SYSTEM?
(A) SALARY
(B) RANK
(C) LAND
(D) ARMY
ANSWER: (B) RANK
EXPLANATION:
IT INDICATED PERSONAL RANK OF OFFICER.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q184. WHAT WAS “SAWAR” IN MANSABDARI SYSTEM?
(A) REVENUE
(B) RANK
(C) CAVALRY NUMBER
(D) LAND GRANT
ANSWER: (C) CAVALRY NUMBER
EXPLANATION:
NUMBER OF HORSES MAINTAINED.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q185. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR WAS KNOWN AS “SHAH-I-BEKHABAR”?
(A) AKBAR
(B) BAHADUR SHAH I
(C) SHAH ALAM II
(D) JAHANDAR SHAH
ANSWER: (C) SHAH ALAM II
EXPLANATION:
HE HAD LITTLE REAL POWER.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 3: BHAKTI & SUFI (ADVANCED)
Q186. WHICH SAINT IS KNOWN AS FATHER OF HINDI LITERATURE?
(A) KABIR
(B) TULSIDAS
(C) AMIR KHUSRO
(D) SURDAS
ANSWER: (C) AMIR KHUSRO
EXPLANATION:
HE CONTRIBUTED TO DEVELOPMENT OF HINDI.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2016
Q187. WHICH BHAKTI SAINT WAS A DISCIPLE OF RAMANANDA AND PREACHED NIRGUNA BHAKTI?
(A) KABIR
(B) SURDAS
(C) MIRABAI
(D) TUKARAM
ANSWER: (A) KABIR
EXPLANATION:
FOCUSED ON FORMLESS GOD.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q188. WHICH SUFI SAINT INTRODUCED SAMA (MUSIC)?
(A) NIZAMUDDIN AULIYA
(B) MOINUDDIN CHISHTI
(C) AMIR KHUSRO
(D) BABA FARID
ANSWER: (C) AMIR KHUSRO
EXPLANATION:
USED MUSIC FOR SPIRITUAL CONNECTION.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 4: REGIONAL KINGDOMS (ADVANCED)
Q189. WHICH RULER BUILT RAIGAD FORT?
(A) SHIVAJI
(B) SAMBHAJI
(C) BAJIRAO
(D) RAJARAM
ANSWER: (A) SHIVAJI
EXPLANATION:
IT BECAME CAPITAL OF MARATHA EMPIRE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q190. WHAT WAS SHIVAJI’S CORONATION TITLE?
(A) MAHARAJ
(B) CHHATRAPATI
(C) RAJA
(D) PESHWA
ANSWER: (B) CHHATRAPATI
EXPLANATION:
HE ASSUMED TITLE IN 1674.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q191. WHO WAS LAST RULER OF VIJAYANAGAR EMPIRE?
(A) KRISHNADEVARAYA
(B) SADASIVA RAYA
(C) RAMA RAYA
(D) HARIHARA
ANSWER: (B) SADASIVA RAYA
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS NOMINAL RULER DURING DECLINE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
TOPIC 5: LITERATURE & CULTURE (ADVANCED)
Q192. WHO WROTE “AKBARNAMA”?
(A) ABUL FAZL
(B) BADAUNI
(C) FAIZI
(D) BIRBAL
ANSWER: (A) ABUL FAZL
EXPLANATION:
OFFICIAL HISTORY OF AKBAR.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017, SSC CHSL 2019
Q193. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR BANNED MUSIC IN COURT?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (D) AURANGZEB
EXPLANATION:
HE DISCOURAGED MUSIC.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2020
Q194. WHO WROTE “BABURNAMA”?
(A) BABUR
(B) HUMAYUN
(C) AKBAR
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (A) BABUR
EXPLANATION:
AUTOBIOGRAPHY OF BABUR.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 6:EXTREME FACTS
Q195. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF SAYYID DYNASTY?
(A) KHIZR KHAN
(B) MUBARAK SHAH
(C) MUHAMMAD SHAH
(D) ALAM SHAH
ANSWER: (A) KHIZR KHAN
EXPLANATION:
FOUNDED SAYYID RULE AFTER TUGHLAQS.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017
Q196. WHICH SULTAN WAS CALLED “LAKH BAKSH”?
(A) AIBAK
(B) ILTUTMISH
(C) BALBAN
(D) ALAUDDIN
ANSWER: (A) AIBAK
EXPLANATION:
DUE TO GENEROSITY.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q197. WHO DESTROYED VIJAYANAGAR EMPIRE FINALLY?
(A) BAHMANI RULERS
(B) DECCAN SULTANATES
(C) MUGHALS
(D) MARATHAS
ANSWER: (B) DECCAN SULTANATES
EXPLANATION:
AFTER BATTLE OF TALIKOTA (1565).
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q198. WHO WAS LAST RULER OF LODHI DYNASTY?
(A) SIKANDAR LODHI
(B) IBRAHIM LODHI
(C) BAHLOL LODHI
(D) DAULAT KHAN
ANSWER: (B) IBRAHIM LODHI
EXPLANATION:
DEFEATED BY BABUR.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q199. WHO WAS FOUNDER OF MUGHAL EMPIRE?
(A) BABUR
(B) HUMAYUN
(C) AKBAR
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (A) BABUR
EXPLANATION:
ESTABLISHED MUGHAL RULE IN 1526.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2015, SSC GD 2019
Q200. WHICH BATTLE MARKED BEGINNING OF MUGHAL RULE?
(A) PANIPAT I
(B) PANIPAT II
(C) KHANWA
(D) PLASSEY
ANSWER: (A) PANIPAT I
EXPLANATION:
BABUR DEFEATED IBRAHIM LODHI.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 1: DELHI SULTANATE (EXTREME DETAIL)
Q201. WHO AMONG THE FOLLOWING SULTANS WAS KNOWN AS “DARVESH KING”?
(A) BALBAN
(B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(C) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
(D) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
ANSWER: (D) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS KNOWN FOR HIS SIMPLE AND RELIGIOUS LIFE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q202. WHICH SULTAN ESTABLISHED DIWAN-I-BANDAGAN (DEPARTMENT OF SLAVES)?
(A) BALBAN
(B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(C) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
(D) ILTUTMISH
ANSWER: (C) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION:
HE MAINTAINED A LARGE NUMBER OF SLAVES.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q203. WHO BUILT THE CITY OF FIROZABAD?
(A) BALBAN
(B) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
(C) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(D) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
ANSWER: (B) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION:
HE ESTABLISHED SEVERAL CITIES INCLUDING FIROZABAD.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q204. WHICH SULTAN INTRODUCED THE PRACTICE OF HEREDITARY SUCCESSION OF IQTA?
(A) ILTUTMISH
(B) BALBAN
(C) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
(D) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
ANSWER: (C) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION:
THIS WEAKENED CENTRAL AUTHORITY.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2020
Q205. WHO WROTE “FATWA-I-JAHANDARI”?
(A) ZIAUDDIN BARANI
(B) AMIR KHUSRO
(C) ABUL FAZL
(D) BADAUNI
ANSWER: (A) ZIAUDDIN BARANI
EXPLANATION:
IT CONTAINS POLITICAL IDEAS OF DELHI SULTANATE.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2018
TOPIC 2: MUGHAL EMPIRE (EXTREME DETAIL)
Q206. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR IS KNOWN AS “PRINCE SALIM”?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (B) JAHANGIR
EXPLANATION:
BEFORE BECOMING EMPEROR, HE WAS PRINCE SALIM.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q207. WHO CONSTRUCTED MOTI MASJID IN AGRA?
(A) AKBAR
(B) SHAH JAHAN
(C) AURANGZEB
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (B) SHAH JAHAN
EXPLANATION:
A BEAUTIFUL WHITE MARBLE MOSQUE.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q208. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR SHIFTED CAPITAL TO SHAHJAHANABAD?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (C) SHAH JAHAN
EXPLANATION:
HE BUILT SHAHJAHANABAD (OLD DELHI).
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q209. WHO WAS THE ELDEST SON OF SHAH JAHAN?
(A) AURANGZEB
(B) DARA SHIKOH
(C) SHAH SHUJA
(D) MURAD
ANSWER: (B) DARA SHIKOH
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS HEIR APPARENT BUT DEFEATED.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
Q210. WHO TRANSLATED UPANISHADS INTO PERSIAN?
(A) AKBAR
(B) DARA SHIKOH
(C) ABUL FAZL
(D) FAIZI
ANSWER: (B) DARA SHIKOH
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS INTERESTED IN HINDU PHILOSOPHY.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 3: BHAKTI & SUFI (EXTREME)
Q211. WHICH SAINT WROTE “BIJAK”?
(A) KABIR
(B) TULSIDAS
(C) SURDAS
(D) MIRABAI
ANSWER: (A) KABIR
EXPLANATION:
COLLECTION OF KABIR’S TEACHINGS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q212. WHICH BHAKTI SAINT WAS A RAJPUT PRINCESS?
(A) MIRABAI
(B) SURDAS
(C) KABIR
(D) TUKARAM
ANSWER: (A) MIRABAI
EXPLANATION:
SHE WAS DEVOTED TO KRISHNA.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q213. WHICH SUFI SAINT WAS KNOWN AS “MAHBOOB-E-ILAHI”?
(A) MOINUDDIN CHISHTI
(B) NIZAMUDDIN AULIYA
(C) BABA FARID
(D) KHUSRO
ANSWER: (B) NIZAMUDDIN AULIYA
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS GREATLY RESPECTED IN DELHI.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
TOPIC 4: REGIONAL KINGDOMS (EXTREME)
Q214. WHICH MARATHA RULER SIGNED TREATY OF PURANDAR?
(A) SHIVAJI
(B) SAMBHAJI
(C) BAJIRAO
(D) RAJARAM
ANSWER: (A) SHIVAJI
EXPLANATION:
SIGNED WITH JAI SINGH OF MUGHALS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q215. WHO SUCCEEDED SHIVAJI?
(A) SAMBHAJI
(B) RAJARAM
(C) BAJIRAO
(D) SHAHU
ANSWER: (A) SAMBHAJI
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS SHIVAJI’S SON.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q216. WHICH KINGDOM WAS FAMOUS FOR NAVAL POWER IN MEDIEVAL INDIA?
(A) MARATHAS
(B) MUGHALS
(C) DELHI SULTANATE
(D) VIJAYANAGAR
ANSWER: (A) MARATHAS
EXPLANATION:
SHIVAJI DEVELOPED STRONG NAVY.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
TOPIC 5: CULTURE & ADMINISTRATION (EXTREME)
Q217. WHAT WAS THE VILLAGE HEAD CALLED IN MUGHAL ADMINISTRATION?
(A) PATWARI
(B) MUQADDAM
(C) QAZI
(D) KOTWAL
ANSWER: (B) MUQADDAM
EXPLANATION:
VILLAGE HEADMAN RESPONSIBLE FOR REVENUE.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
Q218. WHAT WAS THE DUTY OF KOTWAL?
(A) REVENUE COLLECTION
(B) POLICE ADMINISTRATION
(C) MILITARY CONTROL
(D) JUDICIARY
ANSWER: (B) POLICE ADMINISTRATION
EXPLANATION:
MAINTAINED LAW AND ORDER.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2020
Q219. WHAT WAS THE ROLE OF QAZI?
(A) JUDGE
(B) SOLDIER
(C) TAX COLLECTOR
(D) MINISTER
ANSWER: (A) JUDGE
EXPLANATION:
HANDLED JUDICIAL MATTERS.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
TOPIC 6: FINAL EXTREME FACTS
Q220. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR WAS KNOWN AS “ALAMGIR”?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) AURANGZEB
(D) SHAH JAHAN
ANSWER: (C) AURANGZEB
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS HIS TITLE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q221. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF KHALSA?
(A) GURU NANAK
(B) GURU ARJAN
(C) GURU GOBIND SINGH
(D) GURU TEGH BAHADUR
ANSWER: (C) GURU GOBIND SINGH
EXPLANATION:
FOUNDED KHALSA IN 1699.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017
Q222. WHICH SIKH GURU WAS EXECUTED BY AURANGZEB?
(A) GURU NANAK
(B) GURU ARJAN DEV
(C) GURU TEGH BAHADUR
(D) GURU GOBIND SINGH
ANSWER: (C) GURU TEGH BAHADUR
EXPLANATION:
EXECUTED FOR DEFENDING RELIGIOUS FREEDOM.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q223. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF SIKHISM?
(A) GURU GOBIND SINGH
(B) GURU NANAK
(C) GURU ARJAN
(D) GURU RAM DAS
ANSWER: (B) GURU NANAK
EXPLANATION:
HE STARTED SIKH RELIGION.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q224. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR DIED IN AHMEDNAGAR?
(A) AURANGZEB
(B) AKBAR
(C) JAHANGIR
(D) SHAH JAHAN
ANSWER: (A) AURANGZEB
EXPLANATION:
HE DIED IN 1707.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q225. WHICH BATTLE ENDED THE MUGHAL EMPIRE’S EXPANSION?
(A) PANIPAT I
(B) PANIPAT II
(C) HALDIGHATI
(D) NONE
ANSWER: (D) NONE
EXPLANATION:
EXPANSION SLOWED GRADUALLY, NO SINGLE BATTLE ENDED IT.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 1: DELHI SULTANATE (FINAL COVERAGE)
Q226. WHICH SULTAN INTRODUCED THE SYSTEM OF “NASQ” IN REVENUE COLLECTION?
(A) ILTUTMISH
(B) BALBAN
(C) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(D) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
ANSWER: (D) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION:
NASQ SYSTEM INVOLVED ESTIMATION OF REVENUE WITHOUT MEASUREMENT.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q227. WHICH SULTAN ABOLISHED THE IQTA SYSTEM TEMPORARILY?
(A) ILTUTMISH
(B) BALBAN
(C) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(D) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
ANSWER: (C) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
EXPLANATION:
HE BROUGHT LAND UNDER DIRECT STATE CONTROL.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q228. WHICH SULTAN IMPOSED HEAVY TAXATION IN DOAB REGION?
(A) BALBAN
(B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(C) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
(D) FIROZ SHAH
ANSWER: (C) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION:
IT LED TO REVOLT DUE TO FAMINE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q229. WHICH SULTAN WAS KNOWN FOR CANAL CONSTRUCTION?
(A) ALAUDDIN
(B) BALBAN
(C) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
(D) ILTUTMISH
ANSWER: (C) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION:
HE BUILT CANALS FOR IRRIGATION.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
TOPIC 2: MUGHAL EMPIRE (FINAL COVERAGE)
Q230. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR ISSUED COINS WITH ZODIAC SIGNS?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (B) JAHANGIR
EXPLANATION:
ZODIAC COINS WERE UNIQUE FEATURE OF JAHANGIR.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q231. WHO WAS THE COURT HISTORIAN OF AURANGZEB?
(A) ABUL FAZL
(B) BADAUNI
(C) KHAFI KHAN
(D) FAIZI
ANSWER: (C) KHAFI KHAN
EXPLANATION:
HE WROTE HISTORY OF AURANGZEB’S REIGN.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q232. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR BUILT BIBI KA MAQBARA?
(A) SHAH JAHAN
(B) AURANGZEB
(C) JAHANGIR
(D) AKBAR
ANSWER: (B) AURANGZEB
EXPLANATION:
BUILT IN MEMORY OF HIS WIFE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q233. WHO WAS THE LAST POWERFUL MUGHAL EMPEROR?
(A) AURANGZEB
(B) BAHADUR SHAH I
(C) SHAH ALAM II
(D) AKBAR II
ANSWER: (A) AURANGZEB
EXPLANATION:
AFTER HIM, EMPIRE DECLINED.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017
TOPIC 3: BHAKTI & SUFI (FINAL COVERAGE)
Q234. WHICH BHAKTI SAINT WAS KNOWN AS “ADI GURU”?
(A) KABIR
(B) GURU NANAK
(C) SHANKARACHARYA
(D) RAMANANDA
ANSWER: (C) SHANKARACHARYA
EXPLANATION:
HE REVIVED HINDU PHILOSOPHY.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q235. WHICH SAINT PROPAGATED DVAITA PHILOSOPHY?
(A) SHANKARACHARYA
(B) RAMANUJA
(C) MADHVACHARYA
(D) CHAITANYA
ANSWER: (C) MADHVACHARYA
EXPLANATION:
HE ADVOCATED DUALISM.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q236. WHICH BHAKTI SAINT BELONGED TO TAMIL NADU?
(A) ALVARS
(B) NAYANARS
(C) BOTH A & B
(D) KABIR
ANSWER: (C) BOTH A & B
EXPLANATION:
BOTH WERE TAMIL BHAKTI SAINTS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 4: REGIONAL STATES (FINAL COVERAGE)
Q237. WHICH MARATHA RULER INTRODUCED GUERRILLA WARFARE?
(A) SHIVAJI
(B) SAMBHAJI
(C) BAJIRAO
(D) RAJARAM
ANSWER: (A) SHIVAJI
EXPLANATION:
USED HIT-AND-RUN TACTICS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q238. WHICH KINGDOM WAS FAMOUS FOR TEMPLE ARCHITECTURE AT HAMPI?
(A) VIJAYANAGAR
(B) BAHMANI
(C) MUGHAL
(D) MARATHA
ANSWER: (A) VIJAYANAGAR
EXPLANATION:
HAMPI WAS ITS CAPITAL.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q239. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF MADURAI NAYAK DYNASTY?
(A) TIRUMALA NAYAK
(B) VISHWANATHA NAYAK
(C) KRISHNADEVARAYA
(D) HARIHARA
ANSWER: (B) VISHWANATHA NAYAK
EXPLANATION:
HE ESTABLISHED NAYAK RULE.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 5: CULTURE & ECONOMY (FINAL COVERAGE)
Q240. WHICH CROP WAS INTRODUCED IN MEDIEVAL INDIA?
(A) WHEAT
(B) RICE
(C) TOBACCO
(D) BARLEY
ANSWER: (C) TOBACCO
EXPLANATION:
INTRODUCED BY EUROPEANS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q241. WHICH INDUSTRY FLOURISHED DURING MUGHAL PERIOD?
(A) TEXTILE
(B) IRON
(C) STEEL
(D) MINING
ANSWER: (A) TEXTILE
EXPLANATION:
INDIA WAS FAMOUS FOR COTTON TEXTILES.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2020
Q242. WHICH CITY WAS FAMOUS FOR MUSLIN CLOTH?
(A) SURAT
(B) DHAKA
(C) AGRA
(D) LAHORE
ANSWER: (B) DHAKA
EXPLANATION:
FINE MUSLIN CLOTH PRODUCTION CENTER.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
TOPIC 6: FINAL ABSOLUTE FACTS
Q243. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR HAD MAXIMUM TERRITORY?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (D) AURANGZEB
EXPLANATION:
EMPIRE REACHED LARGEST EXTENT.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q244. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR FACED MAXIMUM REVOLTS?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) AURANGZEB
(D) SHAH JAHAN
ANSWER: (C) AURANGZEB
EXPLANATION:
FACED MARATHA, SIKH, AND RAJPUT REVOLTS.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q245. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR BUILT MAXIMUM MONUMENTS?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (C) SHAH JAHAN
EXPLANATION:
GOLDEN AGE OF MUGHAL ARCHITECTURE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q246. WHICH SULTANATE DYNASTY LASTED LONGEST?
(A) SLAVE
(B) KHILJI
(C) TUGHLAQ
(D) LODHI
ANSWER: (C) TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION:
IT RULED FOR THE LONGEST DURATION.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q247. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR WAS CALLED “BUILDER KING”?
(A) AKBAR
(B) SHAH JAHAN
(C) AURANGZEB
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (B) SHAH JAHAN
EXPLANATION:
DUE TO ARCHITECTURAL ACHIEVEMENTS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q248. WHICH DYNASTY RULED JUST BEFORE BRITISH DOMINANCE?
(A) MUGHAL
(B) MARATHA
(C) DELHI SULTANATE
(D) VIJAYANAGAR
ANSWER: (A) MUGHAL
EXPLANATION:
MUGHALS WEAKENED BEFORE BRITISH RISE.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
Q249. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR WAS CONTEMPORARY OF SHIVAJI?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (D) AURANGZEB
EXPLANATION:
THEY WERE CONTEMPORARIES.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q250. WHICH EVENT MARKED DECLINE OF MUGHAL EMPIRE?
(A) DEATH OF AKBAR
(B) DEATH OF AURANGZEB
(C) BATTLE OF PANIPAT
(D) RISE OF MARATHAS
ANSWER: (B) DEATH OF AURANGZEB
EXPLANATION:
MARKED BEGINNING OF DECLINE.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2016, SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 1: DELHI SULTANATE (MICRO FACTS)
Q251. WHICH SULTAN ESTABLISHED THE DEPARTMENT OF CHARITY KNOWN AS DIWAN-I-KHAIRAT?
(A) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(B) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
(C) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
(D) BALBAN
ANSWER: (C) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS MEANT FOR HELPING POOR AND NEEDY PEOPLE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q252. WHICH SULTAN CONSTRUCTED THE ASHOKAN PILLARS AT DELHI?
(A) ILTUTMISH
(B) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
(C) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(D) BALBAN
ANSWER: (B) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION:
HE TRANSPORTED ASHOKAN PILLARS TO DELHI.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q253. WHO ESTABLISHED THE CITY OF JAUNPUR?
(A) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
(B) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
(C) BALBAN
(D) ILTUTMISH
ANSWER: (A) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION:
NAMED AFTER MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ (JAUNA KHAN).
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
TOPIC 2: MUGHAL EMPIRE (MICRO FACTS)
Q254. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR PROHIBITED COW SLAUGHTER IN CERTAIN AREAS?
(A) BABUR
(B) AKBAR
(C) JAHANGIR
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (B) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
TO RESPECT HINDU SENTIMENTS.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q255. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR WAS CALLED “INSAN-I-KAMIL”?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (A) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
MEANING “PERFECT MAN”.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q256. WHO BUILT LAHORE FORT?
(A) BABUR
(B) AKBAR
(C) JAHANGIR
(D) SHAH JAHAN
ANSWER: (B) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
HE CONSTRUCTED IT IN PRESENT-DAY PAKISTAN.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 3: BHAKTI & SUFI (MICRO)
Q257. WHICH SAINT COMPOSED “SURSAGAR”?
(A) KABIR
(B) SURDAS
(C) TULSIDAS
(D) MIRABAI
ANSWER: (B) SURDAS
EXPLANATION:
FAMOUS DEVOTIONAL WORK.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q258. WHICH BHAKTI SAINT WROTE IN BRAJ LANGUAGE?
(A) SURDAS
(B) KABIR
(C) TULSIDAS
(D) NANAK
ANSWER: (A) SURDAS
EXPLANATION:
BRAJ WAS POPULAR DEVOTIONAL LANGUAGE.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q259. WHICH SUFI SAINT IS BURIED AT PAKPATTAN?
(A) NIZAMUDDIN AULIYA
(B) BABA FARID
(C) MOINUDDIN CHISHTI
(D) KHUSRO
ANSWER: (B) BABA FARID
EXPLANATION:
IMPORTANT CHISHTI SAINT.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 4: REGIONAL KINGDOMS (MICRO)
Q260. WHICH MARATHA RULER WAS EXECUTED BY AURANGZEB?
(A) SHIVAJI
(B) SAMBHAJI
(C) RAJARAM
(D) SHAHU
ANSWER: (B) SAMBHAJI
EXPLANATION:
CAPTURED AND EXECUTED BY AURANGZEB.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q261. WHICH CAPITAL DID SHIVAJI INITIALLY ESTABLISH?
(A) RAIGAD
(B) PUNE
(C) SATARA
(D) KOLHAPUR
ANSWER: (A) RAIGAD
EXPLANATION:
RAIGAD WAS MAIN CAPITAL.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 5: CULTURE & ECONOMY (MICRO)
Q262. WHICH METAL WAS WIDELY USED FOR COINAGE IN MEDIEVAL INDIA?
(A) IRON
(B) COPPER
(C) SILVER
(D) GOLD
ANSWER: (C) SILVER
EXPLANATION:
SILVER COINS LIKE RUPIYA WERE COMMON.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q263. WHICH TEXTILE WAS EXPORTED TO EUROPE DURING MUGHAL PERIOD?
(A) SILK
(B) MUSLIN
(C) COTTON
(D) WOOL
ANSWER: (B) MUSLIN
EXPLANATION:
FINE QUALITY CLOTH FROM BENGAL.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2020
TOPIC 6: FINAL MICRO FACTS
Q264. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR IS BURIED IN KABUL?
(A) BABUR
(B) HUMAYUN
(C) AKBAR
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (A) BABUR
EXPLANATION:
BABUR’S TOMB IS IN KABUL.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q265. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR WAS EXILED TO RANGOON?
(A) BAHADUR SHAH I
(B) BAHADUR SHAH II
(C) AKBAR II
(D) SHAH ALAM
ANSWER: (B) BAHADUR SHAH II
EXPLANATION:
EXILED AFTER REVOLT OF 1857.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017
TOPIC 1: DELHI SULTANATE (FINAL MICRO FACTS)
Q266. WHO WAS THE FIRST SULTAN TO INTRODUCE REGULAR BRANDING OF HORSES?
(A) BALBAN
(B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(C) ILTUTMISH
(D) FIROZ SHAH
ANSWER: (B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
EXPLANATION:
HE INTRODUCED DAGH SYSTEM TO PREVENT CORRUPTION IN ARMY.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q267. WHICH SULTAN ESTABLISHED A SEPARATE DEPARTMENT FOR SLAVES?
(A) ILTUTMISH
(B) BALBAN
(C) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
(D) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
ANSWER: (C) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION:
KNOWN AS DIWAN-I-BANDAGAN.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q268. WHICH SULTAN ENCOURAGED IRRIGATION BY BUILDING CANALS?
(A) BALBAN
(B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(C) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
(D) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
ANSWER: (C) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION:
HE DEVELOPED AGRICULTURE THROUGH IRRIGATION.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
TOPIC 2: MUGHAL EMPIRE (FINAL MICRO FACTS)
Q269. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR BUILT NISHAT BAGH?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (B) JAHANGIR
EXPLANATION:
FAMOUS MUGHAL GARDEN IN KASHMIR.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q270. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR ISSUED COINS IN HIS OWN NAME FOR THE FIRST TIME?
(A) BABUR
(B) HUMAYUN
(C) AKBAR
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (C) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
STRENGTHENED IMPERIAL AUTHORITY.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q271. WHO BUILT THE CITY OF ALLAHABAD (ILAHABAS)?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (A) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
HE NAMED IT ILAHABAS.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 3: BHAKTI & SUFI (FINAL MICRO)
Q272. WHICH BHAKTI SAINT PREACHED “RAMA IS THE ONLY GOD”?
(A) KABIR
(B) TULSIDAS
(C) SURDAS
(D) NANAK
ANSWER: (B) TULSIDAS
EXPLANATION:
FOCUSED ON DEVOTION TO RAMA.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q273. WHICH SUFI SAINT WAS CALLED “GHARIB NAWAZ”?
(A) NIZAMUDDIN AULIYA
(B) MOINUDDIN CHISHTI
(C) BABA FARID
(D) KHUSRO
ANSWER: (B) MOINUDDIN CHISHTI
EXPLANATION:
MEANING “BENEFACTOR OF THE POOR”.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
TOPIC 4: REGIONAL KINGDOMS (FINAL MICRO)
Q274. WHICH MARATHA RULER SIGNED TREATY OF SALBAI?
(A) SHIVAJI
(B) SAMBHAJI
(C) MADHAVRAO
(D) MAHADJI SCINDIA
ANSWER: (D) MAHADJI SCINDIA
EXPLANATION:
TREATY BETWEEN MARATHAS AND BRITISH.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q275. WHICH CITY WAS CAPITAL OF BAHMANI KINGDOM AFTER GULBARGA?
(A) BIDAR
(B) BIJAPUR
(C) GOLCONDA
(D) WARANGAL
ANSWER: (A) BIDAR
EXPLANATION:
LATER CAPITAL OF BAHMANI KINGDOM.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
TOPIC 5: CULTURE & ECONOMY (FINAL MICRO)
Q276. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR ENCOURAGED PERSIAN LITERATURE MOST?
(A) BABUR
(B) AKBAR
(C) JAHANGIR
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (B) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
HE PATRONIZED SCHOLARS AND TRANSLATORS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q277. WHICH INDUSTRY WAS MOST DEVELOPED IN MEDIEVAL INDIA?
(A) TEXTILE
(B) SHIPBUILDING
(C) METAL
(D) MINING
ANSWER: (A) TEXTILE
EXPLANATION:
COTTON AND SILK INDUSTRIES FLOURISHED.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2020
TOPIC 6: FINAL ABSOLUTE QUESTIONS
Q278. WHO WAS THE FIRST MUGHAL EMPEROR CROWNED IN INDIA?
(A) BABUR
(B) HUMAYUN
(C) AKBAR
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (B) HUMAYUN
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS CROWNED IN INDIA AFTER BABUR.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q279. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR LOST TO SHER SHAH SURI TWICE?
(A) BABUR
(B) HUMAYUN
(C) AKBAR
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (B) HUMAYUN
XPLANATION:
LOST AT CHAUSA AND KANNAUJ.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q280. WHICH SULTANATE RULER INTRODUCED TOKEN CURRENCY?
(A) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(B) BALBAN
(C) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
(D) FIROZ SHAH
ANSWER: (C) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION:
FAILED EXPERIMENT.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q281. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR INTRODUCED JHAROKHA DARSHAN?
(A) BABUR
(B) AKBAR
(C) JAHANGIR
(D) SHAH JAHAN
ANSWER: (B) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
DAILY PUBLIC APPEARANCE.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
Q282. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR ABOLISHED JHAROKHA DARSHAN?
(A) AURANGZEB
(B) SHAH JAHAN
(C) JAHANGIR
(D) AKBAR
ANSWER: (A) AURANGZEB
EXPLANATION:
CONSIDERED IT UN-ISLAMIC.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q283. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR EMPHASIZED ORTHODOX SUNNI ISLAM?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (D) AURANGZEB
EXPLANATION:
FOLLOWED STRICT ISLAMIC PRACTICES.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q284. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR PATRONIZED MINIATURE PAINTING?
(A) BABUR
(B) AKBAR
(C) AURANGZEB
(D) BAHADUR SHAH
ANSWER: (B) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
ENCOURAGED MUGHAL ART.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q285. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR WAS KNOWN FOR JUSTICE ADMINISTRATION?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (B) JAHANGIR
EXPLANATION:
CHAIN OF JUSTICE SYMBOL.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
Q286. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR SPENT MAXIMUM TIME IN DECCAN CAMPAIGNS?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (D) AURANGZEB
EXPLANATION:
HE SPENT LAST YEARS IN DECCAN.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q287. WHICH SULTANATE RULER WAS CALLED “MIXTURE OF OPPOSITES”?
(A) ALAUDDIN
(B) BALBAN
(C) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
(D) ILTUTMISH
ANSWER: (C) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION:
DUE TO CONTRADICTORY POLICIES.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q288. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR HAD LONGEST REIGN?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (D) AURANGZEB
EXPLANATION:
REIGNED FOR NEARLY 50 YEARS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q289. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR ESTABLISHED IBADAT KHANA?
(A) BABUR
(B) AKBAR
(C) JAHANGIR
(D) SHAH JAHAN
ANSWER: (B) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
RELIGIOUS DISCUSSIONS HALL.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q290. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR EMPHASIZED SULH-I-KUL?
(A) AKBAR
(B) AURANGZEB
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) BABUR
ANSWER: (A) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
POLICY OF UNIVERSAL TOLERANCE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q291. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR DISCOURAGED PAINTING?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (D) AURANGZEB
EXPLANATION:
DUE TO RELIGIOUS BELIEFS.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
Q292. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR PATRONIZED ARCHITECTURE MOST?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (C) SHAH JAHAN
EXPLANATION:
GOLDEN PERIOD OF ARCHITECTURE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q293. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR INTRODUCED PERSIAN COURT CULTURE STRONGLY?
(A) BABUR
(B) HUMAYUN
(C) AKBAR
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (B) HUMAYUN
EXPLANATION:
INFLUENCED BY PERSIAN EXILE.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q294. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR WAS KNOWN FOR TOLERANCE?
(A) AKBAR
(B) AURANGZEB
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) BABUR
ANSWER: (A) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
RELIGIOUS HARMONY POLICIES.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q295. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR STRENGTHENED EMPIRE MOST?
(A) BABUR
(B) HUMAYUN
(C) AKBAR
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (C) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
HE CONSOLIDATED MUGHAL RULE.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
Q296. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR LOST KANDAHAR TO PERSIA?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (C) SHAH JAHAN
EXPLANATION:
LOST STRATEGIC REGION.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q297. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR MAINTAINED LARGEST ARMY?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (D) AURANGZEB
EXPLANATION:
DUE TO CONTINUOUS WARS.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2020
Q298. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR EXPANDED EMPIRE IN DECCAN?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (D) AURANGZEB
EXPLANATION:
CONQUERED BIJAPUR AND GOLCONDA.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q299. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR WAS MOST EDUCATED?
(A) BABUR
(B) HUMAYUN
(C) AKBAR
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (A) BABUR
EXPLANATION:
HIGHLY CULTURED AND EDUCATED.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
Q300. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR WAS KNOWN FOR ADMINISTRATIVE REFORMS?
(A) BABUR
(B) HUMAYUN
(C) AKBAR
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (C) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
INTRODUCED MANY REFORMS.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017, SSC GD 2022
Q301. WHO INTRODUCED THE PRACTICE OF MEASURING LAND UNDER DELHI SULTANATE?
(A) ILTUTMISH
(B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(C) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
(D) SHER SHAH SURI
ANSWER: (B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
EXPLANATION: BEGAN SYSTEMATIC LAND MEASUREMENT FOR REVENUE REFORMS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q302. WHICH SULTAN SHIFTED CAPITAL FROM DELHI TO DAULATABAD?
(A) BALBAN
(B) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(C) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
(D) FIROZ SHAH
ANSWER: (C) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION: ATTEMPTED BUT FAILED CAPITAL SHIFT POLICY.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017, SSC GD 2021
Q303. WHO BUILT ADHAI DIN KA JHOPRA?
(A) QUTB-UD-DIN AIBAK
(B) ILTUTMISH
(C) BALBAN
(D) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
ANSWER: (A) QUTB-UD-DIN AIBAK
EXPLANATION: EARLY INDO-ISLAMIC ARCHITECTURE IN AJMER.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q304. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR INTRODUCED PERSIAN CALENDAR OFFICIALLY?
(A) BABUR
(B) HUMAYUN
(C) AKBAR
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (C) AKBAR
EXPLANATION: INTRODUCED TARIKH-I-ILAHI CALENDAR.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q305. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR BUILT FATEHPUR SIKRI?
(A) BABUR
(B) AKBAR
(C) JAHANGIR
(D) SHAH JAHAN
ANSWER: (B) AKBAR
EXPLANATION: BUILT AS CAPITAL NEAR AGRA.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q306. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR MARRIED JODHA BAI?
(A) BABUR
(B) AKBAR
(C) JAHANGIR
(D) SHAH JAHAN
ANSWER: (B) AKBAR
EXPLANATION: STRENGTHENED RAJPUT ALLIANCE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q307. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR WAS KNOWN FOR NUR JAHAN’S INFLUENCE?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (B) JAHANGIR
EXPLANATION: NUR JAHAN PLAYED KEY ROLE IN ADMINISTRATION.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
Q308. WHO BUILT SHALIMAR BAGH IN KASHMIR?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (B) JAHANGIR
EXPLANATION: FAMOUS MUGHAL GARDEN.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q309. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR BUILT RED FORT?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (C) SHAH JAHAN
EXPLANATION: BUILT IN SHAHJAHANABAD.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q310. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR IMPRISONED SHAH JAHAN?
(A) DARA SHIKOH
(B) AURANGZEB
(C) MURAD
(D) SHAH SHUJA
ANSWER: (B) AURANGZEB
EXPLANATION: TOOK POWER AFTER WAR OF SUCCESSION.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q311. WHO COMPOSED RAMCHARITMANAS?
(A) KABIR
(B) SURDAS
(C) TULSIDAS
(D) MIRABAI
ANSWER: (C) TULSIDAS
EXPLANATION: WRITTEN IN AWADHI LANGUAGE.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q312. WHICH BHAKTI SAINT EMPHASIZED LOVE TOWARDS KRISHNA?
(A) KABIR
(B) MIRABAI
(C) NANAK
(D) RAMANANDA
ANSWER: (B) MIRABAI
EXPLANATION: FAMOUS KRISHNA DEVOTEE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q313. WHICH SUFI SAINT IS BURIED IN AJMER?
(A) BABA FARID
(B) MOINUDDIN CHISHTI
(C) NIZAMUDDIN
(D) KHUSRO
ANSWER: (B) MOINUDDIN CHISHTI
EXPLANATION: AJMER SHARIF DARGAH.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q314. WHICH EMPIRE WAS DEFEATED IN BATTLE OF TALIKOTA?
(A) MUGHAL
(B) VIJAYANAGAR
(C) BAHMANI
(D) MARATHA
ANSWER: (B) VIJAYANAGAR
EXPLANATION: DEFEATED BY DECCAN SULTANATES.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q315. WHO WAS FOUNDER OF BAHMANI KINGDOM?
(A) ALAUDDIN BAHMAN SHAH
(B) MUHAMMAD SHAH
(C) HASAN GANGU
(D) BOTH A & C
ANSWER: (D) BOTH A & C
EXPLANATION: SAME PERSON.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: MIXED MEDIEVAL HISTORY (ADVANCED PYQ STYLE)
Q316. FIRST BATTLE OF PANIPAT WAS FOUGHT IN WHICH YEAR?
(A) 1498
(B) 1526
(C) 1556
(D) 1761
ANSWER: (B) 1526
EXPLANATION:
BABUR DEFEATED IBRAHIM LODHI AND ESTABLISHED MUGHAL RULE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q317. BATTLE OF KHANWA WAS FOUGHT BETWEEN WHOM?
(A) BABUR & IBRAHIM LODHI
(B) BABUR & RANA SANGA
(C) AKBAR & HEMU
(D) SHER SHAH & HUMAYUN
ANSWER: (B) BABUR & RANA SANGA
EXPLANATION:
BABUR DEFEATED RANA SANGA IN 1527.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2018
Q318. WHERE IS SHER SHAH SURI’S TOMB LOCATED?
(A) DELHI
(B) AGRA
(C) SASARAM
(D) LAHORE
ANSWER: (C) SASARAM
EXPLANATION:
LOCATED IN BIHAR.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q319. WHICH CURRENCY WAS INTRODUCED BY SHER SHAH SURI?
(A) TANKA
(B) RUPIYA
(C) DINAR
(D) DAM
ANSWER: (B) RUPIYA
EXPLANATION:
BASIS OF MODERN INDIAN RUPEE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q320. WHO BUILT THE GRAND TRUNK ROAD?
(A) AKBAR
(B) SHER SHAH SURI
(C) BABUR
(D) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
ANSWER: (B) SHER SHAH SURI
EXPLANATION:
CONNECTED BENGAL TO PUNJAB.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
Q321. WHO BUILT HUMAYUN’S TOMB?
(A) AKBAR
(B) HAJI BEGUM
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) BABUR
ANSWER: (B) HAJI BEGUM
EXPLANATION:
FIRST GARDEN TOMB IN INDIA.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q322. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR LOST HIS THRONE TWICE?
(A) BABUR
(B) HUMAYUN
(C) AKBAR
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (B) HUMAYUN
EXPLANATION:
LOST TO SHER SHAH AND REGAINED LATER.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2020
Q323. WHO BUILT JAMA MASJID IN DELHI?
(A) AKBAR
(B) SHAH JAHAN
(C) AURANGZEB
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (B) SHAH JAHAN
EXPLANATION:
LARGEST MOSQUE OF MUGHAL PERIOD.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q324. WHO BUILT THE TAJ MAHAL?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (C) SHAH JAHAN
EXPLANATION:
BUILT IN MEMORY OF MUMTAZ MAHAL.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017, SSC GD 2022
Q325. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR ABOLISHED JIZYA TAX?
(A) BABUR
(B) AKBAR
(C) JAHANGIR
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (B) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
PROMOTED RELIGIOUS TOLERANCE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q326. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR REIMPOSED JIZYA?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (D) AURANGZEB
EXPLANATION:
FOLLOWED ORTHODOX POLICIES.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q327. WHO FOUNDED SIKHISM?
(A) GURU GOBIND SINGH
(B) GURU NANAK
(C) GURU ARJAN DEV
(D) GURU TEGH BAHADUR
ANSWER: (B) GURU NANAK
EXPLANATION:
FOUNDER OF SIKH RELIGION.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q328. WHO BUILT THE GOLDEN TEMPLE?
(A) GURU NANAK
(B) GURU ARJAN DEV
(C) GURU GOBIND SINGH
(D) GURU RAM DAS
ANSWER: (B) GURU ARJAN DEV
EXPLANATION:
LOCATED AT AMRITSAR.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q329. KHALSA WAS FOUNDED IN WHICH YEAR?
(A) 1605
(B) 1658
(C) 1699
(D) 1707
ANSWER: (C) 1699
EXPLANATION:
FOUNDED BY GURU GOBIND SINGH.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q330. WHICH BATTLE WAS FOUGHT BETWEEN AKBAR AND HEMU?
(A) PANIPAT I
(B) PANIPAT II
(C) KHANWA
(D) TALIKOTA
ANSWER: (B) PANIPAT II
EXPLANATION:
AKBAR DEFEATED HEMU IN 1556.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q331. WHO WAS HEMU?
(A) MUGHAL GENERAL
(B) AFGHAN RULER
(C) HINDU GENERAL OF ADIL SHAH
(D) RAJPUT KING
ANSWER: (C)
EXPLANATION:
HE FOUGHT AGAINST AKBAR.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q332. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR COMPLETED AKBAR’S TOMB?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (B) JAHANGIR
EXPLANATION:
LOCATED AT SIKANDRA.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
Q333. WHO BUILT BULAND DARWAZA?
(A) BABUR
(B) AKBAR
(C) JAHANGIR
(D) SHAH JAHAN
ANSWER: (B) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
VICTORY GATE AT FATEHPUR SIKRI.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q334. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR IS BURIED AT SIKANDRA?
(A) BABUR
(B) HUMAYUN
(C) AKBAR
(D) JAHANGIR
ANSWER: (C) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
HIS TOMB IS IN AGRA.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q335. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR INTRODUCED DIN-I-ILAHI?
(A) BABUR
(B) AKBAR
(C) JAHANGIR
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (B) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
NEW RELIGIOUS SYSTEM.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q336. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR WROTE TUZUK-I-JAHANGIRI?
(A) BABUR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) AKBAR
(D) SHAH JAHAN
ANSWER: (B) JAHANGIR
EXPLANATION:
AUTOBIOGRAPHY OF JAHANGIR.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q337. WHO WROTE AIN-I-AKBARI?
(A) BADAUNI
(B) ABUL FAZL
(C) FAIZI
(D) BIRBAL
ANSWER: (B) ABUL FAZL
EXPLANATION:
PART OF AKBARNAMA.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q338. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR INTRODUCED SULH-I-KUL?
(A) BABUR
(B) AKBAR
(C) JAHANGIR
(D) SHAH JAHAN
ANSWER: (B) AKBAR
EXPLANATION:
POLICY OF UNIVERSAL PEACE.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q339. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR HAD NUR JAHAN AS WIFE?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (B) JAHANGIR
EXPLANATION:
SHE INFLUENCED POLITICS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q340. WHICH MUGHAL EMPEROR BUILT SHALIMAR GARDENS IN LAHORE?
(A) AKBAR
(B) JAHANGIR
(C) SHAH JAHAN
(D) AURANGZEB
ANSWER: (C) SHAH JAHAN
EXPLANATION:
FAMOUS MUGHAL GARDEN.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC: DELHI SULTANATE & REGIONAL KINGDOMS
Q341. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF THE LODHI DYNASTY?
(A) SIKANDAR LODHI
(B) IBRAHIM LODHI
(C) BAHLOL LODHI
(D) DAULAT KHAN LODHI
ANSWER: (C) BAHLOL LODHI
EXPLANATION:
BAHLOL LODHI FOUNDED THE LODHI DYNASTY IN 1451 AND WAS THE FIRST AFGHAN RULER OF DELHI.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q342. WHO WAS THE LAST SULTAN OF DELHI SULTANATE?
(A) SIKANDAR LODHI
(B) IBRAHIM LODHI
(C) BAHLOL LODHI
(D) ALAM SHAH
ANSWER: (B) IBRAHIM LODHI
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS DEFEATED BY BABUR IN THE FIRST BATTLE OF PANIPAT (1526).
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2018, SSC GD 2021
Q343. WHO FOUNDED THE SAYYID DYNASTY?
(A) MUBARAK SHAH
(B) KHIZR KHAN
(C) MUHAMMAD SHAH
(D) ALAM SHAH
ANSWER: (B) KHIZR KHAN
EXPLANATION:
HE ESTABLISHED THE SAYYID DYNASTY AFTER THE FALL OF TUGHLAQ RULE.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q344. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF THE SLAVE (MAMLUK) DYNASTY?
(A) ILTUTMISH
(B) BALBAN
(C) QUTB-UD-DIN AIBAK
(D) RAZIA
ANSWER: (C) QUTB-UD-DIN AIBAK
EXPLANATION:
HE FOUNDED THE FIRST DYNASTY OF THE DELHI SULTANATE IN 1206.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q345. WHO FOUNDED THE KHILJI DYNASTY?
(A) ALAUDDIN KHILJI
(B) JALALUDDIN KHILJI
(C) QUTBUDDIN MUBARAK SHAH
(D) GHIYASUDDIN TUGHLAQ
ANSWER: (B) JALALUDDIN KHILJI
EXPLANATION:
HE ESTABLISHED THE KHILJI DYNASTY IN 1290.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q346. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF THE TUGHLAQ DYNASTY?
(A) MUHAMMAD BIN TUGHLAQ
(B) FIROZ SHAH TUGHLAQ
(C) GHIYASUDDIN TUGHLAQ
(D) BALBAN
ANSWER: (C) GHIYASUDDIN TUGHLAQ
EXPLANATION:
HE ESTABLISHED THE TUGHLAQ DYNASTY IN 1320.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q347. WHAT WAS THE CAPITAL OF THE VIJAYANAGAR EMPIRE?
(A) WARANGAL
(B) MADURAI
(C) HAMPI
(D) BIJAPUR
ANSWER: (C) HAMPI
EXPLANATION:
HAMPI WAS THE CAPITAL AND A MAJOR CENTER OF TRADE AND CULTURE.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q348. WHO WERE THE FOUNDERS OF THE VIJAYANAGAR EMPIRE?
(A) HARIHARA & BUKKA
(B) KRISHNADEVARAYA & RAMA RAYA
(C) DEVA RAYA I & II
(D) SALUVA & TULUVA
ANSWER: (A) HARIHARA & BUKKA
EXPLANATION:
THEY ESTABLISHED THE EMPIRE IN 1336 ON THE BANKS OF TUNGABHADRA RIVER.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q349. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF THE MARATHA EMPIRE?
(A) SAMBHAJI
(B) SHIVAJI
(C) BAJIRAO
(D) SHAHU
ANSWER: (B) SHIVAJI
EXPLANATION:
SHIVAJI ESTABLISHED A STRONG MARATHA KINGDOM IN THE 17TH CENTURY.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q350. IN WHICH YEAR WAS THE BATTLE OF TALIKOTA FOUGHT?
(A) 1526
(B) 1556
(C) 1565
(D) 1600
ANSWER: (C) 1565
EXPLANATION:
THE VIJAYANAGAR EMPIRE WAS DEFEATED BY DECCAN SULTANATES IN THIS BATTLE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
TOPIC: COINS, OFFICIALS, ADMIN MICRO TERMS, RARE FACTS
Q351. WHAT WAS THE SILVER COIN OF DELHI SULTANATE CALLED?
(A) DINAR
(B) TANKA
(C) JITAL
(D) DAM
ANSWER: (B) TANKA
EXPLANATION:
TANKA WAS THE STANDARD SILVER COIN INTRODUCED BY ILTUTMISH.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q352. WHAT WAS THE COPPER COIN CALLED IN SULTANATE PERIOD?
(A) TANKA
(B) JITAL
(C) DINAR
(D) RUPIYA
ANSWER: (B) JITAL
EXPLANATION:
USED FOR SMALLER TRANSACTIONS.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q353. WHAT WAS THE GOLD COIN CALLED DURING MEDIEVAL INDIA?
(A) RUPIYA
(B) JITAL
(C) DINAR
(D) DAM
ANSWER: (C) DINAR
EXPLANATION:
GOLD COIN USED IN EARLY SULTANATE PERIOD.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q354. WHO WAS KNOWN AS “VAKIL-I-DAR”?
(A) PRIME MINISTER
(B) HEAD OF ROYAL HOUSEHOLD
(C) ARMY CHIEF
(D) REVENUE OFFICER
ANSWER: (B) HEAD OF ROYAL HOUSEHOLD
EXPLANATION:
MANAGED THE SULTAN’S PERSONAL AFFAIRS.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q355. WHAT WAS THE DUTY OF “AMIN” IN MEDIEVAL ADMINISTRATION?
(A) JUDGE
(B) REVENUE OFFICER
(C) SOLDIER
(D) SPY
ANSWER: (B) REVENUE OFFICER
EXPLANATION:
MEASURED LAND AND ASSESSED REVENUE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q356. WHAT WAS “KARKHANA” IN MUGHAL ADMINISTRATION?
(A) MARKET
(B) WORKSHOP
(C) ARMY
(D) COURT
ANSWER: (B) WORKSHOP
EXPLANATION:
STATE-RUN PRODUCTION CENTERS.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q357. WHAT WAS “MADAD-I-MAASH”?
(A) TAX
(B) LAND GRANT
(C) MILITARY RANK
(D) COIN
ANSWER: (B) LAND GRANT
EXPLANATION:
GIVEN TO SCHOLARS AND RELIGIOUS PEOPLE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q358. WHAT WAS “INAM LAND”?
(A) TAX LAND
(B) MILITARY LAND
(C) TAX-FREE LAND GRANT
(D) ROYAL LAND
ANSWER: (C) TAX-FREE LAND GRANT
EXPLANATION:
GIVEN FOR SERVICE OR CHARITY.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q359. WHO MAINTAINED ROYAL CORRESPONDENCE IN MUGHAL COURT?
(A) MIR BAKSHI
(B) MIR MUNSHI
(C) WAZIR
(D) QAZI
ANSWER: (B) MIR MUNSHI
EXPLANATION:
HEAD OF SECRETARIAT AND RECORDS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q360. WHAT WAS THE DUTY OF “WAQIA-NAVIS”?
(A) JUDGE
(B) SPY
(C) NEWS REPORTER
(D) TAX COLLECTOR
ANSWER: (C) NEWS REPORTER
EXPLANATION:
REPORTED DAILY HAPPENINGS TO EMPEROR.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q361. WHO WAS THE HEAD OF ARTILLERY IN MUGHAL ARMY?
(A) MIR BAKSHI
(B) MIR ATISH
(C) SUBEDAR
(D) KOTWAL
ANSWER: (B) MIR ATISH
EXPLANATION:
CONTROLLED ARTILLERY UNITS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q362. WHAT WAS THE ROYAL SEAL CALLED?
(A) FARMAN
(B) MUHR
(C) NISHAN
(D) SANAD
ANSWER: (B) MUHR
EXPLANATION:
USED TO AUTHENTICATE ORDERS.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q363. WHAT WAS “MATBAKH”?
(A) ARMY CAMP
(B) KITCHEN
(C) COURT
(D) TREASURY
ANSWER: (B) KITCHEN
EXPLANATION:
ROYAL KITCHEN DEPARTMENT.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q364. WHO MAINTAINED ROYAL STABLES?
(A) MIR BAKSHI
(B) AKHUR BEG
(C) QAZI
(D) WAZIR
ANSWER: (B) AKHUR BEG
EXPLANATION:
IN CHARGE OF HORSES.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
Q365. WHAT WAS “BARID” SYSTEM?
(A) TAX SYSTEM
(B) INTELLIGENCE NETWORK
(C) ARMY UNIT
(D) LAND GRANT
ANSWER: (B) INTELLIGENCE NETWORK
EXPLANATION:
USED FOR SECRET INFORMATION.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q366. WHAT WAS “DIWAN-I-INSHA”?
(A) MILITARY DEPT
(B) REVENUE DEPT
(C) CORRESPONDENCE DEPT
(D) JUSTICE DEPT
ANSWER: (C) CORRESPONDENCE DEPT
EXPLANATION:
HANDLED OFFICIAL LETTERS.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q367. WHAT WAS “DIWAN-I-ARZ”?
(A) ARMY DEPT
(B) REVENUE DEPT
(C) JUSTICE DEPT
(D) TRADE DEPT
ANSWER: (A) ARMY DEPT
EXPLANATION:
MANAGED MILITARY AFFAIRS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q368. WHAT WAS “DIWAN-I-WIZARAT”?
(A) ARMY
(B) FINANCE
(C) JUSTICE
(D) RELIGION
ANSWER: (B) FINANCE
EXPLANATION:
HANDLED REVENUE AND EXPENDITURE.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
Q369. WHAT WAS “DIWAN-I-RASALAT”?
(A) FOREIGN AFFAIRS
(B) MILITARY
(C) REVENUE
(D) TRADE
ANSWER: (A) FOREIGN AFFAIRS
EXPLANATION:
MANAGED DIPLOMATIC RELATIONS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q370. WHAT WAS “SANAD”?
(A) TAX
(B) CERTIFICATE/ORDER
(C) ARMY
(D) COIN
ANSWER: (B) CERTIFICATE/ORDER
EXPLANATION:
OFFICIAL DOCUMENT OF GRANT.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
TOPIC: ADMINISTRATION, TAXATION, OFFICIAL TERMS (ULTRA-RARE)
Q371. WHAT WAS THE ROYAL TREASURY CALLED IN MEDIEVAL INDIA?
(A) DIWAN
(B) KHAZANA
(C) KARKHANA
(D) DAFTAR
ANSWER: (B) KHAZANA
EXPLANATION:
KHAZANA REFERRED TO THE TREASURY WHERE STATE WEALTH WAS STORED.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q372. WHO WAS THE CHIEF MINISTER IN THE SULTANATE/MUGHAL ADMINISTRATION?
(A) QAZI
(B) WAZIR
(C) KOTWAL
(D) SUBEDAR
ANSWER: (B) WAZIR
EXPLANATION:
WAZIR WAS THE HEAD OF ADMINISTRATION AND FINANCE.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q373. WHO MAINTAINED ARMY RECORDS IN MUGHAL ADMINISTRATION?
(A) MIR ATISH
(B) MIR BAKSHI
(C) WAQIA-NAVIS
(D) AMIL
ANSWER: (B) MIR BAKSHI
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS RESPONSIBLE FOR MILITARY ORGANIZATION AND RECORDS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q374. WHO WAS THE HEAD OF CITY POLICE?
(A) FAUJDAR
(B) KOTWAL
(C) QAZI
(D) SUBEDAR
ANSWER: (B) KOTWAL
EXPLANATION:
KOTWAL MAINTAINED LAW AND ORDER IN CITIES.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q375. WHO WAS THE CHIEF JUDICIAL OFFICER?
(A) QAZI-UL-QUZAT
(B) WAZIR
(C) AMIL
(D) MIR MUNSHI
ANSWER: (A) QAZI-UL-QUZAT
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS THE HEAD OF THE JUDICIAL SYSTEM.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q376. WHAT WAS “PATTA” IN MUGHAL ADMINISTRATION?
(A) TAX
(B) LAND RECORD
(C) ARMY UNIT
(D) COIN
ANSWER: (B) LAND RECORD
EXPLANATION:
IT CONTAINED DETAILS OF LAND AND REVENUE.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
Q377. WHAT WAS “QABULIYAT”?
(A) TAX
(B) AGREEMENT WITH PEASANTS
(C) COIN
(D) LAW
ANSWER: (B) AGREEMENT WITH PEASANTS
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS A CONTRACT BETWEEN STATE AND CULTIVATOR.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q378. WHAT WAS “URDU” IN MEDIEVAL CONTEXT?
(A) LANGUAGE
(B) MILITARY CAMP
(C) TAX
(D) COURT
ANSWER: (B) MILITARY CAMP
EXPLANATION:
ORIGINALLY MEANT ARMY CAMP.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q379. WHAT WAS “RAHDARI”?
(A) LAND TAX
(B) ROAD TAX
(C) TRADE TAX
(D) RELIGIOUS TAX
ANSWER: (B) ROAD TAX
EXPLANATION:
CHARGED ON GOODS TRANSPORTED ON ROADS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q380. WHAT WAS “GHARI” TAX?
(A) HOUSE TAX
(B) TRADE TAX
(C) MILITARY TAX
(D) LAND TAX
ANSWER: (A) HOUSE TAX
EXPLANATION:
LEVIED ON HOUSES.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q381. WHAT WAS “CHARAI”?
(A) ROAD TAX
(B) GRAZING TAX
(C) TRADE TAX
(D) WAR TAX
ANSWER: (B) GRAZING TAX
EXPLANATION:
COLLECTED FOR GRAZING ANIMALS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q382. WHAT WAS “KHARAJ”?
(A) RELIGIOUS TAX
(B) LAND TAX
(C) TRADE TAX
(D) WAR TAX
ANSWER: (B) LAND TAX
EXPLANATION:
MAJOR SOURCE OF REVENUE.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q383. WHAT WAS “ABWAB”?
(A) NORMAL TAX
(B) EXTRA ILLEGAL TAX
(C) TRADE TAX
(D) RELIGIOUS TAX
ANSWER: (B) EXTRA ILLEGAL TAX
EXPLANATION:
ADDITIONAL CESSES BEYOND REGULAR TAXES.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q384. WHAT WAS MINT CALLED IN MEDIEVAL INDIA?
(A) DAR-UL-ZARB
(B) KARKHANA
(C) KHAZANA
(D) DAFTAR
ANSWER: (A) DAR-UL-ZARB
EXPLANATION:
PLACE WHERE COINS WERE MINTED.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
Q385. WHO WAS THE FORT COMMANDER?
(A) SUBEDAR
(B) QILADAR
(C) KOTWAL
(D) AMIL
ANSWER: (B) QILADAR
EXPLANATION:
RESPONSIBLE FOR SECURITY OF FORT.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q386. WHO WAS THE PROVINCIAL GOVERNOR?
(A) WAZIR
(B) SUBEDAR
(C) FAUJDAR
(D) QAZI
ANSWER: (B) SUBEDAR
EXPLANATION:
HEAD OF PROVINCE ADMINISTRATION.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q387. WHO WAS THE DISTRICT MILITARY OFFICER?
(A) AMIL
(B) FAUJDAR
(C) KOTWAL
(D) MIR BAKSHI
ANSWER: (B) FAUJDAR
EXPLANATION:
MAINTAINED LAW AND ORDER AT DISTRICT LEVEL.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q388. WHO WAS THE VILLAGE ACCOUNTANT?
(A) PATWARI
(B) AMIL
(C) QAZI
(D) WAZIR
ANSWER: (A) PATWARI
EXPLANATION:
MAINTAINED LAND RECORDS AT VILLAGE LEVEL.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
Q389. WHO COLLECTED REVENUE AT LOCAL LEVEL?
(A) AMIL
(B) KOTWAL
(C) QAZI
(D) SUBEDAR
ANSWER: (A) AMIL
EXPLANATION:
RESPONSIBLE FOR TAX COLLECTION.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q390. WHAT WAS “BAZAAR-I-MANDI”?
(A) VILLAGE MARKET
(B) MILITARY MARKET
(C) ROYAL COURT
(D) TREASURY
ANSWER: (B) MILITARY MARKET
EXPLANATION:
MARKET ATTACHED TO ARMY CAMPS.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q391. WHAT WAS “SHAMIANA”?
(A) TENT
(B) WEAPON
(C) TAX
(D) COIN
ANSWER: (A) TENT
EXPLANATION:
ROYAL OR MILITARY TENT.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q392. WHAT WAS “JULOOS”?
(A) TAX
(B) ARMY
(C) PROCESSION
(D) COURT
ANSWER: (C) PROCESSION
EXPLANATION:
ROYAL CEREMONIAL PROCESSION.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
Q393. WHAT WAS “TAKHT”?
(A) COIN
(B) THRONE
(C) ARMY
(D) TAX
ANSWER: (B) THRONE
EXPLANATION:
SYMBOL OF ROYAL AUTHORITY.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q394. WHAT WAS “FARMAN”?
(A) TAX
(B) ORDER
(C) COIN
(D) ARMY
ANSWER: (B) ORDER
EXPLANATION:
OFFICIAL DECREE ISSUED BY EMPEROR.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
Q395. WHAT WAS “JAGIR”?
(A) COIN
(B) LAND GRANT
(C) TAX
(D) ARMY
ANSWER: (B) LAND GRANT
EXPLANATION:
GIVEN IN LIEU OF SALARY.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q396. WHAT WAS “MADAD-I-MAASH”?
(A) MILITARY GRANT
(B) RELIGIOUS LAND GRANT
(C) TRADE TAX
(D) COIN
ANSWER: (B) RELIGIOUS LAND GRANT
EXPLANATION:
GIVEN TO SCHOLARS AND SAINTS.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
Q397. WHAT WAS “SAWAR”?
(A) INFANTRY
(B) CAVALRYMAN
(C) OFFICER
(D) SPY
ANSWER: (B) CAVALRYMAN
EXPLANATION:
HORSE-MOUNTED SOLDIER.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q398. WHAT WAS “MANSABDARI”?
(A) TAX
(B) RANK SYSTEM
(C) ARMY
(D) COIN
ANSWER: (B) RANK SYSTEM
EXPLANATION:
DETERMINED STATUS AND SALARY.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q399. WHAT WAS “KARKHANA”?
(A) COURT
(B) WORKSHOP
(C) ARMY
(D) TREASURY
ANSWER: (B) WORKSHOP
EXPLANATION:
STATE-RUN PRODUCTION CENTER.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
Q400. WHAT WAS “DAFTAR”?
(A) COURT
(B) RECORD OFFICE
(C) ARMY
(D) TAX
ANSWER: (B) RECORD OFFICE
EXPLANATION:
MAINTAINED OFFICIAL DOCUMENTS.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2022
SSC GK MODERN HISTORY MCQS (TIER I):PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS OF MODERN HISTORY (SSC EXAMS)
MODERN INDIAN HISTORY IS ONE OF THE MOST IMPORTANT AND HIGH-SCORING SECTIONS IN SSC TIER I EXAMS. QUESTIONS ARE FREQUENTLY REPEATED, SOMETIMES EXACTLY THE SAME OR SLIGHTLY MODIFIED, ACROSS EXAMS LIKE SSC CGL, CHSL, MTS, AND GD.
KEY FOCUS AREAS:
REVOLT OF 1857
SOCIAL & RELIGIOUS REFORM MOVEMENTS
INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS SESSIONS
FREEDOM STRUGGLE (MODERATES, EXTREMISTS, GANDHIAN ERA)
IMPORTANT ACTS & POLICIES (REGULATING ACT, PITT’S INDIA ACT, ETC.)
GOVERNOR-GENERALS & VICEROYS
REVOLUTIONARY MOVEMENTS
STRATEGY:
FOCUS ON REPEATED PYQS (PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS)
LEARN YEARS, ACTS, LEADERS AND MOVEMENTS
REVISE THROUGH MCQS REGULARLY
MODERN HISTORY
TOPIC: REVOLT OF 1857
Q1. WHO WAS THE FIRST MARTYR OF THE REVOLT OF 1857?
A. RANI LAKSHMI BAI
B. BAHADUR SHAH ZAFAR
C. MANGAL PANDEY
D. NANA SAHIB
ANSWER: C. MANGAL PANDEY
EXPLANATION:
MANGAL PANDEY, A SOLDIER OF THE BRITISH EAST INDIA COMPANY, IS CONSIDERED THE FIRST FREEDOM FIGHTER WHO INITIATED THE REVOLT IN BARRACKPORE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2018
SSC GD 2021
Q2. WHERE DID THE REVOLT OF 1857 START?
A. DELHI
B. MEERUT
C. KANPUR
D. JHANSI
ANSWER: B. MEERUT
EXPLANATION:
THE REVOLT BEGAN ON 10 MAY 1857 IN MEERUT, WHEN INDIAN SOLDIERS REVOLTED AGAINST BRITISH OFFICERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC MTS 2019
SSC GD 2022
Q3. WHO WAS DECLARED THE EMPEROR OF INDIA DURING THE REVOLT OF 1857?
A. AKBAR II
B. BAHADUR SHAH ZAFAR
C. SHAH ALAM II
D. AURANGZEB
ANSWER: B. BAHADUR SHAH ZAFAR
EXPLANATION:
THE REBELS DECLARED BAHADUR SHAH ZAFAR AS THE SYMBOLIC EMPEROR TO UNITE INDIA AGAINST BRITISH RULE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2017
SSC CGL 2020
TOPIC: INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS (INC)
Q4. IN WHICH YEAR WAS THE INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS FOUNDED?
A. 1857
B. 1885
C. 1905
D. 1919
ANSWER: B. 1885
EXPLANATION:
INC WAS FOUNDED IN 1885 BY A.O. HUME TO CREATE A PLATFORM FOR CIVIL AND POLITICAL DIALOGUE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
Q5. WHO WAS THE FIRST PRESIDENT OF THE INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS?
A. DADABHAI NAOROJI
B. W.C. BONNERJEE
C. BADRUDDIN TYABJI
D. SURENDRANATH BANERJEE
ANSWER: B. W.C. BONNERJEE
EXPLANATION:
W.C. BONNERJEE PRESIDED OVER THE FIRST INC SESSION IN BOMBAY (1885).
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2018
SSC CGL 2021
TOPIC: GANDHIAN ERA
Q6. IN WHICH YEAR DID MAHATMA GANDHI LAUNCH THE NON-COOPERATION MOVEMENT?
A. 1915
B. 1920
C. 1930
D. 1942
ANSWER: B. 1920
EXPLANATION:
THE MOVEMENT WAS LAUNCHED IN 1920 TO PROTEST AGAINST BRITISH RULE AND PROMOTE SELF-RELIANCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q7. WHICH MOVEMENT IS ASSOCIATED WITH THE DANDI MARCH?
A. QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT
B. NON-COOPERATION MOVEMENT
C. CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE MOVEMENT
D. SWADESHI MOVEMENT
ANSWER: C. CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE MOVEMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE DANDI MARCH (1930) MARKED THE BEGINNING OF THE CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE MOVEMENT AGAINST SALT LAWS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
TOPIC: BRITISH ACTS & POLICIES
Q8. THE REGULATING ACT WAS PASSED IN WHICH YEAR?
A. 1773
B. 1784
C. 1813
D. 1833
ANSWER: A. 1773
EXPLANATION:
THE REGULATING ACT OF 1773 WAS THE FIRST STEP BY THE BRITISH GOVERNMENT TO CONTROL THE EAST INDIA COMPANY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC MTS 2019
SSC GD 2022
Q9. PITT’S INDIA ACT WAS PASSED IN WHICH YEAR?
A. 1773
B. 1784
C. 1813
D. 1858
ANSWER: B. 1784
EXPLANATION:
THIS ACT ESTABLISHED DUAL CONTROL OF THE BRITISH GOVERNMENT AND EAST INDIA COMPANY OVER INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2018
SSC CGL 2020
TOPIC: SOCIAL REFORM MOVEMENTS
Q10. WHO FOUNDED THE BRAHMO SAMAJ?
A. SWAMI VIVEKANANDA
B. RAJA RAM MOHAN ROY
C. DAYANAND SARASWATI
D. ISHWAR CHANDRA VIDYASAGAR
ANSWER: B. RAJA RAM MOHAN ROY
EXPLANATION:
BRAHMO SAMAJ WAS FOUNDED IN 1828 TO PROMOTE SOCIAL REFORMS AND OPPOSE PRACTICES LIKE SATI.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2021
TOPIC: REVOLT OF 1857 (CONTINUED)
Q11. WHO WAS THE LEADER OF THE REVOLT OF 1857 IN KANPUR?
A. TANTIA TOPE
B. NANA SAHIB
C. BEGUM HAZRAT MAHAL
D. RANI LAKSHMI BAI
ANSWER: B. NANA SAHIB
EXPLANATION:
NANA SAHIB LED THE REVOLT IN KANPUR AND PLAYED A CRUCIAL ROLE AGAINST BRITISH FORCES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
Q12. WHO LED THE REVOLT OF 1857 IN JHANSI?
A. RANI LAKSHMI BAI
B. SAROJINI NAIDU
C. ANNIE BESANT
D. KASTURBA GANDHI
ANSWER: A. RANI LAKSHMI BAI
EXPLANATION:
RANI LAKSHMI BAI WAS ONE OF THE BRAVEST LEADERS WHO FOUGHT AGAINST THE BRITISH IN JHANSI.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC MTS 2019
SSC GD 2023
Q13. WHO WAS THE GOVERNOR-GENERAL OF INDIA DURING THE REVOLT OF 1857?
A. LORD DALHOUSIE
B. LORD CANNING
C. LORD CURZON
D. LORD RIPON
ANSWER: B. LORD CANNING
EXPLANATION:
LORD CANNING WAS THE GOVERNOR-GENERAL AT THE TIME OF THE REVOLT AND LATER BECAME THE FIRST VICEROY OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2018
SSC CGL 2021
TOPIC: INDIAN NATIONAL MOVEMENT (MODERATE PHASE)
Q14. WHO IS KNOWN AS THE “GRAND OLD MAN OF INDIA”?
A. BAL GANGADHAR TILAK
B. GOPAL KRISHNA GOKHALE
C. DADABHAI NAOROJI
D. LALA LAJPAT RAI
ANSWER: C. DADABHAI NAOROJI
EXPLANATION:
DADABHAI NAOROJI EARNED THIS TITLE FOR HIS CONTRIBUTIONS AND HIS FAMOUS DRAIN THEORY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
Q15. THE PARTITION OF BENGAL TOOK PLACE IN WHICH YEAR?
A. 1903
B. 1905
C. 1907
D. 1911
ANSWER: B. 1905
EXPLANATION:
THE PARTITION WAS DONE BY LORD CURZON AND LED TO THE SWADESHI MOVEMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC MTS 2020
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: EXTREMIST PHASE
Q16. WHO GAVE THE SLOGAN “SWARAJ IS MY BIRTHRIGHT AND I SHALL HAVE IT”?
A. LALA LAJPAT RAI
B. BIPIN CHANDRA PAL
C. BAL GANGADHAR TILAK
D. SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE
ANSWER: C. BAL GANGADHAR TILAK
EXPLANATION:
TILAK WAS A PROMINENT EXTREMIST LEADER WHO INSPIRED MASSES WITH THIS SLOGAN.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC CHSL 2018
SSC GD 2021
Q17. WHICH LEADER IS ASSOCIATED WITH THE HOME RULE MOVEMENT?
A. MAHATMA GANDHI
B. BAL GANGADHAR TILAK
C. ANNIE BESANT
D. BOTH B AND C
ANSWER: D. BOTH B AND C
EXPLANATION:
THE HOME RULE MOVEMENT (1916) WAS LED BY BOTH TILAK AND ANNIE BESANT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC CHSL 2021
TOPIC: GANDHIAN MOVEMENTS (CONTINUED)
Q18. IN WHICH YEAR WAS THE QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT LAUNCHED?
A. 1930
B. 1942
C. 1919
D. 1920
ANSWER: B. 1942
EXPLANATION:
LAUNCHED DURING WORLD WAR II, IT DEMANDED AN IMMEDIATE END TO BRITISH RULE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC MTS 2019
SSC GD 2022
Q19. THE CHAMPARAN SATYAGRAHA WAS RELATED TO:
A. COTTON FARMERS
B. INDIGO FARMERS
C. TEA PLANTATION WORKERS
D. SALT WORKERS
ANSWER: B. INDIGO FARMERS
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS GANDHI’S FIRST MOVEMENT IN INDIA (1917), SUPPORTING INDIGO CULTIVATORS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2018
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: REVOLUTIONARY MOVEMENTS
Q20. WHO THREW A BOMB IN THE CENTRAL LEGISLATIVE ASSEMBLY?
A. CHANDRASHEKHAR AZAD
B. BHAGAT SINGH
C. RAJGURU
D. SUKHDEV
ANSWER: B. BHAGAT SINGH
EXPLANATION:
BHAGAT SINGH AND BATUKESHWAR DUTT THREW BOMBS IN 1929 TO PROTEST BRITISH LAWS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: REVOLUTIONARY MOVEMENTS (CONTINUED)
Q21. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF THE HINDUSTAN SOCIALIST REPUBLICAN ASSOCIATION (HSRA)?
A. BHAGAT SINGH
B. CHANDRASHEKHAR AZAD
C. RAM PRASAD BISMIL
D. SACHINDRA NATH SANYAL
ANSWER: D. SACHINDRA NATH SANYAL
EXPLANATION:
HSRA WAS FOUNDED TO ORGANIZE REVOLUTIONARY ACTIVITIES AGAINST BRITISH RULE. LATER, LEADERS LIKE BHAGAT SINGH AND AZAD BECAME PROMINENT MEMBERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2020
Q22. WHO WAS ASSOCIATED WITH THE KAKORI CONSPIRACY CASE?
A. BHAGAT SINGH
B. RAM PRASAD BISMIL
C. SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE
D. LALA LAJPAT RAI
ANSWER: B. RAM PRASAD BISMIL
EXPLANATION:
THE KAKORI INCIDENT (1925) INVOLVED REVOLUTIONARIES LOOTING A TRAIN CARRYING BRITISH FUNDS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC MTS 2019
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: BRITISH POLICIES & ACTS
Q23. THE CHARTER ACT OF 1813 IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
A. ENDING COMPANY RULE
B. TRADE MONOPOLY ENDED
C. INTRODUCTION OF DUAL GOVERNMENT
D. BEGINNING OF CROWN RULE
ANSWER: B. TRADE MONOPOLY ENDED
EXPLANATION:
THE CHARTER ACT OF 1813 ENDED THE EAST INDIA COMPANY’S TRADE MONOPOLY EXCEPT IN TEA AND CHINA TRADE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2019
Q24. THE GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT 1858 TRANSFERRED POWER TO:
A. EAST INDIA COMPANY
B. BRITISH PARLIAMENT
C. BRITISH CROWN
D. GOVERNOR-GENERAL
ANSWER: C. BRITISH CROWN
EXPLANATION:
AFTER THE REVOLT OF 1857, POWER SHIFTED FROM THE COMPANY TO THE BRITISH CROWN.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC GD 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC: SOCIAL & RELIGIOUS REFORM MOVEMENTS
Q25. WHO FOUNDED THE ARYA SAMAJ?
A. RAJA RAM MOHAN ROY
B. SWAMI VIVEKANANDA
C. DAYANAND SARASWATI
D. ISHWAR CHANDRA VIDYASAGAR
ANSWER: C. DAYANAND SARASWATI
EXPLANATION:
ARYA SAMAJ (1875) PROMOTED THE IDEA OF RETURNING TO VEDIC VALUES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2018
SSC GD 2023
Q26. WHO FOUNDED THE RAMAKRISHNA MISSION?
A. SWAMI VIVEKANANDA
B. RAMAKRISHNA PARAMHANSA
C. DAYANAND SARASWATI
D. ANNIE BESANT
ANSWER: A. SWAMI VIVEKANANDA
EXPLANATION:
FOUNDED IN 1897, IT AIMED AT SOCIAL SERVICE AND SPIRITUAL UPLIFTMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC MTS 2019
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: GANDHIAN ERA (ADVANCED)
Q27. WHICH EVENT LED TO THE LAUNCH OF THE NON-COOPERATION MOVEMENT?
A. SIMON COMMISSION
B. JALLIANWALA BAGH MASSACRE
C. PARTITION OF BENGAL
D. QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT
ANSWER: B. JALLIANWALA BAGH MASSACRE
EXPLANATION:
THE 1919 MASSACRE DEEPLY SHOCKED THE NATION AND LED GANDHI TO LAUNCH THE MOVEMENT IN 1920.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q28. THE CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE MOVEMENT STARTED WITH:
A. QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT
B. DANDI MARCH
C. CHAMPARAN SATYAGRAHA
D. SWADESHI MOVEMENT
ANSWER: B. DANDI MARCH
EXPLANATION:
GANDHI STARTED THE MOVEMENT BY BREAKING THE SALT LAW AT DANDI IN 1930.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
TOPIC: IMPORTANT SESSIONS & EVENTS
Q29. THE LAHORE SESSION OF INC (1929) IS FAMOUS FOR:
A. SWADESHI MOVEMENT
B. COMPLETE INDEPENDENCE RESOLUTION
C. PARTITION OF BENGAL
D. QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT
ANSWER: B. COMPLETE INDEPENDENCE RESOLUTION
EXPLANATION:
UNDER JAWAHARLAL NEHRU, INC DECLARED PURNA SWARAJ IN 1929.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
Q30. WHO PRESIDED OVER THE LAHORE SESSION OF 1929?
A. MAHATMA GANDHI
B. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
C. SARDAR PATEL
D. SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE
ANSWER: B. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
EXPLANATION:
NEHRU BECAME INC PRESIDENT AND DECLARED INDEPENDENCE AS THE ULTIMATE GOAL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: REVOLT OF 1857 (ADVANCED)
Q31. WHO WAS THE LEADER OF THE REVOLT OF 1857 IN LUCKNOW?
A. BEGUM HAZRAT MAHAL
B. RANI LAKSHMI BAI
C. NANA SAHIB
D. TANTIA TOPE
ANSWER: A. BEGUM HAZRAT MAHAL
EXPLANATION:
BEGUM HAZRAT MAHAL LED THE REVOLT IN LUCKNOW AND PLAYED A SIGNIFICANT ROLE IN AWADH RESISTANCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
Q32. WHO WAS THE MUGHAL EMPEROR DURING THE REVOLT OF 1857?
A. AKBAR II
B. BAHADUR SHAH ZAFAR
C. SHAH ALAM II
D. AURANGZEB
ANSWER: B. BAHADUR SHAH ZAFAR
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS DECLARED THE SYMBOLIC EMPEROR BY THE REBELS DURING THE REVOLT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC MTS 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q33. THE REVOLT OF 1857 IS ALSO KNOWN AS:
A. SEPOY MUTINY
B. FIRST WAR OF INDEPENDENCE
C. REVOLT OF SOLDIERS
D. BOTH A AND B
ANSWER: D. BOTH A AND B
EXPLANATION:
BRITISH HISTORIANS CALLED IT SEPOY MUTINY, WHILE INDIANS CONSIDER IT THE FIRST WAR OF INDEPENDENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC CHSL 2018
SSC GD 2021
TOPIC: INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS (ADVANCED)
Q34. WHERE WAS THE FIRST SESSION OF INC HELD?
A. CALCUTTA
B. BOMBAY
C. MADRAS
D. DELHI
ANSWER: B. BOMBAY
EXPLANATION:
THE FIRST SESSION WAS HELD IN BOMBAY IN 1885.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q35. WHO FOUNDED THE INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS?
A. LORD CURZON
B. A.O. HUME
C. LORD DUFFERIN
D. MAHATMA GANDHI
ANSWER: B. A.O. HUME
EXPLANATION:
A.O. HUME, A RETIRED BRITISH OFFICER, FOUNDED INC IN 1885.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC MTS 2019
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: SWADESHI & PARTITION OF BENGAL
Q36. WHO WAS THE VICEROY DURING THE PARTITION OF BENGAL?
A. LORD CURZON
B. LORD RIPON
C. LORD CANNING
D. LORD WELLESLEY
ANSWER: A. LORD CURZON
EXPLANATION:
LORD CURZON PARTITIONED BENGAL IN 1905, LEADING TO WIDESPREAD PROTESTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q37. THE SWADESHI MOVEMENT STARTED IN RESPONSE TO:
A. JALLIANWALA BAGH
B. PARTITION OF BENGAL
C. SIMON COMMISSION
D. QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT
ANSWER: B. PARTITION OF BENGAL
EXPLANATION:
IT ENCOURAGED THE USE OF INDIAN GOODS AND BOYCOTT OF BRITISH PRODUCTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC MTS 2020
TOPIC: GANDHIAN ERA (IMPORTANT EVENTS)
Q38. THE JALLIANWALA BAGH MASSACRE TOOK PLACE IN:
A. 1915
B. 1919
C. 1920
D. 1930
ANSWER: B. 1919
EXPLANATION:
BRITISH TROOPS UNDER GENERAL DYER FIRED ON UNARMED CIVILIANS IN AMRITSAR.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
Q39. WHO LED THE DANDI MARCH?
A. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
B. SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE
C. MAHATMA GANDHI
D. SARDAR PATEL
ANSWER: C. MAHATMA GANDHI
EXPLANATION:
GANDHI LED THE SALT MARCH IN 1930 TO PROTEST BRITISH SALT LAWS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC CHSL 2018
SSC GD 2021
TOPIC: REVOLUTIONARY ACTIVITIES
Q40. WHO ASSASSINATED SAUNDERS?
A. BHAGAT SINGH
B. RAJGURU
C. SUKHDEV
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
ANSWER: D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
EXPLANATION:
BHAGAT SINGH, RAJGURU, AND SUKHDEV WERE INVOLVED IN THE ASSASSINATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
TOPIC: IMPORTANT COMMITTEES & COMMISSIONS
Q41. THE SIMON COMMISSION WAS APPOINTED IN:
A. 1919
B. 1927
C. 1930
D. 1935
ANSWER: B. 1927
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS BOYCOTTED BECAUSE IT HAD NO INDIAN MEMBERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC MTS 2019
SSC GD 2022
Q42. THE SLOGAN “SIMON GO BACK” IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
A. QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT
B. SIMON COMMISSION
C. SWADESHI MOVEMENT
D. NON-COOPERATION MOVEMENT
ANSWER: B. SIMON COMMISSION
EXPLANATION:
INDIANS PROTESTED AGAINST THE ALL-BRITISH COMMISSION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2018
SSC CGL 2021
TOPIC: IMPORTANT LEADERS & CONTRIBUTIONS
Q43. WHO FOUNDED THE FORWARD BLOC?
A. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
B. SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE
C. MAHATMA GANDHI
D. RAJENDRA PRASAD
ANSWER: B. SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE
EXPLANATION:
FORWARD BLOC WAS FORMED IN 1939 AFTER BOSE RESIGNED FROM INC.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
Q44. WHO GAVE THE SLOGAN “GIVE ME BLOOD, I WILL GIVE YOU FREEDOM”?
A. BHAGAT SINGH
B. SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE
C. GANDHI
D. TILAK
ANSWER: B. SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE
EXPLANATION:
THIS SLOGAN INSPIRED INDIANS TO JOIN THE FREEDOM STRUGGLE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: BRITISH RULE & GOVERNANCE
Q45. WHO WAS THE FIRST VICEROY OF INDIA?
A. LORD CANNING
B. LORD CURZON
C. LORD RIPON
D. LORD DALHOUSIE
ANSWER: A. LORD CANNING
EXPLANATION:
AFTER 1858, LORD CANNING BECAME THE FIRST VICEROY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC MTS 2020
Q46. THE DOCTRINE OF LAPSE WAS INTRODUCED BY:
A. LORD CANNING
B. LORD DALHOUSIE
C. LORD CURZON
D. LORD RIPON
ANSWER: B. LORD DALHOUSIE
EXPLANATION:
IT ALLOWED THE BRITISH TO ANNEX STATES WITHOUT A NATURAL HEIR.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: MISCELLANEOUS IMPORTANT FACTS
Q47. WHO WAS KNOWN AS THE “IRON MAN OF INDIA”?
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. SARDAR PATEL
D. BOSE
ANSWER: C. SARDAR PATEL
EXPLANATION:
HE PLAYED A MAJOR ROLE IN INTEGRATING PRINCELY STATES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
Q48. WHO WAS THE FIRST INDIAN GOVERNOR-GENERAL?
A. RAJENDRA PRASAD
B. C. RAJAGOPALACHARI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: B. C. RAJAGOPALACHARI
EXPLANATION:
HE BECAME GOVERNOR-GENERAL AFTER INDEPENDENCE IN 1948.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2018
SSC CGL 2021
Q49. THE CABINET MISSION CAME TO INDIA IN:
A. 1940
B. 1942
C. 1946
D. 1947
ANSWER: C. 1946
EXPLANATION:
IT PROPOSED A PLAN FOR THE TRANSFER OF POWER.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC MTS 2019
SSC GD 2023
Q50. INDIA BECAME INDEPENDENT IN:
A. 1945
B. 1946
C. 1947
D. 1950
ANSWER: C. 1947
EXPLANATION:
INDIA GAINED INDEPENDENCE ON 15 AUGUST 1947.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: GOVERNOR-GENERALS & VICEROYS
Q51. WHO INTRODUCED THE PERMANENT SETTLEMENT IN BENGAL?
A. LORD CORNWALLIS
B. LORD WELLESLEY
C. LORD HASTINGS
D. LORD DALHOUSIE
ANSWER: A. LORD CORNWALLIS
EXPLANATION:
THE PERMANENT SETTLEMENT (1793) FIXED LAND REVENUE AND CREATED THE ZAMINDARI SYSTEM.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
Q52. WHO INTRODUCED SUBSIDIARY ALLIANCE?
A. LORD DALHOUSIE
B. LORD WELLESLEY
C. LORD CORNWALLIS
D. LORD CURZON
ANSWER: B. LORD WELLESLEY
EXPLANATION:
THIS SYSTEM FORCED INDIAN RULERS TO ACCEPT BRITISH TROOPS AND CONTROL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC MTS 2020
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: IMPORTANT ACTS & REFORMS
Q53. THE CHARTER ACT OF 1833 MADE THE GOVERNOR-GENERAL OF BENGAL AS:
A. GOVERNOR-GENERAL OF INDIA
B. VICEROY
C. SECRETARY OF STATE
D. PRESIDENT
ANSWER: A. GOVERNOR-GENERAL OF INDIA
EXPLANATION:
IT CENTRALIZED ADMINISTRATION AND MADE THE GG OF BENGAL THE GG OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
Q54. THE INDIAN COUNCILS ACT OF 1909 IS ALSO KNOWN AS:
A. MORLEY-MINTO REFORMS
B. MONTAGU-CHELMSFORD REFORMS
C. REGULATING ACT
D. PITTS INDIA ACT
ANSWER: A. MORLEY-MINTO REFORMS
EXPLANATION:
IT INTRODUCED SEPARATE ELECTORATES FOR MUSLIMS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2019
TOPIC: FREEDOM STRUGGLE (PRE-GANDHIAN ERA)
Q55. WHO FOUNDED THE SERVANTS OF INDIA SOCIETY?
A. GOPAL KRISHNA GOKHALE
B. TILAK
C. GANDHI
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A. GOPAL KRISHNA GOKHALE
EXPLANATION:
FOUNDED IN 1905 TO PROMOTE SOCIAL SERVICE AND EDUCATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q56. WHO STARTED THE NEWSPAPER “KESARI”?
A. TILAK
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. TILAK
EXPLANATION:
KESARI WAS USED TO SPREAD NATIONALIST IDEAS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC GD 2021
TOPIC: GANDHIAN MOVEMENTS (DEEP)
Q57. GANDHI RETURNED TO INDIA FROM SOUTH AFRICA IN:
A. 1910
B. 1915
C. 1920
D. 1930
ANSWER: B. 1915
EXPLANATION:
AFTER RETURNING, HE BECAME THE LEADER OF THE NATIONAL MOVEMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
Q58. THE ROWLATT ACT WAS PASSED IN:
A. 1917
B. 1919
C. 1921
D. 1935
ANSWER: B. 1919
EXPLANATION:
IT ALLOWED DETENTION WITHOUT TRIAL, LEADING TO PROTESTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC MTS 2020
TOPIC: REVOLUTIONARY MOVEMENTS (ADVANCED)
Q59. WHO FOUNDED THE GHADAR PARTY?
A. LALA LAJPAT RAI
B. BHAGAT SINGH
C. LALA HARDAYAL
D. TILAK
ANSWER: C. LALA HARDAYAL
EXPLANATION:
FOUNDED IN THE USA TO FIGHT BRITISH RULE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2023
Q60. THE AZAD HIND FAUJ WAS FORMED BY:
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: C. SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE
EXPLANATION:
INA AIMED TO OVERTHROW BRITISH RULE WITH ARMED STRUGGLE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: IMPORTANT EVENTS
Q61. THE CRIPPS MISSION CAME TO INDIA IN:
A. 1940
B. 1942
C. 1945
D. 1946
ANSWER: B. 1942
EXPLANATION:
IT PROPOSED DOMINION STATUS BUT WAS REJECTED.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC MTS 2019
Q62. THE AUGUST OFFER WAS ANNOUNCED IN:
A. 1935
B. 1940
C. 1942
D. 1946
ANSWER: B. 1940
EXPLANATION:
IT AIMED TO GAIN INDIAN SUPPORT DURING WWII.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: INC SESSIONS & LEADERS
Q63. WHO PRESIDED OVER THE INC SESSION OF 1907 (SURAT SPLIT)?
A. TILAK
B. RASH BEHARI GHOSH
C. GANDHI
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: B. RASH BEHARI GHOSH
EXPLANATION:
SESSION LED TO SPLIT BETWEEN MODERATES AND EXTREMISTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2020
Q64. THE FIRST MUSLIM PRESIDENT OF INC WAS:
A. BADRUDDIN TYABJI
B. ABUL KALAM AZAD
C. JINNAH
D. ZAKIR HUSSAIN
ANSWER: A. BADRUDDIN TYABJI
EXPLANATION:
HE PRESIDED OVER INC SESSION IN 1887.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: SOCIAL REFORMERS
Q65. WHO ABOLISHED SATI SYSTEM?
A. LORD DALHOUSIE
B. LORD WILLIAM BENTINCK
C. LORD CURZON
D. LORD RIPON
ANSWER: B. LORD WILLIAM BENTINCK
EXPLANATION:
SATI WAS ABOLISHED IN 1829 WITH SUPPORT OF RAJA RAM MOHAN ROY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
Q66. WIDOW REMARRIAGE ACT WAS PASSED IN:
A. 1829
B. 1856
C. 1861
D. 1875
ANSWER: B. 1856
EXPLANATION:
SUPPORTED BY ISHWAR CHANDRA VIDYASAGAR.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC MTS 2020
TOPIC: MISCELLANEOUS (HIGH FREQUENCY)
Q67. WHO WAS THE FIRST PRESIDENT OF INDIA?
A. NEHRU
B. RAJENDRA PRASAD
C. GANDHI
D. PATEL
ANSWER: B. RAJENDRA PRASAD
EXPLANATION:
HE BECAME PRESIDENT IN 1950.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC GD 2021
Q68. WHO WROTE “DISCOVERY OF INDIA”?
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. TAGORE
ANSWER: B. NEHRU
EXPLANATION:
WRITTEN DURING IMPRISONMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2021
Q69. WHO GAVE THE SLOGAN “DO OR DIE”?
A. GANDHI
B. BOSE
C. TILAK
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A. GANDHI
EXPLANATION:
GIVEN DURING QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
Q70. WHO WAS THE FIRST PRIME MINISTER OF INDIA?
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. PATEL
D. RAJENDRA PRASAD
ANSWER: B. NEHRU
EXPLANATION:
HE SERVED FROM 1947 TO 1964.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC CHSL 2019
Q71. THE VERNACULAR PRESS ACT WAS PASSED IN:
A. 1878
B. 1885
C. 1905
D. 1919
ANSWER: A. 1878
EXPLANATION:
IT RESTRICTED INDIAN LANGUAGE NEWSPAPERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
Q72. WHO REPEALED THE VERNACULAR PRESS ACT?
A. LORD RIPON
B. LORD CURZON
C. LORD CANNING
D. LORD DALHOUSIE
ANSWER: A. LORD RIPON
EXPLANATION:
HE SUPPORTED FREEDOM OF PRESS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q73. THE ILBERT BILL CONTROVERSY IS RELATED TO:
A. JUDICIARY
B. EDUCATION
C. ARMY
D. TRADE
ANSWER: A. JUDICIARY
EXPLANATION:
IT ALLOWED INDIAN JUDGES TO TRY EUROPEANS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2023
Q74. WHO INTRODUCED ENGLISH EDUCATION IN INDIA?
A. LORD MACAULAY
B. LORD CURZON
C. LORD RIPON
D. LORD DALHOUSIE
ANSWER: A. LORD MACAULAY
EXPLANATION:
MACAULAY’S MINUTE (1835) PROMOTED ENGLISH EDUCATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2019
Q75. THE HUNTER COMMISSION IS RELATED TO:
A. EDUCATION
B. ARMY
C. JUDICIARY
D. TRADE
ANSWER: A. EDUCATION
EXPLANATION:
IT REVIEWED EDUCATION SYSTEM IN 1882.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2022
Q76. WHO FORMED THE MUSLIM LEAGUE?
A. JINNAH
B. AGA KHAN
C. NAWAB SALIMULLAH
D. BOTH B AND C
ANSWER: D. BOTH B AND C
EXPLANATION:
FOUNDED IN 1906 AT DHAKA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC CHSL 2021
Q77. THE LUCKNOW PACT WAS SIGNED IN:
A. 1915
B. 1916
C. 1919
D. 1920
ANSWER: B. 1916
EXPLANATION:
AGREEMENT BETWEEN INC AND MUSLIM LEAGUE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2023
Q78. WHO CHAIRED THE DRAFTING COMMITTEE OF THE CONSTITUTION?
A. NEHRU
B. AMBEDKAR
C. PATEL
D. RAJENDRA PRASAD
ANSWER: B. AMBEDKAR
EXPLANATION:
HE IS KNOWN AS THE FATHER OF INDIAN CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2019
Q79. THE POONA PACT WAS SIGNED IN:
A. 1930
B. 1932
C. 1935
D. 1942
ANSWER: B. 1932
EXPLANATION:
AGREEMENT BETWEEN GANDHI AND AMBEDKAR.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
Q80. WHO STARTED THE ALIGARH MOVEMENT?
A. SIR SYED AHMED KHAN
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. SIR SYED AHMED KHAN
EXPLANATION:
IT AIMED AT MODERN EDUCATION FOR MUSLIMS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
TOPIC: MIXED HIGH-FREQUENCY PYQS
Q81. THE CAPITAL OF BRITISH INDIA WAS SHIFTED FROM CALCUTTA TO DELHI IN:
A. 1905
B. 1911
C. 1919
D. 1935
ANSWER: B. 1911
EXPLANATION:
THE BRITISH SHIFTED THE CAPITAL DURING THE DELHI DURBAR OF 1911 TO BETTER CONTROL ADMINISTRATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2021
Q82. HOW MANY MEMBERS WERE THERE IN THE SIMON COMMISSION?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
ANSWER: C. 7
EXPLANATION:
THE SIMON COMMISSION (1927) HAD 7 BRITISH MEMBERS AND NO INDIAN MEMBER.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC CGL 2020
Q83. THE INDIAN NATIONAL ARMY (INA) WAS FORMED IN:
A. 1939
B. 1940
C. 1942
D. 1945
ANSWER: C. 1942
EXPLANATION:
INA WAS FORMED DURING WORLD WAR II TO FIGHT AGAINST BRITISH RULE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
Q84. THE GANDHI-IRWIN PACT WAS SIGNED IN:
A. 1929
B. 1930
C. 1931
D. 1932
ANSWER: C. 1931
EXPLANATION:
THIS PACT LED TO THE SUSPENSION OF THE CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE MOVEMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2023
SSC CGL 2018
Q85. THE FIRST ROUND TABLE CONFERENCE WAS HELD IN:
A. 1929
B. 1930
C. 1931
D. 1932
ANSWER: B. 1930
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS HELD IN LONDON TO DISCUSS CONSTITUTIONAL REFORMS IN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q86. THE QUIT INDIA RESOLUTION WAS PASSED AT:
A. DELHI
B. BOMBAY
C. CALCUTTA
D. LAHORE
ANSWER: B. BOMBAY
EXPLANATION:
THE QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT WAS LAUNCHED FROM BOMBAY IN 1942.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q87. WHO WAS THE HEAD OF THE CABINET MISSION?
A. CRIPPS
B. MOUNTBATTEN
C. PETHICK LAWRENCE
D. WAVELL
ANSWER: C. PETHICK LAWRENCE
EXPLANATION:
HE LED THE CABINET MISSION (1946) TO DISCUSS TRANSFER OF POWER.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC MTS 2019
Q88. THE TERM “FIRST WAR OF INDEPENDENCE” WAS GIVEN BY:
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. V.D. SAVARKAR
D. TILAK
ANSWER: C. V.D. SAVARKAR
EXPLANATION:
SAVARKAR USED THIS TERM TO DESCRIBE THE REVOLT OF 1857.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2016
Q89. WHO FOUNDED BANARAS HINDU UNIVERSITY?
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. MADAN MOHAN MALAVIYA
D. TILAK
ANSWER: C. MADAN MOHAN MALAVIYA
EXPLANATION:
BHU WAS ESTABLISHED IN 1916 TO PROMOTE EDUCATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2019
Q90. WHO STARTED THE HARIJAN MOVEMENT?
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. AMBEDKAR
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. GANDHI
EXPLANATION:
IT AIMED AT UPLIFTING THE UNTOUCHABLES (HARIJANS).
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
Q91. WHO LED THE BARDOLI SATYAGRAHA?
A. GANDHI
B. PATEL
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. PATEL
EXPLANATION:
SARDAR PATEL LED THIS MOVEMENT AGAINST INCREASED TAXES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2023
SSC CGL 2017
Q92. THE SALT SATYAGRAHA WAS LAUNCHED IN:
A. 1929
B. 1930
C. 1931
D. 1932
ANSWER: B. 1930
EXPLANATION:
IT BEGAN WITH THE DANDI MARCH LED BY GANDHI.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2018
SSC GD 2022
Q93. WHO GAVE THE SLOGAN “INQUILAB ZINDABAD”?
A. GANDHI
B. BHAGAT SINGH
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. BHAGAT SINGH
EXPLANATION:
THIS SLOGAN BECAME A POWERFUL REVOLUTIONARY CALL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2023
Q94. WHO WAS THE FIRST LAW MINISTER OF INDEPENDENT INDIA?
A. NEHRU
B. AMBEDKAR
C. PATEL
D. RAJENDRA PRASAD
ANSWER: B. AMBEDKAR
EXPLANATION:
DR. B.R. AMBEDKAR SERVED AS THE FIRST LAW MINISTER.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2021
Q95. WHO DESIGNED THE INDIAN NATIONAL FLAG?
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. PINGALI VENKAYYA
D. BOSE
ANSWER: C. PINGALI VENKAYYA
EXPLANATION:
HE DESIGNED THE TRICOLOUR FLAG ADOPTED IN 1947.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2018
Q96. WHO WAS THE LAST GOVERNOR-GENERAL OF INDIA?
A. MOUNTBATTEN
B. RAJAGOPALACHARI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: B. RAJAGOPALACHARI
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS THE LAST GOVERNOR-GENERAL AND THE ONLY INDIAN TO HOLD THE POST.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC CGL 2017
Q97. WHO WAS THE FIRST VICEROY OF INDIA?
A. DALHOUSIE
B. CANNING
C. CURZON
D. RIPON
ANSWER: B. CANNING
EXPLANATION:
LORD CANNING BECAME THE FIRST VICEROY AFTER 1858.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC GD 2022
Q98. THE FIRST SESSION OF THE INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS WAS HELD IN:
A. CALCUTTA
B. BOMBAY
C. MADRAS
D. DELHI
ANSWER: B. BOMBAY
EXPLANATION:
HELD IN 1885 UNDER W.C. BONNERJEE.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2023
SSC CGL 2016
Q99. THE SWADESHI MOVEMENT STARTED IN:
A. 1903
B. 1905
C. 1907
D. 1911
ANSWER: B. 1905
EXPLANATION:
IT BEGAN AS A PROTEST AGAINST THE PARTITION OF BENGAL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
Q100. WHO GAVE THE SLOGAN “JAI HIND”?
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: C. SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE
EXPLANATION:
“JAI HIND” BECAME A NATIONAL SLOGAN DURING THE FREEDOM STRUGGLE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: PEASANT & TRIBAL MOVEMENTS
Q101. THE INDIGO REVOLT TOOK PLACE IN:
A. PUNJAB
B. BENGAL
C. BIHAR
D. ODISHA
ANSWER: B. BENGAL
EXPLANATION:
THE INDIGO REVOLT (1859–60) WAS AGAINST THE EXPLOITATION OF INDIGO FARMERS BY BRITISH PLANTERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
Q102. THE SANTHAL REBELLION (1855–56) TOOK PLACE IN:
A. MAHARASHTRA
B. BENGAL
C. BIHAR & JHARKHAND
D. PUNJAB
ANSWER: C. BIHAR & JHARKHAND
EXPLANATION:
LED BY SIDHU AND KANHU, IT WAS AGAINST ZAMINDARS AND BRITISH POLICIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2023
Q103. THE DECCAN RIOTS WERE RELATED TO:
A. INDUSTRIAL WORKERS
B. FARMERS
C. SOLDIERS
D. TRADERS
ANSWER: B. FARMERS
EXPLANATION:
OCCURRED IN 1875 DUE TO FARMER INDEBTEDNESS IN MAHARASHTRA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2020
TOPIC: IMPORTANT NEWSPAPERS & LITERATURE
Q104. WHO STARTED THE NEWSPAPER “YOUNG INDIA”?
A. TILAK
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. GANDHI
EXPLANATION:
GANDHI USED IT TO SPREAD NATIONALIST IDEAS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
Q105. WHO STARTED “AMRITA BAZAR PATRIKA”?
A. TILAK
B. MOTILAL NEHRU
C. SISIR KUMAR GHOSH
D. GANDHI
ANSWER: C. SISIR KUMAR GHOSH
EXPLANATION:
IT BECAME AN IMPORTANT NATIONALIST NEWSPAPER.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
Q106. “HIND SWARAJ” WAS WRITTEN BY:
A. NEHRU
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. TILAK
ANSWER: B. GANDHI
EXPLANATION:
WRITTEN IN 1909, IT EXPLAINS GANDHI’S VISION OF SWARAJ.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: EDUCATION & CULTURAL DEVELOPMENTS
Q107. WHO FOUNDED THE ALIGARH MUSLIM UNIVERSITY?
A. GANDHI
B. SIR SYED AHMED KHAN
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. SIR SYED AHMED KHAN
EXPLANATION:
IT BEGAN AS MAO COLLEGE AND LATER BECAME AMU.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2019
Q108. THE WOOD’S DESPATCH IS RELATED TO:
A. JUDICIARY
B. EDUCATION
C. ARMY
D. TRADE
ANSWER: B. EDUCATION
EXPLANATION:
IT LAID THE FOUNDATION OF MODERN EDUCATION SYSTEM IN INDIA (1854).
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: ECONOMIC IMPACT OF BRITISH RULE
Q109. WHO GAVE THE “DRAIN THEORY”?
A. TILAK
B. GANDHI
C. DADABHAI NAOROJI
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: C. DADABHAI NAOROJI
EXPLANATION:
IT EXPLAINED HOW WEALTH WAS DRAINED FROM INDIA TO BRITAIN.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q110. WHICH INDUSTRY WAS MOST AFFECTED BY BRITISH POLICIES?
A. IRON
B. TEXTILE
C. COAL
D. STEEL
ANSWER: B. TEXTILE
EXPLANATION:
INDIAN TEXTILE INDUSTRY DECLINED DUE TO BRITISH IMPORTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: PRINCELY STATES & POLICIES
Q111. THE DOCTRINE OF LAPSE WAS ABOLISHED BY:
A. LORD DALHOUSIE
B. LORD CANNING
C. LORD CURZON
D. LORD RIPON
ANSWER: B. LORD CANNING
EXPLANATION:
AFTER 1857 REVOLT, THE POLICY WAS WITHDRAWN.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
Q112. SUBSIDIARY ALLIANCE AIMED AT:
A. TRADE
B. POLITICAL CONTROL
C. EDUCATION
D. JUDICIARY
ANSWER: B. POLITICAL CONTROL
EXPLANATION:
IT MADE INDIAN RULERS DEPENDENT ON THE BRITISH.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: WOMEN & REFORM MOVEMENTS
Q113. WHO WAS ASSOCIATED WITH WIDOW REMARRIAGE MOVEMENT?
A. GANDHI
B. VIDYASAGAR
C. TILAK
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: B. VIDYASAGAR
EXPLANATION:
HE PLAYED A MAJOR ROLE IN PASSING THE WIDOW REMARRIAGE ACT (1856).
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2019
Q114. WHO FOUNDED THE THEOSOPHICAL SOCIETY IN INDIA?
A. ANNIE BESANT
B. BLAVATSKY
C. OLCOTT
D. BOTH B AND C
ANSWER: D. BOTH B AND C
EXPLANATION:
FOUNDED BY HELENA BLAVATSKY AND COLONEL OLCOTT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: MISCELLANEOUS IMPORTANT (HIGH YIELD)
Q115. WHO WAS THE FIRST INDIAN TO JOIN ICS?
A. SATYENDRA NATH TAGORE
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. GANDHI
ANSWER: A. SATYENDRA NATH TAGORE
EXPLANATION:
HE BECAME THE FIRST INDIAN ICS OFFICER IN 1863.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
Q116. WHO WAS THE FIRST FEMALE PRESIDENT OF INC?
A. SAROJINI NAIDU
B. ANNIE BESANT
C. INDIRA GANDHI
D. VIJAYALAKSHMI PANDIT
ANSWER: B. ANNIE BESANT
EXPLANATION:
SHE BECAME INC PRESIDENT IN 1917.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC GD 2023
Q117. WHO WAS THE FIRST INDIAN WOMAN GOVERNOR?
A. SAROJINI NAIDU
B. INDIRA GANDHI
C. ANNIE BESANT
D. KAMALA NEHRU
ANSWER: A. SAROJINI NAIDU
EXPLANATION:
SHE BECAME GOVERNOR OF UTTAR PRADESH.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
Q118. THE POONA PACT WAS SIGNED BETWEEN:
A. GANDHI & NEHRU
B. GANDHI & AMBEDKAR
C. NEHRU & PATEL
D. BOSE & GANDHI
ANSWER: B. GANDHI & AMBEDKAR
EXPLANATION:
SIGNED IN 1932 REGARDING REPRESENTATION OF DEPRESSED CLASSES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
Q119. THE INA TRIALS WERE HELD AT:
A. DELHI
B. RED FORT
C. BOMBAY
D. LAHORE
ANSWER: B. RED FORT
EXPLANATION:
INA SOLDIERS WERE TRIED AT RED FORT, DELHI.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2019
Q120. THE MOUNTBATTEN PLAN WAS ANNOUNCED IN:
A. 1946
B. 1947
C. 1945
D. 1942
ANSWER: B. 1947
EXPLANATION:
IT LED TO THE PARTITION AND INDEPENDENCE OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: TRIBAL & REGIONAL UPRISINGS (ADVANCED)
Q121. THE MUNDA REBELLION WAS LED BY:
A. SIDHU
B. KANHU
C. BIRSA MUNDA
D. ALLURI SITARAMA RAJU
ANSWER: C. BIRSA MUNDA
EXPLANATION:
BIRSA MUNDA LED THE TRIBAL REVOLT IN JHARKHAND AGAINST BRITISH EXPLOITATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q122. THE RAMOSI UPRISING TOOK PLACE IN:
A. BENGAL
B. MAHARASHTRA
C. PUNJAB
D. BIHAR
ANSWER: B. MAHARASHTRA
EXPLANATION:
THE RAMOSI REVOLT WAS AGAINST BRITISH LAND REVENUE POLICIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: IMPORTANT ORGANIZATIONS & SOCIETIES
Q123. WHO FOUNDED THE SERVANTS OF INDIA SOCIETY?
A. TILAK
B. GOKHALE
C. GANDHI
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. GOKHALE
EXPLANATION:
FOUNDED IN 1905 TO PROMOTE EDUCATION AND SOCIAL REFORMS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
Q124. THE THEOSOPHICAL SOCIETY HEADQUARTERS IS AT:
A. BOMBAY
B. DELHI
C. ADYAR
D. CALCUTTA
ANSWER: C. ADYAR
EXPLANATION:
ITS HEADQUARTERS IS LOCATED IN ADYAR (CHENNAI).
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: BRITISH EXPANSION POLICIES
Q125. WHO INTRODUCED THE POLICY OF RING FENCE?
A. WELLESLEY
B. CORNWALLIS
C. HASTINGS
D. DALHOUSIE
ANSWER: C. HASTINGS
EXPLANATION:
IT AIMED AT PROTECTING COMPANY TERRITORIES BY BUFFER STATES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2019
Q126. THE DOCTRINE OF PARAMOUNTCY MEANS:
A. TRADE CONTROL
B. POLITICAL SUPREMACY
C. MILITARY ALLIANCE
D. RELIGIOUS POLICY
ANSWER: B. POLITICAL SUPREMACY
EXPLANATION:
IT ASSERTED BRITISH SUPREMACY OVER PRINCELY STATES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: IMPORTANT COMMITTEES & REPORTS
Q127. THE HUNTER COMMISSION (1919) WAS RELATED TO:
A. EDUCATION
B. JALLIANWALA BAGH INQUIRY
C. ARMY
D. TRADE
ANSWER: B. JALLIANWALA BAGH INQUIRY
EXPLANATION:
IT INVESTIGATED THE JALLIANWALA BAGH MASSACRE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q128. THE SARGENT PLAN (1944) IS RELATED TO:
A. DEFENCE
B. EDUCATION
C. TRADE
D. JUDICIARY
ANSWER: B. EDUCATION
EXPLANATION:
IT AIMED AT DEVELOPMENT OF EDUCATION IN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: GANDHIAN PHILOSOPHY & METHODS
Q129. GANDHI’S CONCEPT OF “SATYAGRAHA” MEANS:
A. WAR
B. TRUTH FORCE
C. VIOLENCE
D. PROTEST
ANSWER: B. TRUTH FORCE
EXPLANATION:
IT MEANS INSISTENCE ON TRUTH AND NON-VIOLENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC CHSL 2019
Q130. SABARMATI ASHRAM IS LOCATED IN:
A. GUJARAT
B. MAHARASHTRA
C. DELHI
D. PUNJAB
ANSWER: A. GUJARAT
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS GANDHI’S RESIDENCE AND CENTER OF ACTIVITIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: CONSTITUTIONAL DEVELOPMENTS
Q131. THE GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT 1935 INTRODUCED:
A. FEDERATION
B. REPUBLIC
C. DOMINION STATUS
D. INDEPENDENCE
ANSWER: A. FEDERATION
EXPLANATION:
IT PROPOSED AN ALL-INDIA FEDERATION (NOT FULLY IMPLEMENTED).
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
Q132. THE AUGUST OFFER WAS PROPOSED BY:
A. CRIPPS
B. LINLITHGOW
C. MOUNTBATTEN
D. WAVELL
ANSWER: B. LINLITHGOW
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS ANNOUNCED IN 1940 TO GAIN INDIAN SUPPORT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: IMPORTANT LEADERS & CONTRIBUTIONS
Q133. WHO FOUNDED THE INDIAN NATIONAL ARMY FIRST?
A. SUBHAS BOSE
B. MOHAN SINGH
C. GANDHI
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: B. MOHAN SINGH
EXPLANATION:
INA WAS INITIALLY FORMED BY MOHAN SINGH BEFORE BOSE TOOK LEADERSHIP.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
Q134. WHO LED THE KHEDA SATYAGRAHA?
A. GANDHI
B. PATEL
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. GANDHI
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS ORGANIZED IN 1918 FOR TAX RELIEF TO FARMERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: MISCELLANEOUS (VERY HIGH YIELD)
Q135. THE FIRST RAILWAY LINE IN INDIA WAS LAID IN:
A. 1845
B. 1853
C. 1860
D. 1870
ANSWER: B. 1853
EXPLANATION:
BETWEEN BOMBAY AND THANE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC CHSL 2019
Q136. WHO WAS THE FIRST GOVERNOR-GENERAL OF BENGAL?
A. CLIVE
B. WARREN HASTINGS
C. CORNWALLIS
D. DALHOUSIE
ANSWER: B. WARREN HASTINGS
EXPLANATION:
HE BECAME GG UNDER REGULATING ACT 1773.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
Q137. THE PITT’S INDIA ACT WAS PASSED IN:
A. 1773
B. 1784
C. 1813
D. 1833
ANSWER: B. 1784
EXPLANATION:
IT ESTABLISHED DUAL CONTROL SYSTEM.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
Q138. WHO WAS THE VICEROY DURING QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT?
A. LINLITHGOW
B. WAVELL
C. MOUNTBATTEN
D. CURZON
ANSWER: A. LINLITHGOW
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS VICEROY IN 1942.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2023
Q139. THE SLOGAN “DELHI CHALO” WAS GIVEN BY:
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. SUBHAS BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: C. SUBHAS BOSE
EXPLANATION:
IT MOTIVATED INA SOLDIERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
Q140. THE PARTITION OF INDIA WAS BASED ON:
A. LANGUAGE
B. RELIGION
C. ECONOMY
D. REGION
ANSWER: B. RELIGION
EXPLANATION:
INDIA WAS DIVIDED INTO INDIA AND PAKISTAN ON RELIGIOUS BASIS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: TRADE, ECONOMY & COLONIAL IMPACT
Q141. THE “DRAIN OF WEALTH” THEORY WAS FIRST EXPLAINED IN DETAIL IN WHICH BOOK?
A. POVERTY AND UN-BRITISH RULE IN INDIA
B. DISCOVERY OF INDIA
C. HIND SWARAJ
D. INDIA WINS FREEDOM
ANSWER: A. POVERTY AND UN-BRITISH RULE IN INDIA
EXPLANATION:
THIS BOOK BY DADABHAI NAOROJI EXPLAINED HOW BRITISH POLICIES DRAINED WEALTH FROM INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q142. WHICH CROP WAS ASSOCIATED WITH THE CHAMPARAN SATYAGRAHA?
A. COTTON
B. INDIGO
C. TEA
D. WHEAT
ANSWER: B. INDIGO
EXPLANATION:
FARMERS WERE FORCED TO GROW INDIGO UNDER THE TINKATHIA SYSTEM.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2021
TOPIC: IMPORTANT MOVEMENTS & EVENTS (ADVANCED)
Q143. THE BARDOLI SATYAGRAHA TOOK PLACE IN:
A. 1917
B. 1918
C. 1928
D. 1930
ANSWER: C. 1928
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS LED BY SARDAR PATEL AGAINST INCREASED LAND REVENUE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2023
Q144. THE NON-COOPERATION MOVEMENT WAS WITHDRAWN AFTER:
A. JALLIANWALA BAGH
B. CHAURI CHAURA INCIDENT
C. DANDI MARCH
D. QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT
ANSWER: B. CHAURI CHAURA INCIDENT
EXPLANATION:
GANDHI WITHDREW THE MOVEMENT IN 1922 DUE TO VIOLENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: BRITISH ADMINISTRATION & REFORMS
Q145. THE VERNACULAR PRESS ACT WAS PASSED BY:
A. LORD CURZON
B. LORD LYTTON
C. LORD RIPON
D. LORD DALHOUSIE
ANSWER: B. LORD LYTTON
EXPLANATION:
IT AIMED TO SUPPRESS INDIAN LANGUAGE NEWSPAPERS (1878).
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2023
Q146. THE ILBERT BILL WAS INTRODUCED IN:
A. 1878
B. 1883
C. 1905
D. 1919
ANSWER: B. 1883
EXPLANATION:
IT ALLOWED INDIAN JUDGES TO TRY EUROPEANS, LEADING TO CONTROVERSY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
TOPIC: REVOLUTIONARY ACTIVITIES (DEEP)
Q147. WHO WAS KNOWN AS THE “TIGER OF MYSORE”?
A. HYDER ALI
B. TIPU SULTAN
C. SHIVAJI
D. RANJIT SINGH
ANSWER: B. TIPU SULTAN
EXPLANATION:
TIPU SULTAN FOUGHT BRAVELY AGAINST BRITISH EXPANSION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC GD 2022
Q148. THE CHAPEKAR BROTHERS ARE ASSOCIATED WITH:
A. KAKORI CASE
B. ASSASSINATION OF RAND
C. INA
D. HSRA
ANSWER: B. ASSASSINATION OF RAND
EXPLANATION:
THEY ASSASSINATED BRITISH OFFICER RAND IN PUNE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
TOPIC: CULTURAL & RELIGIOUS REFORM (ADVANCED)
Q149. WHO FOUNDED THE PRARTHANA SAMAJ?
A. RANADE
B. TILAK
C. GANDHI
D. VIVEKANANDA
ANSWER: A. RANADE
EXPLANATION:
IT PROMOTED SOCIAL REFORMS LIKE WIDOW REMARRIAGE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2023
Q150. WHO STARTED THE SATYASHODHAK SAMAJ?
A. JYOTIBA PHULE
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A. JYOTIBA PHULE
EXPLANATION:
IT WORKED FOR UPLIFTMENT OF LOWER CASTES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
TOPIC: CONSTITUTIONAL & POLITICAL DEVELOPMENTS
Q151. THE CRIPPS MISSION WAS SENT IN:
A. 1940
B. 1942
C. 1945
D. 1946
ANSWER: B. 1942
EXPLANATION:
IT AIMED TO SECURE INDIAN COOPERATION IN WWII.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2022
Q152. THE WAVELL PLAN WAS ANNOUNCED IN:
A. 1942
B. 1945
C. 1946
D. 1947
ANSWER: B. 1945
EXPLANATION:
IT PROPOSED RECONSTITUTION OF EXECUTIVE COUNCIL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
TOPIC: IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES
Q153. WHO WAS KNOWN AS “LOKMANYA”?
A. GANDHI
B. TILAK
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. TILAK
EXPLANATION:
TILAK WAS CALLED LOKMANYA FOR HIS MASS APPEAL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC GD 2023
Q154. WHO GAVE THE SLOGAN “VANDE MATARAM”?
A. BANKIM CHANDRA CHATTOPADHYAY
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. BANKIM CHANDRA CHATTOPADHYAY
EXPLANATION:
IT BECAME A NATIONAL SONG DURING FREEDOM STRUGGLE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2019
TOPIC: FINAL MIXED (HIGH PROBABILITY)
Q155. THE SURAT SPLIT OCCURRED IN:
A. 1905
B. 1907
C. 1911
D. 1919
ANSWER: B. 1907
EXPLANATION:
IT DIVIDED INC INTO MODERATES AND EXTREMISTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2022
Q156. WHO WAS THE FIRST INDIAN WOMAN TO BECOME PRESIDENT OF INC?
A. ANNIE BESANT
B. SAROJINI NAIDU
C. INDIRA GANDHI
D. KAMALA NEHRU
ANSWER: B. SAROJINI NAIDU
EXPLANATION:
SHE BECAME INC PRESIDENT IN 1925.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
Q157. THE JALLIANWALA BAGH MASSACRE TOOK PLACE IN WHICH CITY?
A. DELHI
B. LAHORE
C. AMRITSAR
D. KANPUR
ANSWER: C. AMRITSAR
EXPLANATION:
IT OCCURRED IN PUNJAB IN 1919.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2023
Q158. WHO WAS THE VICEROY AT THE TIME OF PARTITION OF INDIA?
A. WAVELL
B. MOUNTBATTEN
C. LINLITHGOW
D. CURZON
ANSWER: B. MOUNTBATTEN
EXPLANATION:
LORD MOUNTBATTEN OVERSAW INDEPENDENCE AND PARTITION IN 1947.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q159. THE SWADESHI MOVEMENT EMPHASIZED:
A. FOREIGN GOODS
B. INDIAN GOODS
C. MILITARY REFORMS
D. JUDICIARY
ANSWER: B. INDIAN GOODS
EXPLANATION:
IT PROMOTED INDIGENOUS INDUSTRIES AND BOYCOTT OF BRITISH GOODS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC GD 2022
Q160. THE QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT STARTED IN:
A. 1940
B. 1942
C. 1945
D. 1947
ANSWER: B. 1942
EXPLANATION:
IT DEMANDED IMMEDIATE INDEPENDENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: EARLY NATIONALISM & MODERATES
Q161. WHO IS KNOWN AS THE “FATHER OF INDIAN NATIONALISM”?
A. DADABHAI NAOROJI
B. SURENDRANATH BANERJEE
C. BAL GANGADHAR TILAK
D. GOPAL KRISHNA GOKHALE
ANSWER: B. SURENDRANATH BANERJEE
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS ONE OF THE EARLIEST LEADERS WHO SPREAD POLITICAL AWARENESS IN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q162. THE INDIAN ASSOCIATION WAS FOUNDED IN:
A. 1876
B. 1885
C. 1905
D. 1919
ANSWER: A. 1876
EXPLANATION:
FOUNDED BY SURENDRANATH BANERJEE TO UNITE INDIANS POLITICALLY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: EXTREMIST LEADERS & ACTIVITIES
Q163. LAL-BAL-PAL REFERS TO:
A. THREE BRITISH OFFICERS
B. THREE EXTREMIST LEADERS
C. THREE REFORM MOVEMENTS
D. THREE ACTS
ANSWER: B. THREE EXTREMIST LEADERS
EXPLANATION:
LALA LAJPAT RAI, BAL GANGADHAR TILAK, AND BIPIN CHANDRA PAL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
Q164. WHO AMONG THE FOLLOWING WAS KNOWN AS “PUNJAB KESARI”?
A. TILAK
B. LALA LAJPAT RAI
C. BHAGAT SINGH
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. LALA LAJPAT RAI
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS A PROMINENT NATIONALIST LEADER FROM PUNJAB.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: REVOLUTIONARY ORGANIZATIONS
Q165. THE ANUSHILAN SAMITI WAS FOUNDED IN:
A. BENGAL
B. PUNJAB
C. MAHARASHTRA
D. GUJARAT
ANSWER: A. BENGAL
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS A REVOLUTIONARY GROUP INVOLVED IN ANTI-BRITISH ACTIVITIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q166. WHO FOUNDED THE ABHINAV BHARAT SOCIETY?
A. SAVARKAR
B. TILAK
C. GANDHI
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. SAVARKAR
EXPLANATION:
FOUNDED BY V.D. SAVARKAR FOR REVOLUTIONARY ACTIVITIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: IMPORTANT SESSIONS & RESOLUTIONS
Q167. THE KARACHI SESSION (1931) IS FAMOUS FOR:
A. SWADESHI MOVEMENT
B. FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS RESOLUTION
C. PARTITION
D. QUIT INDIA
ANSWER: B. FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS RESOLUTION
EXPLANATION:
INC ADOPTED RESOLUTION ON FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS AND ECONOMIC POLICY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
Q168. THE LUCKNOW SESSION (1916) IS IMPORTANT FOR:
A. PARTITION
B. LUCKNOW PACT
C. SWADESHI MOVEMENT
D. QUIT INDIA
ANSWER: B. LUCKNOW PACT
EXPLANATION:
AGREEMENT BETWEEN CONGRESS AND MUSLIM LEAGUE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: IMPORTANT COMMITTEES & PLANS
Q169. THE SIMON COMMISSION REPORT WAS PUBLISHED IN:
A. 1928
B. 1930
C. 1935
D. 1940
ANSWER: B. 1930
EXPLANATION:
IT RECOMMENDED CONSTITUTIONAL REFORMS BUT WAS WIDELY OPPOSED.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
Q170. THE CABINET MISSION PROPOSED:
A. COMPLETE INDEPENDENCE
B. PARTITION
C. FEDERAL STRUCTURE
D. DOMINION STATUS
ANSWER: C. FEDERAL STRUCTURE
EXPLANATION:
IT SUGGESTED A UNITED INDIA WITH A FEDERAL SYSTEM.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: IMPORTANT ACTS (ADVANCED)
Q171. THE INDIAN COUNCILS ACT 1892 INTRODUCED:
A. DIRECT ELECTIONS
B. INDIRECT ELECTIONS
C. UNIVERSAL FRANCHISE
D. INDEPENDENCE
ANSWER: B. INDIRECT ELECTIONS
EXPLANATION:
IT ALLOWED LIMITED REPRESENTATION THROUGH INDIRECT ELECTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
Q172. THE GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT 1919 IS ALSO KNOWN AS:
A. MORLEY-MINTO REFORMS
B. MONTAGU-CHELMSFORD REFORMS
C. REGULATING ACT
D. PITTS ACT
ANSWER: B. MONTAGU-CHELMSFORD REFORMS
EXPLANATION:
IT INTRODUCED DYARCHY IN PROVINCES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: FREEDOM STRUGGLE (ADVANCED EVENTS)
Q173. THE KHEDA SATYAGRAHA TOOK PLACE IN:
A. 1917
B. 1918
C. 1920
D. 1930
ANSWER: B. 1918
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS A PEASANT MOVEMENT LED BY GANDHI IN GUJARAT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC CHSL 2019
Q174. THE CHAMPARAN SATYAGRAHA WAS RELATED TO:
A. SALT
B. INDIGO
C. TAX
D. EDUCATION
ANSWER: B. INDIGO
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS GANDHI’S FIRST MOVEMENT IN INDIA (1917).
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES (DEEP)
Q175. WHO IS KNOWN AS THE “NIGHTINGALE OF INDIA”?
A. SAROJINI NAIDU
B. ANNIE BESANT
C. INDIRA GANDHI
D. KAMALA NEHRU
ANSWER: A. SAROJINI NAIDU
EXPLANATION:
SHE WAS A POET AND FREEDOM FIGHTER.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q176. WHO FOUNDED THE HOME RULE LEAGUE IN MADRAS?
A. TILAK
B. ANNIE BESANT
C. GANDHI
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: B. ANNIE BESANT
EXPLANATION:
SHE STARTED IT IN 1916.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: FINAL MIXED (NEW HIGH YIELD)
Q177. THE ROWLATT SATYAGRAHA WAS LAUNCHED IN:
A. 1917
B. 1919
C. 1920
D. 1930
ANSWER: B. 1919
EXPLANATION:
IT PROTESTED AGAINST THE ROWLATT ACT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2021
Q178. THE JALLIANWALA BAGH MASSACRE WAS ORDERED BY:
A. CURZON
B. DYER
C. DALHOUSIE
D. RIPON
ANSWER: B. DYER
EXPLANATION:
GENERAL DYER ORDERED FIRING ON PEACEFUL CROWD.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC GD 2022
Q179. THE INA TRIALS LED TO:
A. END OF CONGRESS
B. RISE OF NATIONALISM
C. BRITISH VICTORY
D. PARTITION
ANSWER: B. RISE OF NATIONALISM
EXPLANATION:
IT CREATED WIDESPREAD SUPPORT FOR FREEDOM STRUGGLE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q180. THE INDIAN INDEPENDENCE ACT WAS PASSED IN:
A. 1945
B. 1946
C. 1947
D. 1950
ANSWER: C. 1947
EXPLANATION:
IT ENDED BRITISH RULE IN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: EARLY BRITISH EXPANSION & WARS
Q181. THE BATTLE OF PLASSEY WAS FOUGHT IN:
A. 1757
B. 1764
C. 1773
D. 1784
ANSWER: A. 1757
EXPLANATION:
THE BATTLE OF PLASSEY (1757) MARKED THE BEGINNING OF BRITISH POLITICAL CONTROL IN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q182. THE BATTLE OF BUXAR WAS FOUGHT IN:
A. 1757
B. 1764
C. 1773
D. 1784
ANSWER: B. 1764
EXPLANATION:
IT CONSOLIDATED BRITISH POWER AFTER DEFEATING MIR QASIM, SHUJA-UD-DAULA, AND SHAH ALAM II.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: ADMINISTRATIVE SYSTEMS
Q183. THE DUAL GOVERNMENT IN BENGAL WAS INTRODUCED BY:
A. CLIVE
B. HASTINGS
C. CORNWALLIS
D. DALHOUSIE
ANSWER: A. CLIVE
EXPLANATION:
IT DIVIDED ADMINISTRATION BETWEEN COMPANY AND NAWAB.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
Q184. THE RYOTWARI SYSTEM WAS INTRODUCED BY:
A. CORNWALLIS
B. MUNRO
C. WELLESLEY
D. HASTINGS
ANSWER: B. MUNRO
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS INTRODUCED IN MADRAS AND BOMBAY PRESIDENCIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: ANGLO-MYSORE & ANGLO-MARATHA WARS
Q185. THE THIRD ANGLO-MYSORE WAR ENDED WITH:
A. TREATY OF PARIS
B. TREATY OF SERINGAPATAM
C. TREATY OF SALBAI
D. TREATY OF BASSEIN
ANSWER: B. TREATY OF SERINGAPATAM
EXPLANATION:
SIGNED IN 1792 BETWEEN TIPU SULTAN AND BRITISH.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
Q186. THE TREATY OF BASSEIN WAS SIGNED IN:
A. 1802
B. 1805
C. 1813
D. 1818
ANSWER: A. 1802
EXPLANATION:
IT MADE PESHWA DEPENDENT ON BRITISH.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: SOCIO-RELIGIOUS REFORM MOVEMENTS (DEEP)
Q187. WHO FOUNDED THE YOUNG BENGAL MOVEMENT?
A. RAJA RAM MOHAN ROY
B. HENRY VIVIAN DEROZIO
C. VIDYASAGAR
D. VIVEKANANDA
ANSWER: B. HENRY VIVIAN DEROZIO
EXPLANATION:
IT PROMOTED RADICAL THINKING AND REFORM.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
Q188. THE ALIGARH MOVEMENT AIMED AT:
A. HINDU REFORM
B. MUSLIM EDUCATION
C. POLITICAL REVOLUTION
D. TRADE
ANSWER: B. MUSLIM EDUCATION
EXPLANATION:
LED BY SIR SYED AHMED KHAN.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: IMPORTANT JOURNALS & PUBLICATIONS
Q189. WHO PUBLISHED “BANDE MATARAM” NEWSPAPER?
A. TILAK
B. AUROBINDO GHOSH
C. GANDHI
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: B. AUROBINDO GHOSH
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS A NATIONALIST NEWSPAPER.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2020
Q190. “HARIJAN” NEWSPAPER WAS STARTED BY:
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A. GANDHI
EXPLANATION:
IT FOCUSED ON UPLIFTMENT OF UNTOUCHABLES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: IMPORTANT MOVEMENTS (ADVANCED)
Q191. THE TEBHAGA MOVEMENT WAS RELATED TO:
A. WORKERS
B. PEASANTS
C. SOLDIERS
D. TRADERS
ANSWER: B. PEASANTS
EXPLANATION:
IT DEMANDED TWO-THIRDS SHARE FOR FARMERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2021
Q192. THE TELANGANA MOVEMENT WAS AGAINST:
A. BRITISH
B. NIZAM RULE
C. FRENCH
D. PORTUGUESE
ANSWER: B. NIZAM RULE
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS A PEASANT UPRISING IN HYDERABAD STATE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: CONSTITUTIONAL DEVELOPMENTS (FINAL PHASE)
Q193. THE INTERIM GOVERNMENT WAS FORMED IN:
A. 1945
B. 1946
C. 1947
D. 1948
ANSWER: B. 1946
EXPLANATION:
FORMED BEFORE INDEPENDENCE UNDER NEHRU.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q194. THE CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY WAS FORMED IN:
A. 1945
B. 1946
C. 1947
D. 1950
ANSWER: B. 1946
EXPLANATION:
IT DRAFTED THE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: FINAL IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES & FACTS
Q195. WHO WAS KNOWN AS “DESHBANDHU”?
A. GANDHI
B. C.R. DAS
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. C.R. DAS
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS A PROMINENT NATIONALIST LEADER.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC CHSL 2021
Q196. WHO WAS KNOWN AS “FRONTIER GANDHI”?
A. KHAN ABDUL GHAFFAR KHAN
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. KHAN ABDUL GHAFFAR KHAN
EXPLANATION:
HE LED NON-VIOLENT MOVEMENT IN NWFP.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
Q197. WHO ORGANIZED THE AZAD HIND GOVERNMENT?
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. SUBHAS BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: C. SUBHAS BOSE
EXPLANATION:
HE FORMED IT IN EXILE DURING WWII.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
Q198. THE QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT IS ALSO KNOWN AS:
A. AUGUST MOVEMENT
B. SEPTEMBER MOVEMENT
C. OCTOBER MOVEMENT
D. JULY MOVEMENT
ANSWER: A. AUGUST MOVEMENT
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS LAUNCHED IN AUGUST 1942.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
Q199. THE FIRST ROUND TABLE CONFERENCE WAS ATTENDED BY:
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. NONE OF THEM
D. BOSE
ANSWER: C. NONE OF THEM
EXPLANATION:
CONGRESS DID NOT PARTICIPATE IN THE FIRST RTC.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
Q200. THE CRIPPS MISSION FAILED BECAUSE:
A. BRITISH REFUSAL
B. INDIAN REJECTION
C. WAR
D. ECONOMY
ANSWER: B. INDIAN REJECTION
EXPLANATION:
INDIAN LEADERS REJECTED IT DUE TO LACK OF FULL INDEPENDENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: EUROPEAN COMPANIES & EARLY TRADE
Q201. THE PORTUGUESE WERE THE FIRST EUROPEANS TO ARRIVE IN INDIA. WHO LED THEM?
A. COLUMBUS
B. VASCO DA GAMA
C. MAGELLAN
D. CABRAL
ANSWER: B. VASCO DA GAMA
EXPLANATION:
VASCO DA GAMA REACHED CALICUT IN 1498, OPENING SEA ROUTE TO INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q202. THE ENGLISH EAST INDIA COMPANY WAS ESTABLISHED IN:
A. 1498
B. 1600
C. 1664
D. 1757
ANSWER: B. 1600
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS FORMED BY A ROYAL CHARTER OF QUEEN ELIZABETH I.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: CARNATIC WARS
Q203. THE FIRST CARNATIC WAR WAS FOUGHT BETWEEN:
A. BRITISH & DUTCH
B. BRITISH & FRENCH
C. FRENCH & PORTUGUESE
D. BRITISH & PORTUGUESE
ANSWER: B. BRITISH & FRENCH
EXPLANATION:
IT MARKED THE BEGINNING OF ANGLO-FRENCH RIVALRY IN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
Q204. THE CARNATIC WARS ENDED WITH:
A. TREATY OF PARIS
B. TREATY OF SERINGAPATAM
C. TREATY OF BASSEIN
D. TREATY OF ALLAHABAD
ANSWER: A. TREATY OF PARIS
EXPLANATION:
TREATY OF PARIS (1763) ENDED FRENCH POWER IN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: LAND REVENUE SYSTEMS (ADVANCED)
Q205. THE MAHALWARI SYSTEM WAS INTRODUCED BY:
A. MUNRO
B. HOLT MACKENZIE
C. CORNWALLIS
D. DALHOUSIE
ANSWER: B. HOLT MACKENZIE
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS IMPLEMENTED IN NORTH-WESTERN PROVINCES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
Q206. PERMANENT SETTLEMENT WAS INTRODUCED IN:
A. BENGAL
B. PUNJAB
C. BOMBAY
D. MADRAS
ANSWER: A. BENGAL
EXPLANATION:
INTRODUCED BY CORNWALLIS IN 1793.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: PRESS & EDUCATION REFORMS
Q207. THE VERNACULAR PRESS ACT WAS REPEALED IN:
A. 1880
B. 1882
C. 1885
D. 1890
ANSWER: B. 1882
EXPLANATION:
LORD RIPON REPEALED IT, SUPPORTING PRESS FREEDOM.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
Q208. THE FIRST PRINTING PRESS IN INDIA WAS SET UP BY:
A. BRITISH
B. PORTUGUESE
C. DUTCH
D. FRENCH
ANSWER: B. PORTUGUESE
EXPLANATION:
THEY INTRODUCED PRINTING IN GOA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: PEASANT & TRIBAL MOVEMENTS (DEEP)
Q209. THE KOL REBELLION TOOK PLACE IN:
A. BENGAL
B. BIHAR
C. CHOTANAGPUR
D. PUNJAB
ANSWER: C. CHOTANAGPUR
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS AGAINST BRITISH AND ZAMINDARI SYSTEM.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
Q210. THE MOPLAH REBELLION TOOK PLACE IN:
A. BENGAL
B. KERALA
C. PUNJAB
D. GUJARAT
ANSWER: B. KERALA
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS A PEASANT UPRISING IN MALABAR REGION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: REVOLUTIONARY MOVEMENTS (ADVANCED)
Q211. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF THE GHADAR MOVEMENT?
A. LALA HARDAYAL
B. BHAGAT SINGH
C. BOSE
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A. LALA HARDAYAL
EXPLANATION:
IT AIMED AT OVERTHROWING BRITISH RULE THROUGH ARMED REVOLT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
Q212. THE KAKORI CONSPIRACY TOOK PLACE IN:
A. 1920
B. 1925
C. 1930
D. 1935
ANSWER: B. 1925
EXPLANATION:
IT INVOLVED LOOTING OF TRAIN CARRYING GOVERNMENT MONEY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: FREEDOM STRUGGLE (FINAL PHASE)
Q213. THE DIRECT ACTION DAY WAS OBSERVED IN:
A. 1945
B. 1946
C. 1947
D. 1948
ANSWER: B. 1946
EXPLANATION:
CALLED BY MUSLIM LEAGUE LEADING TO COMMUNAL RIOTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q214. THE RADCLIFFE LINE WAS RELATED TO:
A. TRADE
B. EDUCATION
C. PARTITION BOUNDARY
D. ARMY
ANSWER: C. PARTITION BOUNDARY
EXPLANATION:
IT DIVIDED INDIA AND PAKISTAN IN 1947.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES (ADVANCED)
Q215. WHO WAS KNOWN AS “IRON MAN OF INDIA”?
A. NEHRU
B. PATEL
C. GANDHI
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. PATEL
EXPLANATION:
HE INTEGRATED PRINCELY STATES INTO INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2021
Q216. WHO IS CALLED THE “ARCHITECT OF INDIAN CONSTITUTION”?
A. NEHRU
B. AMBEDKAR
C. GANDHI
D. PATEL
ANSWER: B. AMBEDKAR
EXPLANATION:
HE CHAIRED THE DRAFTING COMMITTEE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: FINAL MIXED (VERY IMPORTANT)
Q217. THE FIRST SESSION OF MUSLIM LEAGUE WAS HELD IN:
A. DELHI
B. DHAKA
C. LAHORE
D. BOMBAY
ANSWER: B. DHAKA
EXPLANATION:
FOUNDED IN 1906 AT DHAKA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC CHSL 2020
Q218. THE GANDHI-IRWIN PACT IS RELATED TO:
A. NON-COOPERATION
B. CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE
C. QUIT INDIA
D. SWADESHI
ANSWER: B. CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE
EXPLANATION:
IT LED TO SUSPENSION OF CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE MOVEMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
Q219. THE SIMON COMMISSION WAS BOYCOTTED BECAUSE:
A. NO INDIANS
B. WAR
C. ECONOMY
D. TRADE
ANSWER: A. NO INDIANS
EXPLANATION:
ALL MEMBERS WERE BRITISH.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
Q220. THE FIRST WAR OF INDEPENDENCE ENDED IN:
A. 1857
B. 1858
C. 1860
D. 1865
ANSWER: B. 1858
EXPLANATION:
THE REVOLT WAS SUPPRESSED BY 1858.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: COLONIAL ECONOMY & INFRASTRUCTURE
Q221. THE FIRST TELEGRAPH LINE IN INDIA WAS STARTED BETWEEN:
A. BOMBAY–PUNE
B. CALCUTTA–AGRA
C. DELHI–LAHORE
D. MADRAS–BANGALORE
ANSWER: B. CALCUTTA–AGRA
EXPLANATION:
THE FIRST TELEGRAPH LINE WAS LAID IN 1851, IMPROVING COMMUNICATION FOR BRITISH ADMINISTRATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q222. THE INTRODUCTION OF RAILWAYS IN INDIA WAS PRIMARILY FOR:
A. PASSENGER COMFORT
B. TRADE AND ADMINISTRATION
C. TOURISM
D. EDUCATION
ANSWER: B. TRADE AND ADMINISTRATION
EXPLANATION:
RAILWAYS WERE INTRODUCED TO TRANSPORT RAW MATERIALS AND TROOPS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: JUDICIARY & LEGAL REFORMS
Q223. THE SUPREME COURT AT CALCUTTA WAS ESTABLISHED IN:
A. 1773
B. 1774
C. 1784
D. 1793
ANSWER: B. 1774
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS ESTABLISHED UNDER THE REGULATING ACT OF 1773.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
Q224. THE HIGH COURTS IN INDIA WERE ESTABLISHED UNDER:
A. REGULATING ACT
B. INDIAN HIGH COURTS ACT 1861
C. PITT’S INDIA ACT
D. CHARTER ACT 1833
ANSWER: B. INDIAN HIGH COURTS ACT 1861
EXPLANATION:
THIS ACT CREATED HIGH COURTS AT CALCUTTA, BOMBAY, AND MADRAS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: TRIBAL & PEASANT MOVEMENTS (ADVANCED)
Q225. THE WAHABI MOVEMENT WAS STARTED BY:
A. SYED AHMED BARELVI
B. GANDHI
C. TILAK
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. SYED AHMED BARELVI
EXPLANATION:
IT AIMED AT REFORMING ISLAM AND OPPOSING BRITISH RULE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
Q226. THE PAGAL PANTHI MOVEMENT WAS LED BY:
A. TIPU SHAH
B. KARAM SHAH
C. BHAGAT SINGH
D. TILAK
ANSWER: B. KARAM SHAH
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS A TRIBAL MOVEMENT IN BENGAL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: SOCIAL REFORM MOVEMENTS (DEEP)
Q227. WHO FOUNDED THE WIDOW REMARRIAGE ASSOCIATION?
A. VIDYASAGAR
B. RANADE
C. TILAK
D. GANDHI
ANSWER: A. VIDYASAGAR
EXPLANATION:
HE STRONGLY SUPPORTED WIDOW REMARRIAGE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
Q228. WHO FOUNDED THE DECCAN EDUCATION SOCIETY?
A. TILAK
B. GOKHALE
C. GANDHI
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. TILAK
EXPLANATION:
IT AIMED TO PROMOTE EDUCATION IN MAHARASHTRA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: REVOLUTIONARY ACTIVITIES (DEEP)
Q229. THE HINDUSTAN REPUBLICAN ASSOCIATION (HRA) WAS FOUNDED IN:
A. 1919
B. 1924
C. 1930
D. 1935
ANSWER: B. 1924
EXPLANATION:
IT LATER BECAME HSRA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2020
Q230. WHO WAS ASSOCIATED WITH THE ALIPORE BOMB CASE?
A. BHAGAT SINGH
B. AUROBINDO GHOSH
C. BOSE
D. TILAK
ANSWER: B. AUROBINDO GHOSH
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS ARRESTED IN THIS REVOLUTIONARY CASE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: FREEDOM STRUGGLE (FINAL PHASE ADVANCED)
Q231. THE INA TRIALS TOOK PLACE IN:
A. 1945
B. 1946
C. 1947
D. 1948
ANSWER: A. 1945
EXPLANATION:
INA OFFICERS WERE TRIED AT RED FORT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2021
Q232. THE NAVAL MUTINY TOOK PLACE IN:
A. 1945
B. 1946
C. 1947
D. 1948
ANSWER: B. 1946
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS A REVOLT BY INDIAN SAILORS AGAINST BRITISH RULE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: IMPORTANT LEADERS & TITLES
Q233. WHO WAS KNOWN AS “ANDHRA KESARI”?
A. NEHRU
B. PRAKASAM
C. GANDHI
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. PRAKASAM
EXPLANATION:
TANGUTURI PRAKASAM WAS A FREEDOM FIGHTER FROM ANDHRA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q234. WHO WAS KNOWN AS “BIHAR KESARI”?
A. RAJENDRA PRASAD
B. SRI KRISHNA SINHA
C. GANDHI
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. SRI KRISHNA SINHA
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS AN IMPORTANT LEADER FROM BIHAR.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: MISCELLANEOUS (NEW HIGH YIELD)
Q235. THE FIRST CENSUS IN INDIA WAS CONDUCTED IN:
A. 1861
B. 1871
C. 1881
D. 1891
ANSWER: B. 1871
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS CONDUCTED UNDER BRITISH RULE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
Q236. THE INDIAN NATIONAL FLAG WAS ADOPTED IN:
A. 1946
B. 1947
C. 1948
D. 1950
ANSWER: B. 1947
EXPLANATION:
ADOPTED JUST BEFORE INDEPENDENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
Q237. WHO WAS THE LAST VICEROY OF INDIA?
A. WAVELL
B. MOUNTBATTEN
C. LINLITHGOW
D. CURZON
ANSWER: B. MOUNTBATTEN
EXPLANATION:
HE OVERSAW INDEPENDENCE AND PARTITION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
Q238. THE CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY ADOPTED THE CONSTITUTION IN:
A. 1947
B. 1948
C. 1949
D. 1950
ANSWER: C. 1949
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS ADOPTED ON 26 NOVEMBER 1949.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
Q239. THE FIRST GOVERNOR-GENERAL OF INDEPENDENT INDIA WAS:
A. MOUNTBATTEN
B. RAJAGOPALACHARI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. MOUNTBATTEN
EXPLANATION:
HE SERVED AFTER INDEPENDENCE IN 1947.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
Q240. THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION CAME INTO FORCE ON:
A. 15 AUGUST 1947
B. 26 JANUARY 1950
C. 26 NOVEMBER 1949
D. 2 OCTOBER 1948
ANSWER: B. 26 JANUARY 1950
EXPLANATION:
INDIA BECAME A REPUBLIC ON THIS DAY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: CHARTER ACTS & ADMINISTRATIVE CHANGES
Q241. THE CHARTER ACT OF 1813 ENDED:
A. TRADE MONOPOLY OF EIC
B. BRITISH RULE
C. MUGHAL RULE
D. FRENCH TRADE
ANSWER: A. TRADE MONOPOLY OF EIC
EXPLANATION:
IT ENDED EAST INDIA COMPANY’S MONOPOLY OVER INDIAN TRADE EXCEPT TEA AND CHINA TRADE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q242. THE CHARTER ACT OF 1833 MADE THE GOVERNOR-GENERAL OF BENGAL AS:
A. PRESIDENT
B. GOVERNOR-GENERAL OF INDIA
C. VICEROY
D. PRIME MINISTER
ANSWER: B. GOVERNOR-GENERAL OF INDIA
EXPLANATION:
IT CENTRALIZED ADMINISTRATION IN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: ECONOMIC POLICIES & IMPACT
Q243. THE COMMERCIALIZATION OF AGRICULTURE LED TO:
A. PROSPERITY OF FARMERS
B. INCREASE IN FOOD CROPS
C. GROWTH OF CASH CROPS
D. INDUSTRIALIZATION
ANSWER: C. GROWTH OF CASH CROPS
EXPLANATION:
FARMERS WERE FORCED TO GROW CASH CROPS LIKE INDIGO, COTTON.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
Q244. THE MAIN AIM OF BRITISH LAND REVENUE POLICY WAS:
A. WELFARE
B. PROFIT
C. EDUCATION
D. EQUALITY
ANSWER: B. PROFIT
EXPLANATION:
BRITISH POLICIES AIMED AT MAXIMIZING REVENUE EXTRACTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: SOCIO-RELIGIOUS REFORM (ADVANCED)
Q245. WHO FOUNDED THE RAMAKRISHNA MISSION?
A. VIVEKANANDA
B. RAMAKRISHNA
C. DAYANAND
D. GANDHI
ANSWER: A. VIVEKANANDA
EXPLANATION:
FOUNDED IN 1897 FOR SOCIAL AND SPIRITUAL UPLIFTMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
Q246. THE ARYA SAMAJ WAS FOUNDED IN:
A. 1875
B. 1885
C. 1895
D. 1905
ANSWER: A. 1875
EXPLANATION:
FOUNDED BY SWAMI DAYANAND SARASWATI.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: IMPORTANT MOVEMENTS & CAMPAIGNS
Q247. THE CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE MOVEMENT STARTED WITH:
A. QUIT INDIA
B. DANDI MARCH
C. NON-COOPERATION
D. SWADESHI
ANSWER: B. DANDI MARCH
EXPLANATION:
GANDHI BROKE SALT LAW AT DANDI IN 1930.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
Q248. THE NON-COOPERATION MOVEMENT BEGAN IN:
A. 1917
B. 1919
C. 1920
D. 1930
ANSWER: C. 1920
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS LAUNCHED AGAINST BRITISH RULE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: REVOLUTIONARY ACTIVITIES (ADVANCED)
Q249. WHO WAS THE LEADER OF HSRA?
A. GANDHI
B. BHAGAT SINGH
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. BHAGAT SINGH
EXPLANATION:
HE LED REVOLUTIONARY ACTIVITIES AGAINST BRITISH.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2020
Q250. THE LAHORE CONSPIRACY CASE IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
A. GANDHI
B. BHAGAT SINGH
C. BOSE
D. TILAK
ANSWER: B. BHAGAT SINGH
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS TRIED IN THIS CASE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: CONSTITUTIONAL DEVELOPMENTS (ADVANCED)
Q251. THE COMMUNAL AWARD WAS ANNOUNCED IN:
A. 1930
B. 1932
C. 1935
D. 1940
ANSWER: B. 1932
EXPLANATION:
IT PROVIDED SEPARATE ELECTORATES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2021
Q252. THE POONA PACT WAS SIGNED IN:
A. 1930
B. 1932
C. 1935
D. 1940
ANSWER: B. 1932
EXPLANATION:
AGREEMENT BETWEEN GANDHI AND AMBEDKAR.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES (ADVANCED)
Q253. WHO IS KNOWN AS “GRAND OLD MAN OF INDIA”?
A. GANDHI
B. NAOROJI
C. NEHRU
D. TILAK
ANSWER: B. NAOROJI
EXPLANATION:
DADABHAI NAOROJI WAS AN EARLY NATIONALIST LEADER.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC CHSL 2020
Q254. WHO WAS KNOWN AS “MAKER OF MODERN INDIA”?
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. RAJA RAM MOHAN ROY
D. BOSE
ANSWER: C. RAJA RAM MOHAN ROY
EXPLANATION:
HE INITIATED SOCIAL AND RELIGIOUS REFORMS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: FINAL MIXED (EXAM TRAPS)
Q255. THE VERNACULAR PRESS ACT TARGETED:
A. ENGLISH PRESS
B. INDIAN LANGUAGE PRESS
C. FOREIGN PRESS
D. RADIO
ANSWER: B. INDIAN LANGUAGE PRESS
EXPLANATION:
IT AIMED TO SUPPRESS NATIONALIST VIEWS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
Q256. THE ILBERT BILL CONTROVERSY WAS RELATED TO:
A. TRADE
B. JUDICIARY
C. EDUCATION
D. ARMY
ANSWER: B. JUDICIARY
EXPLANATION:
IT DEALT WITH POWERS OF INDIAN JUDGES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2023
Q257. THE SWADESHI MOVEMENT WAS STRONGEST IN:
A. PUNJAB
B. BENGAL
C. GUJARAT
D. TAMIL NADU
ANSWER: B. BENGAL
EXPLANATION:
IT ORIGINATED DUE TO PARTITION OF BENGAL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
Q258. THE MUSLIM LEAGUE DEMANDED PAKISTAN IN:
A. 1930
B. 1940
C. 1945
D. 1947
ANSWER: B. 1940
EXPLANATION:
LAHORE RESOLUTION DEMANDED SEPARATE NATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2022
Q259. THE INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS WAS FORMED UNDER:
A. BRITISH SUPPORT
B. FRENCH SUPPORT
C. MUGHAL SUPPORT
D. PORTUGUESE SUPPORT
ANSWER: A. BRITISH SUPPORT
EXPLANATION:
A.O. HUME, A BRITISH OFFICER, FOUNDED INC.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC CHSL 2021
Q260. THE MAIN OBJECTIVE OF INC IN EARLY YEARS WAS:
A. INDEPENDENCE
B. REVOLUTION
C. ADMINISTRATIVE REFORMS
D. WAR
ANSWER: C. ADMINISTRATIVE REFORMS
EXPLANATION:
MODERATES INITIALLY DEMANDED REFORMS, NOT INDEPENDENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: BRITISH POLICIES & ADMINISTRATION (ADVANCED)
Q261. THE DOCTRINE OF LAPSE WAS MAINLY APPLIED BY:
A. LORD WELLESLEY
B. LORD DALHOUSIE
C. LORD HASTINGS
D. LORD CURZON
ANSWER: B. LORD DALHOUSIE
EXPLANATION:
DALHOUSIE ANNEXED STATES WITHOUT NATURAL HEIRS USING THIS DOCTRINE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q262. WHICH GOVERNOR-GENERAL ABOLISHED SATI?
A. CORNWALLIS
B. BENTINCK
C. DALHOUSIE
D. HASTINGS
ANSWER: B. BENTINCK
EXPLANATION:
LORD WILLIAM BENTINCK ABOLISHED SATI IN 1829.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: IMPORTANT ACTS & REFORMS (DEEP)
Q263. THE REGULATING ACT WAS PASSED IN:
A. 1764
B. 1773
C. 1784
D. 1793
ANSWER: B. 1773
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS THE FIRST STEP BY BRITISH PARLIAMENT TO REGULATE COMPANY RULE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
Q264. THE CHARTER ACT OF 1853 INTRODUCED:
A. ELECTIONS
B. OPEN COMPETITION FOR CIVIL SERVICES
C. DYARCHY
D. FEDERATION
ANSWER: B. OPEN COMPETITION FOR CIVIL SERVICES
EXPLANATION:
IT ALLOWED INDIANS TO COMPETE IN CIVIL SERVICES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: EDUCATION & CULTURAL POLICIES
Q265. THE HUNTER COMMISSION (1882) WAS RELATED TO:
A. JUDICIARY
B. EDUCATION
C. TRADE
D. ARMY
ANSWER: B. EDUCATION
EXPLANATION:
IT REVIEWED THE PROGRESS OF EDUCATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
Q266. THE MEDIUM OF INSTRUCTION IN MACAULAY’S MINUTE WAS:
A. HINDI
B. SANSKRIT
C. ENGLISH
D. PERSIAN
ANSWER: C. ENGLISH
EXPLANATION:
MACAULAY SUPPORTED ENGLISH EDUCATION IN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: FREEDOM STRUGGLE (ADVANCED PHASE)
Q267. THE HOME RULE MOVEMENT STARTED IN:
A. 1915
B. 1916
C. 1917
D. 1918
ANSWER: B. 1916
EXPLANATION:
STARTED BY TILAK AND ANNIE BESANT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
Q268. THE KHILAFAT MOVEMENT WAS RELATED TO:
A. HINDUS
B. MUSLIMS
C. SIKHS
D. CHRISTIANS
ANSWER: B. MUSLIMS
EXPLANATION:
IT SUPPORTED THE OTTOMAN CALIPH.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: REVOLUTIONARY MOVEMENTS (DEEP)
Q269. WHO THREW A BOMB IN CENTRAL LEGISLATIVE ASSEMBLY?
A. GANDHI
B. BHAGAT SINGH
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. BHAGAT SINGH
EXPLANATION:
HE DID IT TO PROTEST AGAINST BRITISH LAWS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2020
Q270. THE SLOGAN “DO OR DIE” WAS GIVEN DURING:
A. SWADESHI
B. NON-COOPERATION
C. QUIT INDIA
D. CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE
ANSWER: C. QUIT INDIA
EXPLANATION:
GIVEN BY GANDHI IN 1942.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: FINAL PHASE OF FREEDOM STRUGGLE
Q271. THE CABINET MISSION CAME TO INDIA IN:
A. 1945
B. 1946
C. 1947
D. 1948
ANSWER: B. 1946
EXPLANATION:
TO DISCUSS TRANSFER OF POWER.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2021
Q272. THE MOUNTBATTEN PLAN WAS ALSO CALLED:
A. JUNE PLAN
B. AUGUST PLAN
C. JULY PLAN
D. MAY PLAN
ANSWER: A. JUNE PLAN
EXPLANATION:
ANNOUNCED ON 3 JUNE 1947.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: IMPORTANT LEADERS (ADVANCED)
Q273. WHO FOUNDED THE FORWARD BLOC?
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: C. BOSE
EXPLANATION:
SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE FORMED IT IN 1939.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q274. WHO WAS THE FIRST PRESIDENT OF INC?
A. NAOROJI
B. W.C. BONNERJEE
C. GANDHI
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: B. W.C. BONNERJEE
EXPLANATION:
HE PRESIDED OVER THE FIRST SESSION IN 1885.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: MISCELLANEOUS (FINAL LEFTOVER HIGH YIELD)
Q275. THE VERNACULAR PRESS ACT WAS ALSO KNOWN AS:
A. BLACK ACT
B. WHITE ACT
C. BLUE ACT
D. GREEN ACT
ANSWER: A. BLACK ACT
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS CALLED SO DUE TO ITS REPRESSIVE NATURE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
Q276. THE INDIAN UNIVERSITIES ACT WAS PASSED IN:
A. 1902
B. 1904
C. 1905
D. 1911
ANSWER: B. 1904
EXPLANATION:
IT IMPROVED CONTROL OVER UNIVERSITIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
Q277. THE FIRST CENSUS OF INDIA (REGULAR) WAS CONDUCTED IN:
A. 1861
B. 1871
C. 1881
D. 1891
ANSWER: C. 1881
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS THE FIRST SYSTEMATIC CENSUS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
Q278. THE INDIAN FACTORY ACT (1881) WAS RELATED TO:
A. TRADE
B. WORKERS
C. EDUCATION
D. ARMY
ANSWER: B. WORKERS
EXPLANATION:
IT REGULATED WORKING CONDITIONS IN FACTORIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
Q279. THE FIRST INDIAN TO BECOME PRESIDENT OF INC WAS:
A. NAOROJI
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A. NAOROJI
EXPLANATION:
HE BECAME INC PRESIDENT IN 1886.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC CHSL 2021
Q280. THE LAHORE SESSION (1929) DECLARED:
A. DOMINION STATUS
B. COMPLETE INDEPENDENCE
C. FEDERATION
D. PARTITION
ANSWER: B. COMPLETE INDEPENDENCE
EXPLANATION:
PURNA SWARAJ WAS DECLARED.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: ADVANCED CONSTITUTIONAL & POLITICAL DEVELOPMENTS
Q281. THE INDIAN INDEPENDENCE ACT WAS BASED ON WHICH PLAN?
A. CRIPPS PLAN
B. CABINET MISSION PLAN
C. MOUNTBATTEN PLAN
D. WAVELL PLAN
ANSWER: C. MOUNTBATTEN PLAN
EXPLANATION:
THE ACT OF 1947 IMPLEMENTED THE MOUNTBATTEN PLAN FOR PARTITION AND INDEPENDENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q282. THE CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY DRAFTED THE CONSTITUTION UNDER WHOSE CHAIRMANSHIP?
A. NEHRU
B. RAJENDRA PRASAD
C. B.R. AMBEDKAR
D. PATEL
ANSWER: C. B.R. AMBEDKAR
EXPLANATION:
AMBEDKAR WAS CHAIRMAN OF THE DRAFTING COMMITTEE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: BRITISH ECONOMIC POLICIES (ADVANCED)
Q283. THE MAIN EXPORT FROM INDIA DURING BRITISH RULE WAS:
A. MACHINERY
B. RAW MATERIALS
C. GOLD
D. TECHNOLOGY
ANSWER: B. RAW MATERIALS
EXPLANATION:
INDIA SUPPLIED RAW MATERIALS LIKE COTTON, JUTE, INDIGO.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
Q284. THE BRITISH POLICY LED TO DEINDUSTRIALIZATION OF INDIA BECAUSE:
A. HIGH EXPORTS
B. CHEAP IMPORTS
C. WAR
D. EDUCATION
ANSWER: B. CHEAP IMPORTS
EXPLANATION:
BRITISH GOODS DESTROYED INDIAN INDUSTRIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: IMPORTANT MOVEMENTS & LEADERS (DEEP)
Q285. WHO PRESIDED OVER LAHORE SESSION (1929)?
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. PATEL
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. NEHRU
EXPLANATION:
JAWAHARLAL NEHRU DECLARED PURNA SWARAJ.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
Q286. THE QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT WAS LAUNCHED BY:
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. PATEL
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. GANDHI
EXPLANATION:
LAUNCHED IN 1942 DEMANDING IMMEDIATE INDEPENDENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: REVOLUTIONARY ACTIVITIES (ADVANCED)
Q287. WHO WAS HANGED IN THE KAKORI CASE?
A. ASHFAQULLA KHAN
B. BHAGAT SINGH
C. BOSE
D. GANDHI
ANSWER: A. ASHFAQULLA KHAN
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS EXECUTED FOR INVOLVEMENT IN KAKORI CONSPIRACY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
Q288. THE GHADAR PARTY WAS FORMED IN:
A. INDIA
B. USA
C. UK
D. GERMANY
ANSWER: B. USA
EXPLANATION:
FORMED BY INDIAN REVOLUTIONARIES ABROAD.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: SOCIAL REFORM & EDUCATION (ADVANCED)
Q289. WHO ESTABLISHED THE VEDANTA COLLEGE?
A. VIVEKANANDA
B. RAJA RAM MOHAN ROY
C. DAYANAND
D. GANDHI
ANSWER: B. RAJA RAM MOHAN ROY
EXPLANATION:
IT PROMOTED WESTERN AND INDIAN EDUCATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2020
Q290. THE BRAHMO SAMAJ OPPOSED:
A. EDUCATION
B. IDOL WORSHIP
C. TRADE
D. INDUSTRY
ANSWER: B. IDOL WORSHIP
EXPLANATION:
IT PROMOTED MONOTHEISM.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: MISCELLANEOUS ADVANCED (EXAM TRAPS)
Q291. THE FIRST INDIAN BUDGET WAS PRESENTED IN:
A. 1860
B. 1865
C. 1870
D. 1875
ANSWER: A. 1860
EXPLANATION:
PRESENTED BY JAMES WILSON.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2021
Q292. THE FIRST LAW COMMISSION IN INDIA WAS SET UP IN:
A. 1834
B. 1853
C. 1861
D. 1873
ANSWER: A. 1834
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS HEADED BY MACAULAY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: FINAL HIGH YIELD MIXED
Q293. THE FIRST SESSION OF INC WAS ATTENDED BY HOW MANY DELEGATES?
A. 50
B. 60
C. 72
D. 100
ANSWER: C. 72
EXPLANATION:
72 DELEGATES ATTENDED IN 1885.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q294. THE INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS WAS FOUNDED IN:
A. 1880
B. 1885
C. 1890
D. 1900
ANSWER: B. 1885
EXPLANATION:
FOUNDED BY A.O. HUME.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
Q295. THE CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE MOVEMENT ENDED IN:
A. 1931
B. 1932
C. 1934
D. 1935
ANSWER: C. 1934
EXPLANATION:
GANDHI WITHDREW IT IN 1934.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
Q296. THE SIMON COMMISSION WAS FORMED IN:
A. 1925
B. 1927
C. 1930
D. 1935
ANSWER: B. 1927
EXPLANATION:
TO REVIEW CONSTITUTIONAL REFORMS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
Q297. THE ROUND TABLE CONFERENCES WERE HELD IN:
A. INDIA
B. USA
C. LONDON
D. PARIS
ANSWER: C. LONDON
EXPLANATION:
THEY DISCUSSED INDIA’S CONSTITUTIONAL FUTURE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
Q298. THE GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT 1935 INTRODUCED:
A. DYARCHY AT CENTER
B. PROVINCIAL AUTONOMY
C. FEDERATION FULLY
D. INDEPENDENCE
ANSWER: B. PROVINCIAL AUTONOMY
EXPLANATION:
IT GAVE AUTONOMY TO PROVINCES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
Q299. THE LAHORE RESOLUTION (1940) DEMANDED:
A. INDEPENDENCE
B. PAKISTAN
C. FEDERATION
D. DOMINION
ANSWER: B. PAKISTAN
EXPLANATION:
IT DEMANDED SEPARATE MUSLIM STATE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
Q300. THE BRITISH LEFT INDIA IN:
A. 1946
B. 1947
C. 1948
D. 1950
ANSWER: B. 1947
EXPLANATION:
INDIA GOT INDEPENDENCE ON 15 AUGUST 1947.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: BOOKS & AUTHORS (HIGH TRAP AREA)
Q301. WHO WROTE “THE DISCOVERY OF INDIA”?
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: B. NEHRU
EXPLANATION:
THE DISCOVERY OF INDIA WAS WRITTEN BY JAWAHARLAL NEHRU DURING IMPRISONMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q302. “INDIA WINS FREEDOM” WAS WRITTEN BY:
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. MAULANA ABUL KALAM AZAD
D. BOSE
ANSWER: C. MAULANA ABUL KALAM AZAD
EXPLANATION:
IT GIVES AN INSIDER ACCOUNT OF INDIA’S INDEPENDENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2023
Q303. WHO WROTE “GULAMGIRI”?
A. AMBEDKAR
B. JYOTIBA PHULE
C. GANDHI
D. TILAK
ANSWER: B. JYOTIBA PHULE
EXPLANATION:
IT CRITICIZED CASTE SYSTEM AND SOCIAL INEQUALITY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2021
TOPIC: IMPORTANT NEWSPAPERS (ADVANCED MATCH TYPE)
Q304. “KESARI” NEWSPAPER WAS STARTED BY:
A. GANDHI
B. TILAK
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. TILAK
EXPLANATION:
KESARI WAS A MARATHI NEWSPAPER USED FOR NATIONALIST PROPAGANDA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2022
Q305. “THE HINDU” NEWSPAPER WAS FOUNDED IN:
A. BOMBAY
B. MADRAS
C. CALCUTTA
D. DELHI
ANSWER: B. MADRAS
EXPLANATION:
FOUNDED IN 1878, IT BECAME AN INFLUENTIAL NEWSPAPER.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2020
TOPIC: LABOUR MOVEMENTS & TRADE UNIONS
Q306. THE ALL INDIA TRADE UNION CONGRESS (AITUC) WAS FOUNDED IN:
A. 1918
B. 1920
C. 1925
D. 1930
ANSWER: B. 1920
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS THE FIRST NATIONAL TRADE UNION IN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
Q307. WHO WAS THE FIRST PRESIDENT OF AITUC?
A. LALA LAJPAT RAI
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. LALA LAJPAT RAI
EXPLANATION:
HE PLAYED A MAJOR ROLE IN LABOUR MOVEMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2021
TOPIC: IMPORTANT COMMITTEES (RARE)
Q308. THE LEE COMMISSION (1924) WAS RELATED TO:
A. ARMY
B. JUDICIARY
C. CIVIL SERVICES
D. EDUCATION
ANSWER: C. CIVIL SERVICES
EXPLANATION:
IT RECOMMENDED INDIANIZATION OF CIVIL SERVICES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
Q309. THE FRASER COMMISSION WAS RELATED TO:
A. POLICE
B. EDUCATION
C. TRADE
D. ARMY
ANSWER: A. POLICE
EXPLANATION:
IT REVIEWED POLICE ADMINISTRATION IN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
TOPIC: WOMEN PARTICIPATION (OFTEN IGNORED)
Q310. WHO WAS THE FIRST WOMAN TO BECOME INC PRESIDENT (INDIAN)?
A. ANNIE BESANT
B. SAROJINI NAIDU
C. INDIRA GANDHI
D. KAMALA NEHRU
ANSWER: B. SAROJINI NAIDU
EXPLANATION:
SHE BECAME INC PRESIDENT IN 1925.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
Q311. WHO LED THE RANI OF JHANSI REGIMENT?
A. SAROJINI NAIDU
B. CAPTAIN LAKSHMI
C. ANNIE BESANT
D. INDIRA GANDHI
ANSWER: B. CAPTAIN LAKSHMI
EXPLANATION:
LAKSHMI SEHGAL LED INA’S WOMEN REGIMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: CHRONOLOGY (VERY IMPORTANT TRAP)
Q312. WHICH CAME FIRST?
A. NON-COOPERATION MOVEMENT
B. CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE MOVEMENT
C. QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT
D. SWADESHI MOVEMENT
ANSWER: D. SWADESHI MOVEMENT
EXPLANATION:
ORDER: SWADESHI (1905) → NON-COOPERATION → CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE → QUIT INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
Q313. ARRANGE IN CHRONOLOGICAL ORDER:
- CHAMPARAN
- KHEDA
- AHMEDABAD MILL STRIKE
A. 1-2-3
B. 1-3-2
C. 3-1-2
D. 2-1-3
ANSWER: B. 1-3-2
EXPLANATION:
CHAMPARAN (1917) → AHMEDABAD (1918) → KHEDA (1918).
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
TOPIC: MATCH THE FOLLOWING (SSC PATTERN)
Q314. MATCH CORRECTLY:
- ARYA SAMAJ — DAYANAND
- BRAHMO SAMAJ — RAM MOHAN ROY
A. ONLY 1
B. ONLY 2
C. BOTH
D. NONE
ANSWER: C. BOTH
EXPLANATION:
BOTH MATCHES ARE CORRECT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
Q315. MATCH:
KESARI — TILAK
YOUNG INDIA — GANDHI
A. BOTH CORRECT
B. ONLY 1
C. ONLY 2
D. NONE
ANSWER: A. BOTH CORRECT
EXPLANATION:
BOTH NEWSPAPERS ARE CORRECTLY MATCHED.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
TOPIC: ASSERTION–REASON (NEW PATTERN)
Q316. ASSERTION: GANDHI SUPPORTED KHILAFAT MOVEMENT
REASON: TO UNITE HINDUS AND MUSLIMS
A. BOTH CORRECT
B. BOTH WRONG
C. A CORRECT, R WRONG
D. A WRONG, R CORRECT
ANSWER: A. BOTH CORRECT
EXPLANATION:
GANDHI AIMED FOR HINDU-MUSLIM UNITY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
Q317. ASSERTION: SIMON COMMISSION WAS BOYCOTTED
REASON: IT HAD NO INDIAN MEMBER
A. BOTH CORRECT
B. BOTH WRONG
C. A CORRECT, R WRONG
D. A WRONG, R CORRECT
ANSWER: A. BOTH CORRECT
EXPLANATION:
MAIN REASON FOR BOYCOTT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
TOPIC: RARE & CONCEPTUAL TRAPS
Q318. THE TERM “SWARAJ” MEANS:
A. FREEDOM
B. SELF-RULE
C. REVOLUTION
D. DEMOCRACY
ANSWER: B. SELF-RULE
EXPLANATION:
IT REFERS TO SELF-GOVERNANCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
Q319. WHO COINED THE TERM “PAKISTAN”?
A. JINNAH
B. RAHMAT ALI
C. IQBAL
D. LIAQUAT ALI
ANSWER: B. RAHMAT ALI
EXPLANATION:
HE PROPOSED THE IDEA IN 1933.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: FINAL ULTIMATE MIXED
Q320. THE FIRST NATIONALIST NEWSPAPER WAS:
A. KESARI
B. HINDU PATRIOT
C. YOUNG INDIA
D. HARIJAN
ANSWER: B. HINDU PATRIOT
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS AMONG EARLIEST NATIONALIST PAPERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
Q321. WHO FOUNDED THE INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS?
A. CURZON
B. A.O. HUME
C. GANDHI
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: B. A.O. HUME
EXPLANATION:
A RETIRED BRITISH OFFICER INITIATED INC.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
Q322. THE FIRST SESSION OF INC WAS HELD IN:
A. 1885
B. 1886
C. 1890
D. 1905
ANSWER: A. 1885
EXPLANATION:
HELD IN BOMBAY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
Q323. THE FIRST WOMAN PRESIDENT OF INC (OVERALL) WAS:
A. SAROJINI NAIDU
B. ANNIE BESANT
C. INDIRA GANDHI
D. KAMALA NEHRU
ANSWER: B. ANNIE BESANT
EXPLANATION:
SHE BECAME PRESIDENT IN 1917.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2023
Q324. THE SLOGAN “SIMON GO BACK” IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
A. QUIT INDIA
B. SIMON COMMISSION
C. SWADESHI
D. INA
ANSWER: B. SIMON COMMISSION
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS WIDELY PROTESTED.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
Q325. THE INA WAS REVIVED BY:
A. MOHAN SINGH
B. BOSE
C. GANDHI
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: B. BOSE
EXPLANATION:
SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE REORGANIZED INA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
Q326. THE FIRST SESSION OF MUSLIM LEAGUE WAS HELD IN:
A. 1906
B. 1907
C. 1911
D. 1919
ANSWER: A. 1906
EXPLANATION:
HELD IN DHAKA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
Q327. THE KHILAFAT MOVEMENT ENDED IN:
A. 1922
B. 1924
C. 1930
D. 1935
ANSWER: B. 1924
EXPLANATION:
ENDED AFTER ABOLITION OF CALIPHATE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
Q328. THE CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE MOVEMENT STARTED IN:
A. 1929
B. 1930
C. 1931
D. 1932
ANSWER: B. 1930
EXPLANATION:
STARTED WITH DANDI MARCH.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2022
Q329. THE QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT WAS STARTED IN:
A. 1940
B. 1942
C. 1945
D. 1947
ANSWER: B. 1942
EXPLANATION:
LAUNCHED IN AUGUST 1942.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
Q330. INDIA BECAME A REPUBLIC IN:
A. 1947
B. 1948
C. 1950
D. 1952
ANSWER: C. 1950
EXPLANATION:
ON 26 JANUARY 1950.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: MIXED (ALL TOPICS REVISION + TRAP QUESTIONS)
Q331. WHO INTRODUCED SUBSIDIARY ALLIANCE?
A. DALHOUSIE
B. WELLESLEY
C. HASTINGS
D. CORNWALLIS
ANSWER: B. WELLESLEY
EXPLANATION:
IT FORCED INDIAN RULERS TO ACCEPT BRITISH CONTROL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q332. THE CAPITAL OF BRITISH INDIA WAS SHIFTED FROM CALCUTTA TO DELHI IN:
A. 1905
B. 1911
C. 1919
D. 1935
ANSWER: B. 1911
EXPLANATION:
ANNOUNCED DURING DELHI DURBAR.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
Q333. THE VERNACULAR PRESS ACT WAS PASSED IN:
A. 1875
B. 1878
C. 1882
D. 1885
ANSWER: B. 1878
EXPLANATION:
IT AIMED TO SUPPRESS INDIAN LANGUAGE PRESS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
Q334. WHO AMONG THE FOLLOWING WAS NOT A MODERATE LEADER?
A. NAOROJI
B. GOKHALE
C. TILAK
D. RANADE
ANSWER: C. TILAK
EXPLANATION:
TILAK WAS AN EXTREMIST LEADER.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
Q335. THE CHAMPARAN SATYAGRAHA WAS RELATED TO:
A. COTTON
B. INDIGO
C. SALT
D. TAX
ANSWER: B. INDIGO
EXPLANATION:
FARMERS WERE FORCED TO GROW INDIGO.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
Q336. WHO WAS THE VICEROY DURING QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT?
A. LINLITHGOW
B. WAVELL
C. CURZON
D. IRWIN
ANSWER: A. LINLITHGOW
EXPLANATION:
HE WAS VICEROY DURING 1942 MOVEMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
Q337. THE BARDOLI SATYAGRAHA WAS LED BY:
A. GANDHI
B. PATEL
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. PATEL
EXPLANATION:
SARDAR PATEL LED FARMERS IN BARDOLI.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
Q338. THE FIRST ROUND TABLE CONFERENCE WAS HELD IN:
A. 1929
B. 1930
C. 1931
D. 1932
ANSWER: B. 1930
EXPLANATION:
HELD IN LONDON.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2023
Q339. THE MAIN AIM OF SWADESHI MOVEMENT WAS:
A. EDUCATION
B. BOYCOTT FOREIGN GOODS
C. WAR
D. TRADE
ANSWER: B. BOYCOTT FOREIGN GOODS
EXPLANATION:
IT PROMOTED USE OF INDIAN GOODS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2020
Q340. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF SERVANTS OF INDIA SOCIETY?
A. TILAK
B. GOKHALE
C. GANDHI
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. GOKHALE
EXPLANATION:
IT AIMED AT SOCIAL SERVICE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2022
Q341. THE JALLIANWALA BAGH MASSACRE OCCURRED IN:
A. 1917
B. 1919
C. 1920
D. 1922
ANSWER: B. 1919
EXPLANATION:
GENERAL DYER ORDERED FIRING ON CROWD.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2021
Q342. THE KHILAFAT MOVEMENT WAS LAUNCHED IN:
A. 1917
B. 1919
C. 1920
D. 1922
ANSWER: B. 1919
EXPLANATION:
STARTED BY ALI BROTHERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2023
Q343. THE SIMON COMMISSION REPORT WAS PUBLISHED IN:
A. 1928
B. 1930
C. 1932
D. 1935
ANSWER: B. 1930
EXPLANATION:
IT RECOMMENDED CONSTITUTIONAL REFORMS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q344. THE LAHORE SESSION OF INC WAS HELD IN:
A. 1928
B. 1929
C. 1930
D. 1931
ANSWER: B. 1929
EXPLANATION:
DECLARED PURNA SWARAJ.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
Q345. THE GANDHI-IRWIN PACT WAS SIGNED IN:
A. 1930
B. 1931
C. 1932
D. 1935
ANSWER: B. 1931
EXPLANATION:
ENDED CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE TEMPORARILY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
Q346. THE POONA PACT WAS SIGNED BETWEEN:
A. GANDHI & NEHRU
B. GANDHI & AMBEDKAR
C. NEHRU & PATEL
D. BOSE & GANDHI
ANSWER: B. GANDHI & AMBEDKAR
EXPLANATION:
IT MODIFIED COMMUNAL AWARD.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
Q347. THE QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT STARTED AFTER:
A. CRIPPS MISSION
B. CABINET MISSION
C. SIMON COMMISSION
D. ROUND TABLE
ANSWER: A. CRIPPS MISSION
EXPLANATION:
FAILURE OF CRIPPS MISSION LED TO QUIT INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
Q348. THE INDIAN NATIONAL ARMY WAS FORMED DURING:
A. WWI
B. WWII
C. COLD WAR
D. 1857
ANSWER: B. WWII
EXPLANATION:
INA FOUGHT WITH JAPANESE SUPPORT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
Q349. THE CABINET MISSION PROPOSED:
A. PARTITION
B. FEDERATION
C. INDEPENDENCE
D. WAR
ANSWER: B. FEDERATION
EXPLANATION:
IT SUGGESTED A UNITED INDIA WITH FEDERAL STRUCTURE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
Q350. THE INTERIM GOVERNMENT WAS FORMED UNDER:
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. PATEL
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. NEHRU
EXPLANATION:
NEHRU HEADED INTERIM GOVERNMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: MIXED REVISION (ALL TOPICS)
Q351. WHO WAS THE FIRST GOVERNOR-GENERAL OF BENGAL?
A. ROBERT CLIVE
B. WARREN HASTINGS
C. CORNWALLIS
D. DALHOUSIE
ANSWER: B. WARREN HASTINGS
EXPLANATION:
WARREN HASTINGS BECAME THE FIRST GOVERNOR-GENERAL OF BENGAL IN 1774 UNDER THE REGULATING ACT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q352. THE DOCTRINE OF LAPSE WAS INTRODUCED BY:
A. WELLESLEY
B. DALHOUSIE
C. HASTINGS
D. BENTINCK
ANSWER: B. DALHOUSIE
EXPLANATION:
IT ALLOWED ANNEXATION OF PRINCELY STATES WITHOUT NATURAL HEIRS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
Q353. THE FIRST RAILWAY LINE IN INDIA WAS STARTED IN:
A. 1851
B. 1853
C. 1860
D. 1870
ANSWER: B. 1853
EXPLANATION:
THE FIRST TRAIN RAN BETWEEN BOMBAY AND THANE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
Q354. THE INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS WAS FOUNDED IN:
A. 1880
B. 1885
C. 1890
D. 1900
ANSWER: B. 1885
EXPLANATION:
INC WAS FOUNDED BY A.O. HUME.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
Q355. THE PARTITION OF BENGAL TOOK PLACE IN:
A. 1903
B. 1905
C. 1907
D. 1911
ANSWER: B. 1905
EXPLANATION:
LORD CURZON DIVIDED BENGAL TO WEAKEN NATIONALISM.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
Q356. THE SURAT SPLIT OF CONGRESS HAPPENED IN:
A. 1905
B. 1907
C. 1911
D. 1916
ANSWER: B. 1907
EXPLANATION:
CONGRESS SPLIT INTO MODERATES AND EXTREMISTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
Q357. THE LUCKNOW PACT WAS SIGNED IN:
A. 1915
B. 1916
C. 1917
D. 1918
ANSWER: B. 1916
EXPLANATION:
AGREEMENT BETWEEN CONGRESS AND MUSLIM LEAGUE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
Q358. THE ROWLATT ACT WAS PASSED IN:
A. 1917
B. 1918
C. 1919
D. 1920
ANSWER: C. 1919
EXPLANATION:
ALLOWED DETENTION WITHOUT TRIAL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2023
Q359. THE NON-COOPERATION MOVEMENT WAS WITHDRAWN AFTER:
A. JALLIANWALA BAGH
B. CHAURI CHAURA
C. DANDI MARCH
D. QUIT INDIA
ANSWER: B. CHAURI CHAURA
EXPLANATION:
GANDHI WITHDREW IT AFTER VIOLENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2020
Q360. THE SIMON COMMISSION WAS APPOINTED IN:
A. 1925
B. 1927
C. 1930
D. 1932
ANSWER: B. 1927
EXPLANATION:
TO REVIEW CONSTITUTIONAL REFORMS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2022
Q361. THE DANDI MARCH TOOK PLACE IN:
A. 1928
B. 1930
C. 1932
D. 1935
ANSWER: B. 1930
EXPLANATION:
IT MARKED THE BEGINNING OF CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2021
Q362. THE POONA PACT WAS SIGNED IN:
A. 1930
B. 1932
C. 1935
D. 1940
ANSWER: B. 1932
EXPLANATION:
AGREEMENT BETWEEN GANDHI AND AMBEDKAR.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2023
Q363. THE GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT WAS PASSED IN:
A. 1919
B. 1930
C. 1935
D. 1940
ANSWER: C. 1935
EXPLANATION:
IT INTRODUCED PROVINCIAL AUTONOMY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q364. THE QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT STARTED IN:
A. 1940
B. 1942
C. 1945
D. 1947
ANSWER: B. 1942
EXPLANATION:
LAUNCHED BY GANDHI DEMANDING INDEPENDENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
Q365. THE INA TRIALS TOOK PLACE IN:
A. 1943
B. 1945
C. 1946
D. 1947
ANSWER: B. 1945
EXPLANATION:
INA OFFICERS WERE TRIED AT RED FORT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
Q366. THE CABINET MISSION CAME TO INDIA IN:
A. 1945
B. 1946
C. 1947
D. 1948
ANSWER: B. 1946
EXPLANATION:
TO DISCUSS TRANSFER OF POWER.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
Q367. INDIA GOT INDEPENDENCE IN:
A. 1946
B. 1947
C. 1948
D. 1950
ANSWER: B. 1947
EXPLANATION:
INDIA BECAME INDEPENDENT ON 15 AUGUST 1947.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
Q368. INDIA BECAME A REPUBLIC IN:
A. 1947
B. 1948
C. 1950
D. 1952
ANSWER: C. 1950
EXPLANATION:
CONSTITUTION CAME INTO FORCE ON 26 JANUARY 1950.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
Q369. ARYA SAMAJ WAS FOUNDED BY:
A. VIVEKANANDA
B. DAYANAND SARASWATI
C. GANDHI
D. ROY
ANSWER: B. DAYANAND SARASWATI
EXPLANATION:
FOUNDED IN 1875.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
Q370. BRAHMO SAMAJ WAS FOUNDED BY:
A. DAYANAND
B. VIVEKANANDA
C. RAJA RAM MOHAN ROY
D. GANDHI
ANSWER: C. RAJA RAM MOHAN ROY
EXPLANATION:
IT PROMOTED MONOTHEISM AND REFORM.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
Q371. ALIGARH MOVEMENT WAS STARTED BY:
A. GANDHI
B. SIR SYED AHMED KHAN
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. SIR SYED AHMED KHAN
EXPLANATION:
IT AIMED AT MODERN EDUCATION FOR MUSLIMS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
Q372. RAMAKRISHNA MISSION WAS FOUNDED BY:
A. DAYANAND
B. VIVEKANANDA
C. ROY
D. GANDHI
ANSWER: B. VIVEKANANDA
EXPLANATION:
FOUNDED IN 1897.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2023
Q373. “KESARI” WAS STARTED BY:
A. GANDHI
B. TILAK
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. TILAK
EXPLANATION:
A NATIONALIST NEWSPAPER.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
Q374. “HARIJAN” WAS STARTED BY:
A. NEHRU
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. TILAK
ANSWER: B. GANDHI
EXPLANATION:
FOCUSED ON SOCIAL REFORM.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
Q375. FORWARD BLOC WAS FOUNDED BY:
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: C. BOSE
EXPLANATION:
FORMED IN 1939.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2022
Q376. GHADAR MOVEMENT WAS LED BY:
A. TILAK
B. LALA HARDAYAL
C. GANDHI
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. LALA HARDAYAL
EXPLANATION:
REVOLUTIONARY MOVEMENT ABROAD.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
Q377. HSRA IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
A. GANDHI
B. BHAGAT SINGH
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: B. BHAGAT SINGH
EXPLANATION:
REVOLUTIONARY ORGANIZATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
Q378. BARDOLI SATYAGRAHA WAS LED BY:
A. GANDHI
B. PATEL
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. PATEL
EXPLANATION:
SUCCESSFUL PEASANT MOVEMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2023
Q379. CHAMPARAN SATYAGRAHA WAS LED BY:
A. NEHRU
B. GANDHI
C. PATEL
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. GANDHI
EXPLANATION:
FIRST SATYAGRAHA IN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
Q380. KHEDA SATYAGRAHA WAS LED BY:
A. GANDHI
B. BOSE
C. TILAK
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A. GANDHI
EXPLANATION:
PEASANT STRUGGLE IN GUJARAT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
Q381. AHMEDABAD MILL STRIKE WAS LED BY:
A. GANDHI
B. PATEL
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. GANDHI
EXPLANATION:
LABOUR MOVEMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2022
Q382. DIRECT ACTION DAY WAS OBSERVED IN:
A. 1945
B. 1946
C. 1947
D. 1948
ANSWER: B. 1946
EXPLANATION:
LED TO COMMUNAL RIOTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
Q383. MOUNTBATTEN PLAN WAS ANNOUNCED IN:
A. 1946
B. 1947
C. 1948
D. 1950
ANSWER: B. 1947
EXPLANATION:
LED TO PARTITION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
Q384. RADCLIFFE LINE IS RELATED TO:
A. TRADE
B. PARTITION
C. EDUCATION
D. ARMY
ANSWER: B. PARTITION
EXPLANATION:
BOUNDARY BETWEEN INDIA AND PAKISTAN.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC: MIXED REVISION (FINAL CONSOLIDATION)
Q385. THE VERNACULAR PRESS ACT WAS PASSED IN:
A. 1875
B. 1878
C. 1882
D. 1885
ANSWER: B. 1878
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS INTRODUCED BY LORD LYTTON TO CURB INDIAN LANGUAGE NEWSPAPERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
Q386. THE ILBERT BILL CONTROVERSY TOOK PLACE IN:
A. 1880
B. 1883
C. 1885
D. 1890
ANSWER: B. 1883
EXPLANATION:
IT ALLOWED INDIAN JUDGES TO TRY EUROPEANS, LEADING TO PROTESTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
Q387. THE HUNTER COMMISSION (1882) WAS RELATED TO:
A. POLICE
B. EDUCATION
C. JUDICIARY
D. TRADE
ANSWER: B. EDUCATION
EXPLANATION:
IT REVIEWED THE DEVELOPMENT OF EDUCATION IN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
Q388. THE LEE COMMISSION (1924) WAS RELATED TO:
A. ARMY
B. CIVIL SERVICES
C. EDUCATION
D. POLICE
ANSWER: B. CIVIL SERVICES
EXPLANATION:
IT RECOMMENDED INDIANIZATION OF HIGHER CIVIL SERVICES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
Q389. THE ALL INDIA TRADE UNION CONGRESS (AITUC) WAS FOUNDED IN:
A. 1918
B. 1920
C. 1925
D. 1930
ANSWER: B. 1920
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS INDIA’S FIRST NATIONAL TRADE UNION ORGANIZATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
Q390. THE FIRST CENSUS IN INDIA WAS CONDUCTED IN:
A. 1861
B. 1871
C. 1881
D. 1891
ANSWER: B. 1871
EXPLANATION:
THE FIRST NON-SYNCHRONOUS CENSUS WAS CONDUCTED IN 1871.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2023
Q391. THE FIRST BUDGET IN INDIA WAS PRESENTED IN:
A. 1855
B. 1860
C. 1870
D. 1880
ANSWER: B. 1860
EXPLANATION:
JAMES WILSON PRESENTED THE FIRST INDIAN BUDGET.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2020
Q392. THE FIRST LAW COMMISSION IN INDIA WAS SET UP IN:
A. 1820
B. 1834
C. 1853
D. 1861
ANSWER: B. 1834
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS HEADED BY LORD MACAULAY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2022
Q393. SUBSIDIARY ALLIANCE SYSTEM WAS INTRODUCED BY:
A. DALHOUSIE
B. WELLESLEY
C. HASTINGS
D. CURZON
ANSWER: B. WELLESLEY
EXPLANATION:
IT FORCED INDIAN RULERS TO ACCEPT BRITISH TROOPS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2021
Q394. PERMANENT SETTLEMENT WAS INTRODUCED IN:
A. 1784
B. 1793
C. 1800
D. 1813
ANSWER: B. 1793
EXPLANATION:
INTRODUCED BY CORNWALLIS IN BENGAL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2023
Q395. THE RYOTWARI SYSTEM WAS INTRODUCED BY:
A. CORNWALLIS
B. MUNRO
C. WELLESLEY
D. DALHOUSIE
ANSWER: B. MUNRO
EXPLANATION:
IT DEALT DIRECTLY WITH PEASANTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
Q396. THE MAHALWARI SYSTEM WAS INTRODUCED BY:
A. HOLT MACKENZIE
B. MUNRO
C. CORNWALLIS
D. DALHOUSIE
ANSWER: A. HOLT MACKENZIE
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS IMPLEMENTED IN NORTH-WESTERN PROVINCES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2022
Q397. THE REVOLT OF 1857 IS ALSO KNOWN AS:
A. SEPOY MUTINY
B. CIVIL WAR
C. FIRST WAR OF INDEPENDENCE
D. BOTH A & C
ANSWER: D. BOTH A & C
EXPLANATION:
IT IS CALLED BOTH SEPOY MUTINY AND FIRST WAR OF INDEPENDENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
Q398. WHO WAS THE LAST VICEROY OF INDIA?
A. WAVELL
B. MOUNTBATTEN
C. LINLITHGOW
D. CURZON
ANSWER: B. MOUNTBATTEN
EXPLANATION:
HE OVERSAW INDEPENDENCE AND PARTITION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2023
Q399. WHO WAS THE FIRST PRESIDENT OF INDEPENDENT INDIA?
A. NEHRU
B. RAJENDRA PRASAD
C. GANDHI
D. PATEL
ANSWER: B. RAJENDRA PRASAD
EXPLANATION:
HE BECAME PRESIDENT IN 1950.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
Q400. THE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA WAS ADOPTED IN:
A. 1947
B. 1948
C. 1949
D. 1950
ANSWER: C. 1949
EXPLANATION:
IT WAS ADOPTED ON 26 NOVEMBER 1949.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
FREEDOM STRUGGLE:SSC TIER I GK MCQS
INTRODUCTION & KEY HIGHLIGHTS OF INDIAN FREEDOM STRUGGLE
THE INDIAN FREEDOM STRUGGLE WAS A LONG AND COMPLEX MOVEMENT AIMED AT ENDING BRITISH COLONIAL RULE IN INDIA. IT SPANNED NEARLY TWO CENTURIES AND INVOLVED VARIOUS PHASES, IDEOLOGIES, LEADERS, AND MASS MOVEMENTS.
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS:
THE REVOLT OF 1857 MARKED THE FIRST LARGE-SCALE UPRISING AGAINST BRITISH RULE.
FORMATION OF INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS IN 1885 GAVE A POLITICAL PLATFORM TO INDIANS.
MODERATES AND EXTREMISTS PLAYED KEY ROLES IN EARLY NATIONALISM.
GANDHIAN ERA (1915 ONWARDS) INTRODUCED MASS MOVEMENTS LIKE NON-COOPERATION, CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE, AND QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT.
REVOLUTIONARY ACTIVITIES AND PARALLEL MOVEMENTS ALSO CONTRIBUTED SIGNIFICANTLY.
INDIA FINALLY ACHIEVED INDEPENDENCE ON 15TH AUGUST 1947.
TOPIC: FREEDOM STRUGGLE
Q1. WHO IS KNOWN AS THE FATHER OF THE INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS?
SSC CGL 2017
A. MAHATMA GANDHI
B. ALLAN OCTAVIAN HUME
C. DADABHAI NAOROJI
D. BAL GANGADHAR TILAK
ANSWER: B. ALLAN OCTAVIAN HUME
EXPLANATION: ALLAN OCTAVIAN HUME, A BRITISH CIVIL SERVANT, PLAYED A KEY ROLE IN THE FORMATION OF THE INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS IN 1885.
Q2. IN WHICH YEAR WAS THE INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS FOUNDED?
SSC CHSL 2018
A. 1885
B. 1905
C. 1875
D. 1890
ANSWER: A. 1885
EXPLANATION: THE INC WAS ESTABLISHED IN 1885 TO PROMOTE POLITICAL DIALOGUE BETWEEN INDIANS AND THE BRITISH.
Q3. THE REVOLT OF 1857 STARTED FROM WHICH PLACE?
SSC GD 2019
A. DELHI
B. MEERUT
C. KANPUR
D. LUCKNOW
ANSWER: B. MEERUT
EXPLANATION: THE REVOLT BEGAN IN MEERUT ON MAY 10, 1857, AND LATER SPREAD ACROSS NORTHERN INDIA.
Q4. WHO WAS THE LAST MUGHAL EMPEROR DURING THE REVOLT OF 1857?
SSC MTS 2020
A. BAHADUR SHAH I
B. BAHADUR SHAH II
C. AKBAR II
D. SHAH ALAM II
ANSWER: B. BAHADUR SHAH II
EXPLANATION: BAHADUR SHAH ZAFAR WAS DECLARED THE SYMBOLIC LEADER OF THE REVOLT.
Q5. WHO GAVE THE SLOGAN “SWARAJ IS MY BIRTHRIGHT AND I SHALL HAVE IT”?
SSC CGL 2018
A. MAHATMA GANDHI
B. SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE
C. BAL GANGADHAR TILAK
D. LALA LAJPAT RAI
ANSWER: C. BAL GANGADHAR TILAK
EXPLANATION: TILAK WAS A PROMINENT EXTREMIST LEADER WHO STRONGLY ADVOCATED SELF-RULE.
Q6. IN WHICH YEAR WAS THE PARTITION OF BENGAL DONE?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. 1905
B. 1911
C. 1907
D. 1899
ANSWER: A. 1905
EXPLANATION: LORD CURZON PARTITIONED BENGAL TO WEAKEN THE NATIONALIST MOVEMENT.
Q7. THE SWADESHI MOVEMENT STARTED AFTER WHICH EVENT?
SSC MTS 2021
A. JALLIANWALA BAGH
B. PARTITION OF BENGAL
C. QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT
D. SIMON COMMISSION
ANSWER: B. PARTITION OF BENGAL
EXPLANATION: THE SWADESHI MOVEMENT BEGAN IN RESPONSE TO THE 1905 PARTITION OF BENGAL.
Q8. WHO FOUNDED THE FORWARD BLOC?
SSC GD 2022
A. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
B. SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE
C. BHAGAT SINGH
D. GANDHI
ANSWER: B. SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE
EXPLANATION: BOSE FORMED THE FORWARD BLOC IN 1939 AFTER RESIGNING FROM CONGRESS.
Q9. WHEN WAS THE NON-COOPERATION MOVEMENT LAUNCHED?
SSC CGL 2020
A. 1919
B. 1920
C. 1922
D. 1930
ANSWER: B. 1920
EXPLANATION: GANDHI LAUNCHED THIS MOVEMENT AGAINST BRITISH RULE AFTER THE JALLIANWALA BAGH MASSACRE.
Q10. WHY WAS THE NON-COOPERATION MOVEMENT WITHDRAWN?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. LACK OF SUPPORT
B. GANDHI’S ARREST
C. CHAURI CHAURA INCIDENT
D. BRITISH PRESSURE
ANSWER: C. CHAURI CHAURA INCIDENT
EXPLANATION: VIOLENCE AT CHAURI CHAURA LED GANDHI TO WITHDRAW THE MOVEMENT IN 1922.
Q11. WHO IS KNOWN AS THE FATHER OF THE INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS?
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC MTS 2021
ANSWER: ALLAN OCTAVIAN HUME
EXPLANATION: FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTION ABOUT INC FORMATION.
Q12. WHEN WAS THE NON-COOPERATION MOVEMENT STARTED?
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2020
ANSWER: 1920
EXPLANATION: A KEY GANDHIAN MOVEMENT, OFTEN REPEATED IN EXAMS.
Q13. THE REVOLT OF 1857 IS ALSO KNOWN AS?
SSC CGL 2016
SSC GD 2018
SSC MTS 2022
A. SEPOY MUTINY
B. FIRST WAR OF INDEPENDENCE
C. BOTH A AND B
D. NONE
ANSWER: C. BOTH A AND B
EXPLANATION: IT IS CALLED BOTH SEPOY MUTINY AND FIRST WAR OF INDEPENDENCE.
TOPIC: REVOLT OF 1857
Q14. WHO WAS THE LEADER OF THE REVOLT IN KANPUR?
SSC GD 2020
A. NANA SAHEB
B. TANTIA TOPE
C. RANI LAXMIBAI
D. BEGUM HAZRAT MAHAL
ANSWER: A. NANA SAHEB
EXPLANATION: NANA SAHEB LED THE REVOLT IN KANPUR AND BECAME A MAJOR FIGURE OF 1857 UPRISING.
Q15. WHO LED THE REVOLT IN JHANSI?
SSC MTS 2019
A. RANI LAXMIBAI
B. ANNIE BESANT
C. SAROJINI NAIDU
D. KASTURBA GANDHI
ANSWER: A. RANI LAXMIBAI
EXPLANATION: RANI LAXMIBAI OF JHANSI PLAYED A HEROIC ROLE IN THE REVOLT OF 1857.
TOPIC: MODERATES & EXTREMISTS
Q16. WHO WAS KNOWN AS THE GRAND OLD MAN OF INDIA?
SSC CGL 2019
A. DADABHAI NAOROJI
B. GOPAL KRISHNA GOKHALE
C. TILAK
D. LALA LAJPAT RAI
ANSWER: A. DADABHAI NAOROJI
EXPLANATION: HE WAS A MODERATE LEADER AND FIRST INDIAN MP IN BRITISH PARLIAMENT.
Q17. WHO AMONG THE FOLLOWING WAS A MODERATE LEADER?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. BAL GANGADHAR TILAK
B. BIPIN CHANDRA PAL
C. GOPAL KRISHNA GOKHALE
D. LALA LAJPAT RAI
ANSWER: C. GOPAL KRISHNA GOKHALE
EXPLANATION: GOKHALE BELIEVED IN CONSTITUTIONAL METHODS AND REFORMS.
TOPIC: REVOLUTIONARY MOVEMENT
Q18. WHO THREW A BOMB IN THE CENTRAL LEGISLATIVE ASSEMBLY IN 1929?
SSC GD 2021
A. BHAGAT SINGH & BATUKESHWAR DUTT
B. CHANDRASHEKHAR AZAD
C. RAJGURU
D. SUKHDEV
ANSWER: A. BHAGAT SINGH & BATUKESHWAR DUTT
EXPLANATION: THEY THREW BOMBS TO PROTEST AGAINST REPRESSIVE LAWS.
Q19. WHO WAS THE FOUNDER OF HINDUSTAN SOCIALIST REPUBLICAN ASSOCIATION (HSRA)?
SSC MTS 2022
A. BHAGAT SINGH
B. CHANDRASHEKHAR AZAD
C. RAM PRASAD BISMIL
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
ANSWER: D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
EXPLANATION: HSRA WAS FORMED BY REVOLUTIONARY LEADERS TO OVERTHROW BRITISH RULE.
TOPIC: GANDHIAN ERA
Q20. WHICH MOVEMENT IS ASSOCIATED WITH THE DANDI MARCH?
SSC CGL 2017
A. NON-COOPERATION MOVEMENT
B. CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE MOVEMENT
C. QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT
D. SWADESHI MOVEMENT
ANSWER: B. CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE MOVEMENT
EXPLANATION: GANDHI STARTED THE SALT MARCH IN 1930 AS PART OF CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE MOVEMENT.
Q21. IN WHICH YEAR WAS THE QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT LAUNCHED?
SSC CHSL 2018
A. 1940
B. 1941
C. 1942
D. 1943
ANSWER: C. 1942
EXPLANATION: LAUNCHED DURING WORLD WAR II DEMANDING IMMEDIATE INDEPENDENCE.
TOPIC: IMPORTANT SESSIONS & ACTS
Q22. WHERE WAS THE FIRST SESSION OF INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS HELD?
SSC GD 2019
A. BOMBAY
B. CALCUTTA
C. MADRAS
D. DELHI
ANSWER: A. BOMBAY
EXPLANATION: FIRST SESSION WAS HELD IN 1885 AT BOMBAY.
Q23. WHO PRESIDED OVER THE FIRST SESSION OF INC?
SSC MTS 2021
A. W.C. BANERJEE
B. DADABHAI NAOROJI
C. TILAK
D. HUME
ANSWER: A. W.C. BANERJEE
EXPLANATION: HE WAS THE FIRST PRESIDENT OF INC.
TOPIC: IMPORTANT EVENTS
Q24. THE JALLIANWALA BAGH MASSACRE TOOK PLACE IN WHICH YEAR?
SSC CGL 2020
A. 1917
B. 1918
C. 1919
D. 1920
ANSWER: C. 1919
EXPLANATION: GENERAL DYER ORDERED FIRING ON UNARMED CIVILIANS.
Q25. WHO WAS RESPONSIBLE FOR THE JALLIANWALA BAGH MASSACRE?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. LORD CURZON
B. GENERAL DYER
C. LORD MOUNTBATTEN
D. CORNWALLIS
ANSWER: B. GENERAL DYER
EXPLANATION: HE ORDERED TROOPS TO FIRE ON THE CROWD.
TOPIC: SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE & INA
Q26. WHAT WAS THE SLOGAN GIVEN BY SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE?
SSC GD 2022
A. DO OR DIE
B. JAI HIND
C. VANDE MATARAM
D. SWARAJ IS MY BIRTHRIGHT
ANSWER: B. JAI HIND
EXPLANATION: BOSE POPULARIZED THIS SLOGAN FOR NATIONAL UNITY.
Q27. INDIAN NATIONAL ARMY WAS FORMED IN WHICH COUNTRY?
SSC MTS 2020
A. JAPAN
B. GERMANY
C. SINGAPORE
D. BURMA
ANSWER: C. SINGAPORE
EXPLANATION: INA WAS FORMED WITH INDIAN POWS IN SOUTHEAST ASIA.
TOPIC: MISCELLANEOUS
Q28. WHO STARTED THE HOME RULE MOVEMENT IN INDIA?
SSC CGL 2018
A. TILAK & ANNIE BESANT
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. TILAK & ANNIE BESANT
EXPLANATION: IT AIMED AT SELF-GOVERNMENT WITHIN THE BRITISH EMPIRE.
Q29. WHICH ACT INTRODUCED DYARCHY IN PROVINCES?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. REGULATING ACT
B. GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT 1919
C. CHARTER ACT 1833
D. ACT 1858
ANSWER: B. GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT 1919
EXPLANATION: IT INTRODUCED DUAL GOVERNANCE IN PROVINCES.
Q30. WHO WAS THE FIRST GOVERNOR-GENERAL OF INDEPENDENT INDIA?
SSC GD 2021
A. LORD MOUNTBATTEN
B. C. RAJAGOPALACHARI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. LORD MOUNTBATTEN
EXPLANATION: HE SERVED AS THE FIRST GOVERNOR-GENERAL AFTER INDEPENDENCE IN 1947.
TOPIC: GANDHIAN MOVEMENTS
Q31. WHICH MOVEMENT FOLLOWED THE JALLIANWALA BAGH MASSACRE?
SSC CGL 2019
A. CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE
B. NON-COOPERATION
C. QUIT INDIA
D. SWADESHI
ANSWER: B. NON-COOPERATION
EXPLANATION: IT WAS LAUNCHED IN 1920 AS A RESPONSE TO THE MASSACRE.
Q32. GANDHI RETURNED TO INDIA IN WHICH YEAR?
SSC CHSL 2018
A. 1913
B. 1915
C. 1917
D. 1920
ANSWER: B. 1915
EXPLANATION: GANDHI CAME BACK FROM SOUTH AFRICA IN 1915.
TOPIC: EARLY NATIONALISM
Q33. WHO FOUNDED THE INDIAN ASSOCIATION?
SSC GD 2020
A. SURENDRANATH BANERJEE
B. TILAK
C. GOKHALE
D. HUME
ANSWER: A. SURENDRANATH BANERJEE
EXPLANATION: IT WAS FOUNDED IN 1876 TO PROMOTE POLITICAL AWARENESS.
Q34. WHICH LEADER IS ASSOCIATED WITH SERVANTS OF INDIA SOCIETY?
SSC MTS 2021
A. TILAK
B. GOKHALE
C. NAOROJI
D. BOSE
ANSWER: B. GOKHALE
EXPLANATION: FOUNDED IN 1905 FOR SOCIAL SERVICE.
TOPIC: REVOLUTIONARY ACTIVITIES
Q35. KAKORI CONSPIRACY IS RELATED TO?
SSC CGL 2020
A. TRAIN ROBBERY
B. BOMB ATTACK
C. ASSASSINATION
D. PROTEST
ANSWER: A. TRAIN ROBBERY
EXPLANATION: REVOLUTIONARIES LOOTED A TRAIN IN 1925.
Q36. WHO LED KAKORI CONSPIRACY?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. RAM PRASAD BISMIL
B. BHAGAT SINGH
C. AZAD
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. RAM PRASAD BISMIL
EXPLANATION: HE WAS THE MAIN LEADER OF THE KAKORI CASE.
TOPIC: BRITISH POLICIES
Q37. DOCTRINE OF LAPSE WAS INTRODUCED BY?
SSC GD 2019
A. DALHOUSIE
B. CURZON
C. CORNWALLIS
D. HASTINGS
ANSWER: A. DALHOUSIE
EXPLANATION: IT ANNEXED STATES WITHOUT HEIRS.
Q38. WHO PARTITIONED BENGAL?
SSC MTS 2022
A. CURZON
B. DALHOUSIE
C. WELLESLEY
D. RIPON
ANSWER: A. CURZON
EXPLANATION: PARTITION DONE IN 1905.
TOPIC: INC SESSIONS
Q39. LAHORE SESSION OF INC (1929) IS FAMOUS FOR?
SSC CGL 2018
A. SWARAJ DEMAND
B. PURNA SWARAJ
C. SWADESHI
D. BOYCOTT
ANSWER: B. PURNA SWARAJ
EXPLANATION: COMPLETE INDEPENDENCE WAS DECLARED.
Q40. WHO PRESIDED LAHORE SESSION?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. NEHRU
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. NEHRU
EXPLANATION: JAWAHARLAL NEHRU WAS PRESIDENT IN 1929.
TOPIC: IMPORTANT COMMITTEES & ACTS
Q41. SIMON COMMISSION CAME IN?
SSC GD 2021
A. 1927
B. 1928
C. 1929
D. 1930
ANSWER: A. 1927
EXPLANATION: NO INDIAN MEMBER INCLUDED.
Q42. WHY WAS SIMON COMMISSION OPPOSED?
SSC MTS 2020
A. NO INDIANS
B. HIGH TAX
C. WAR
D. TRADE
ANSWER: A. NO INDIANS
EXPLANATION: IT HAD ONLY BRITISH MEMBERS.
TOPIC: MASS MOVEMENTS
Q43. CHAMPARAN MOVEMENT WAS RELATED TO?
SSC CGL 2017
A. INDIGO FARMERS
B. SALT
C. LABOUR
D. STUDENTS
ANSWER: A. INDIGO FARMERS
EXPLANATION: GANDHI SUPPORTED FARMERS IN BIHAR.
Q44. KHEDA MOVEMENT WAS LED BY?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. GANDHI
B. BOSE
C. TILAK
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A. GANDHI
EXPLANATION: IT WAS AGAINST TAX COLLECTION.
TOPIC: INA & BOSE
Q45. INA WAS REVIVED BY?
SSC GD 2022
A. BOSE
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. BOSE
EXPLANATION: HE REORGANIZED INA IN 1943.
Q46. AZAD HIND GOVERNMENT FORMED IN?
SSC MTS 2021
A. 1942
B. 1943
C. 1944
D. 1945
ANSWER: B. 1943
EXPLANATION: FORMED BY SUBHAS BOSE.
TOPIC: QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT
Q47. QUIT INDIA SLOGAN?
SSC CGL 2018
A. DO OR DIE
B. JAI HIND
C. SWARAJ
D. VANDE MATARAM
ANSWER: A. DO OR DIE
EXPLANATION: GIVEN BY GANDHI.
Q48. QUIT INDIA LAUNCHED AT?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. BOMBAY
B. DELHI
C. CALCUTTA
D. MADRAS
ANSWER: A. BOMBAY
EXPLANATION: LAUNCHED IN AUGUST 1942.
TOPIC: MISCELLANEOUS
Q49. WHO WROTE ‘DISCOVERY OF INDIA’?
SSC GD 2020
A. NEHRU
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. NEHRU
EXPLANATION: WRITTEN DURING IMPRISONMENT.
Q50. WHO IS CALLED IRON MAN OF INDIA?
SSC MTS 2022
A. PATEL
B. NEHRU
C. GANDHI
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. PATEL
EXPLANATION: DUE TO INTEGRATION OF PRINCELY STATES.
Q51. FIRST WOMAN PRESIDENT OF INC?
SSC CGL 2017
A. ANNIE BESANT
B. SAROJINI NAIDU
C. INDIRA GANDHI
D. KASTURBA
ANS: A
EXP: ANNIE BESANT (1917).
Q52. FIRST WOMAN GOVERNOR OF INDIA?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. SAROJINI NAIDU
B. INDIRA GANDHI
C. VIJAYALAKSHMI
D. SUCHETA
ANS: A
EXP: UP GOVERNOR.
Q53. GANDHI-IRWIN PACT YEAR?
SSC GD 2021
A. 1930
B. 1931
C. 1932
D. 1933
ANS: B
EXP: SIGNED IN 1931.
Q54. POONA PACT YEAR?
SSC MTS 2020
A. 1932
B. 1933
C. 1934
D. 1935
ANS: A
EXP: GANDHI & AMBEDKAR.
Q55. WHO FOUNDED ALIGARH MOVEMENT?
SSC CGL 2018
A. SIR SYED AHMED KHAN
B. AZAD
C. IQBAL
D. JINNAH
ANS: A
EXP: FOR MUSLIM EDUCATION.
Q56. LUCKNOW PACT YEAR?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. 1915
B. 1916
C. 1917
D. 1918
ANS: B
EXP: INC + MUSLIM LEAGUE.
Q57. WHO STARTED YOUNG INDIA?
SSC GD 2019
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. TILAK
ANS: A
EXP: WEEKLY JOURNAL.
Q58. WHO WROTE HIND SWARAJ?
SSC MTS 2021
A. GANDHI
B. TILAK
C. GOKHALE
D. BOSE
ANS: A
Q59. WHO WAS VICEROY DURING QUIT INDIA?
SSC CGL 2020
A. LINLITHGOW
B. CURZON
C. IRWIN
D. WAVELL
ANS: A
Q60. CABINET MISSION CAME IN?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. 1945
B. 1946
C. 1947
D. 1948
ANS: B
Q61. INA TRIALS PLACE?
SSC GD 2022
A. RED FORT
B. BOMBAY
C. LAHORE
D. KOLKATA
ANSWER: A. RED FORT
EXPLANATION: INA TRIALS WERE HELD AT RED FORT, CREATING NATIONWIDE SYMPATHY.
Q62. WHO GAVE ‘INQUILAB ZINDABAD’?
SSC MTS 2020
A. BHAGAT SINGH
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A. BHAGAT SINGH
EXPLANATION: FAMOUS REVOLUTIONARY SLOGAN MEANING “LONG LIVE REVOLUTION.”
Q63. ROWLATT ACT WAS PASSED IN WHICH YEAR?
SSC CGL 2019
A. 1917
B. 1918
C. 1919
D. 1920
ANSWER: C. 1919
EXPLANATION: ALLOWED DETENTION WITHOUT TRIAL, LEADING TO PROTESTS.
Q64. WHO LED PROTEST AGAINST ROWLATT ACT?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. GANDHI
EXPLANATION: GANDHI LAUNCHED NATIONWIDE HARTAL.
Q65. WHO FOUNDED CONGRESS SOCIALIST PARTY?
SSC GD 2021
A. JAYAPRAKASH NARAYAN
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. JAYAPRAKASH NARAYAN
EXPLANATION: FOUNDED IN 1934 TO PROMOTE SOCIALIST IDEAS.
Q66. BARDOLI SATYAGRAHA WAS LED BY?
SSC MTS 2022
A. PATEL
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A. PATEL
EXPLANATION: LED PEASANTS AGAINST TAX HIKE.
Q67. CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE MOVEMENT STARTED IN?
SSC CGL 2018
A. 1929
B. 1930
C. 1931
D. 1932
ANSWER: B. 1930
EXPLANATION: BEGAN WITH DANDI MARCH.
Q68. GANDHI WAS ARRESTED AFTER WHICH MARCH?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. DANDI MARCH
B. CHAMPARAN
C. KHEDA
D. BARDOLI
ANSWER: A. DANDI MARCH
EXPLANATION: ARRESTED DURING CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE.
Q69. SWARAJ PARTY WAS FOUNDED BY?
SSC GD 2020
A. C.R. DAS
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. C.R. DAS
EXPLANATION: FOUNDED IN 1923 WITH MOTILAL NEHRU.
Q70. SWARAJ PARTY WAS FORMED IN WHICH YEAR?
SSC MTS 2021
A. 1920
B. 1921
C. 1922
D. 1923
ANSWER: D. 1923
EXPLANATION: TO ENTER LEGISLATIVE COUNCILS.
Q71. WHO GAVE ‘DELHI CHALO’?
SSC CGL 2020
A. BOSE
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. BOSE
EXPLANATION: SLOGAN OF INA FOR MARCHING TO DELHI.
Q72. INA HEADQUARTERS WAS LOCATED AT?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. SINGAPORE
B. TOKYO
C. BERLIN
D. DELHI
ANSWER: A. SINGAPORE
EXPLANATION: INA OPERATED FROM SOUTHEAST ASIA.
Q73. TEBHAGA MOVEMENT WAS RELATED TO?
SSC GD 2019
A. PEASANTS
B. WORKERS
C. STUDENTS
D. SOLDIERS
ANSWER: A. PEASANTS
EXPLANATION: SHARECROPPERS DEMANDED LARGER SHARE.
Q74. INDIGO REVOLT TOOK PLACE IN?
SSC MTS 2020
A. BENGAL
B. PUNJAB
C. BIHAR
D. UP
ANSWER: A. BENGAL
EXPLANATION: FARMERS PROTESTED FORCED INDIGO CULTIVATION.
Q75. ARYA SAMAJ WAS FOUNDED BY?
SSC CGL 2017
A. DAYANAND SARASWATI
B. VIVEKANANDA
C. RAM MOHAN ROY
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A. DAYANAND SARASWATI
EXPLANATION: FOUNDED IN 1875.
Q76. BRAHMO SAMAJ FOUNDER?
SSC CHSL 2018
A. RAJA RAM MOHAN ROY
B. VIVEKANANDA
C. TILAK
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. RAJA RAM MOHAN ROY
EXPLANATION: SOCIAL REFORM MOVEMENT.
Q77. VERNACULAR PRESS ACT PASSED IN?
SSC GD 2021
A. 1878
B. 1880
C. 1882
D. 1885
ANSWER: A. 1878
EXPLANATION: RESTRICTED INDIAN PRESS.
Q78. ILBERT BILL CONTROVERSY YEAR?
SSC MTS 2022
A. 1881
B. 1882
C. 1883
D. 1884
ANSWER: C. 1883
EXPLANATION: EUROPEANS OPPOSED EQUALITY IN COURTS.
Q79. NEWSPAPER ‘KESARI’ STARTED BY?
SSC CGL 2019
A. TILAK
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A. TILAK
EXPLANATION: SPREAD NATIONALIST IDEAS.
Q80. ‘HARIJAN’ JOURNAL STARTED BY?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. GANDHI
EXPLANATION: FOCUSED ON SOCIAL REFORMS.
Q61. INA TRIALS PLACE?
SSC GD 2022
A. RED FORT
B. BOMBAY
C. LAHORE
D. KOLKATA
ANSWER: A. RED FORT
EXPLANATION: INA TRIALS WERE HELD AT RED FORT, CREATING NATIONWIDE SYMPATHY.
Q62. WHO GAVE ‘INQUILAB ZINDABAD’?
SSC MTS 2020
A. BHAGAT SINGH
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A. BHAGAT SINGH
EXPLANATION: FAMOUS REVOLUTIONARY SLOGAN MEANING “LONG LIVE REVOLUTION.”
Q63. ROWLATT ACT WAS PASSED IN WHICH YEAR?
SSC CGL 2019
A. 1917
B. 1918
C. 1919
D. 1920
ANSWER: C. 1919
EXPLANATION: ALLOWED DETENTION WITHOUT TRIAL, LEADING TO PROTESTS.
Q64. WHO LED PROTEST AGAINST ROWLATT ACT?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. GANDHI
EXPLANATION: GANDHI LAUNCHED NATIONWIDE HARTAL.
Q65. WHO FOUNDED CONGRESS SOCIALIST PARTY?
SSC GD 2021
A. JAYAPRAKASH NARAYAN
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. JAYAPRAKASH NARAYAN
EXPLANATION: FOUNDED IN 1934 TO PROMOTE SOCIALIST IDEAS.
Q66. BARDOLI SATYAGRAHA WAS LED BY?
SSC MTS 2022
A. PATEL
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A. PATEL
EXPLANATION: LED PEASANTS AGAINST TAX HIKE.
Q67. CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE MOVEMENT STARTED IN?
SSC CGL 2018
A. 1929
B. 1930
C. 1931
D. 1932
ANSWER: B. 1930
EXPLANATION: BEGAN WITH DANDI MARCH.
Q68. GANDHI WAS ARRESTED AFTER WHICH MARCH?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. DANDI MARCH
B. CHAMPARAN
C. KHEDA
D. BARDOLI
ANSWER: A. DANDI MARCH
EXPLANATION: ARRESTED DURING CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE.
Q69. SWARAJ PARTY WAS FOUNDED BY?
SSC GD 2020
A. C.R. DAS
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. C.R. DAS
EXPLANATION: FOUNDED IN 1923 WITH MOTILAL NEHRU.
Q70. SWARAJ PARTY WAS FORMED IN WHICH YEAR?
SSC MTS 2021
A. 1920
B. 1921
C. 1922
D. 1923
ANSWER: D. 1923
EXPLANATION: TO ENTER LEGISLATIVE COUNCILS.
Q71. WHO GAVE ‘DELHI CHALO’?
SSC CGL 2020
A. BOSE
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. BOSE
EXPLANATION: SLOGAN OF INA FOR MARCHING TO DELHI.
Q72. INA HEADQUARTERS WAS LOCATED AT?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. SINGAPORE
B. TOKYO
C. BERLIN
D. DELHI
ANSWER: A. SINGAPORE
EXPLANATION: INA OPERATED FROM SOUTHEAST ASIA.
Q73. TEBHAGA MOVEMENT WAS RELATED TO?
SSC GD 2019
A. PEASANTS
B. WORKERS
C. STUDENTS
D. SOLDIERS
ANSWER: A. PEASANTS
EXPLANATION: SHARECROPPERS DEMANDED LARGER SHARE.
Q74. INDIGO REVOLT TOOK PLACE IN?
SSC MTS 2020
A. BENGAL
B. PUNJAB
C. BIHAR
D. UP
ANSWER: A. BENGAL
EXPLANATION: FARMERS PROTESTED FORCED INDIGO CULTIVATION.
Q75. ARYA SAMAJ WAS FOUNDED BY?
SSC CGL 2017
A. DAYANAND SARASWATI
B. VIVEKANANDA
C. RAM MOHAN ROY
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A. DAYANAND SARASWATI
EXPLANATION: FOUNDED IN 1875.
Q76. BRAHMO SAMAJ FOUNDER?
SSC CHSL 2018
A. RAJA RAM MOHAN ROY
B. VIVEKANANDA
C. TILAK
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. RAJA RAM MOHAN ROY
EXPLANATION: SOCIAL REFORM MOVEMENT.
Q77. VERNACULAR PRESS ACT PASSED IN?
SSC GD 2021
A. 1878
B. 1880
C. 1882
D. 1885
ANSWER: A. 1878
EXPLANATION: RESTRICTED INDIAN PRESS.
Q78. ILBERT BILL CONTROVERSY YEAR?
SSC MTS 2022
A. 1881
B. 1882
C. 1883
D. 1884
ANSWER: C. 1883
EXPLANATION: EUROPEANS OPPOSED EQUALITY IN COURTS.
Q79. NEWSPAPER ‘KESARI’ STARTED BY?
SSC CGL 2019
A. TILAK
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A. TILAK
EXPLANATION: SPREAD NATIONALIST IDEAS.
Q80. ‘HARIJAN’ JOURNAL STARTED BY?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. GANDHI
EXPLANATION: FOCUSED ON SOCIAL REFORMS.
Q81. WHO GAVE THE SLOGAN ‘BACK TO THE VEDAS’?
SSC GD 2022
A. DAYANAND SARASWATI
B. VIVEKANANDA
C. RAM MOHAN ROY
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A. DAYANAND SARASWATI
EXPLANATION: IT WAS THE CORE MESSAGE OF ARYA SAMAJ PROMOTING VEDIC VALUES.
Q82. WHO WAS THE FIRST EDUCATION MINISTER OF INDIA?
SSC MTS 2021
A. MAULANA ABUL KALAM AZAD
B. NEHRU
C. PATEL
D. RAJENDRA PRASAD
ANSWER: A. MAULANA ABUL KALAM AZAD
EXPLANATION: HE PLAYED A KEY ROLE IN SHAPING MODERN EDUCATION IN INDIA.
Q83. WHO HOISTED THE INDIAN NATIONAL FLAG ON 15 AUGUST 1947?
SSC CGL 2018
A. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
B. GANDHI
C. PATEL
D. RAJENDRA PRASAD
ANSWER: A. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
EXPLANATION: HE HOISTED THE FLAG AT RED FORT MARKING INDEPENDENCE.
Q84. WHO INTEGRATED PRINCELY STATES INTO INDIA?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. SARDAR PATEL
B. NEHRU
C. GANDHI
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. SARDAR PATEL
EXPLANATION: KNOWN AS IRON MAN FOR INTEGRATING OVER 500 STATES.
Q85. WHO WAS THE LAST VICEROY OF INDIA?
SSC GD 2020
A. LORD MOUNTBATTEN
B. CURZON
C. WAVELL
D. IRWIN
ANSWER: A. LORD MOUNTBATTEN
EXPLANATION: OVERSAW PARTITION AND INDEPENDENCE IN 1947.
Q86. IN WHICH YEAR DID INDIA GET INDEPENDENCE?
SSC MTS 2022
A. 1945
B. 1946
C. 1947
D. 1948
ANSWER: C. 1947
EXPLANATION: INDIA BECAME INDEPENDENT ON 15 AUGUST 1947.
Q87. DIRECT ACTION DAY WAS OBSERVED IN?
SSC CGL 2020
A. 1945
B. 1946
C. 1947
D. 1948
ANSWER: B. 1946
EXPLANATION: CALLED BY MUSLIM LEAGUE LEADING TO COMMUNAL RIOTS.
Q88. WHO WAS THE LEADER OF MUSLIM LEAGUE DURING PARTITION?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. JINNAH
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. JINNAH
EXPLANATION: LED DEMAND FOR PAKISTAN.
Q89. WHO LAUNCHED QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT?
SSC GD 2019
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. GANDHI
EXPLANATION: LAUNCHED IN 1942 WITH SLOGAN ‘DO OR DIE’.
Q90. SALT TAX WAS REMOVED AFTER WHICH PACT?
SSC MTS 2020
A. GANDHI-IRWIN PACT
B. POONA PACT
C. LUCKNOW PACT
D. DELHI PACT
ANSWER: A. GANDHI-IRWIN PACT
EXPLANATION: SIGNED IN 1931 LEADING TO CONCESSIONS.
Q91. WHO WAS THE CHAIRMAN OF DRAFTING COMMITTEE?
SSC CGL 2018
A. B.R. AMBEDKAR
B. NEHRU
C. GANDHI
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. B.R. AMBEDKAR
EXPLANATION: LED DRAFTING OF INDIAN CONSTITUTION.
Q92. CONSTITUTION OF INDIA WAS ADOPTED IN?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. 1947
B. 1948
C. 1949
D. 1950
ANSWER: C. 1949
EXPLANATION: ADOPTED ON 26 NOVEMBER 1949.
Q93. INDIA BECAME REPUBLIC IN?
SSC GD 2021
A. 1949
B. 1950
C. 1951
D. 1952
ANSWER: B. 1950
EXPLANATION: CONSTITUTION CAME INTO FORCE ON 26 JAN 1950.
Q94. WHO WAS THE FIRST PRESIDENT OF INDIA?
SSC MTS 2022
A. RAJENDRA PRASAD
B. NEHRU
C. GANDHI
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. RAJENDRA PRASAD
EXPLANATION: SERVED AS FIRST PRESIDENT FROM 1950.
Q95. WHO INTRODUCED THE CONCEPT OF SATYAGRAHA?
SSC CGL 2020
A. GANDHI
B. TILAK
C. BOSE
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A. GANDHI
EXPLANATION: NON-VIOLENT RESISTANCE PHILOSOPHY.
Q96. KHILAFAT MOVEMENT WAS STARTED BY?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. ALI BROTHERS
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. JINNAH
ANSWER: A. ALI BROTHERS
EXPLANATION: SUPPORTED OTTOMAN CALIPHATE.
Q97. KHILAFAT MOVEMENT STARTED IN WHICH YEAR?
SSC GD 2019
A. 1918
B. 1919
C. 1920
D. 1921
ANSWER: B. 1919
EXPLANATION: BEGAN AFTER WORLD WAR I.
Q98. MOPLAH REVOLT TOOK PLACE IN?
SSC MTS 2020
A. KERALA
B. BENGAL
C. PUNJAB
D. BIHAR
ANSWER: A. KERALA
EXPLANATION: AGRARIAN UPRISING IN MALABAR REGION.
Q99. GHADAR PARTY WAS FOUNDED BY?
SSC CGL 2018
A. LALA HARDAYAL
B. BHAGAT SINGH
C. BOSE
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A. LALA HARDAYAL
EXPLANATION: REVOLUTIONARY PARTY FORMED ABROAD.
Q100. GHADAR PARTY WAS FOUNDED IN WHICH YEAR?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. 1911
B. 1912
C. 1913
D. 1914
ANSWER: C. 1913
EXPLANATION: ESTABLISHED IN USA TO FIGHT BRITISH RULE.
TOPIC: REVOLUTIONARY ORGANIZATIONS
Q101. ANUSHILAN SAMITI WAS FOUNDED IN WHICH CITY?
SSC CGL 2019
A. KOLKATA
B. DELHI
C. MUMBAI
D. LAHORE
ANSWER: A. KOLKATA
EXPLANATION: IT WAS AN IMPORTANT REVOLUTIONARY ORGANIZATION IN BENGAL.
Q102. WHO FOUNDED ABHINAV BHARAT?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. V.D. SAVARKAR
B. TILAK
C. BOSE
D. GANDHI
ANSWER: A. V.D. SAVARKAR
EXPLANATION: A SECRET REVOLUTIONARY SOCIETY FORMED IN 1904.
TOPIC: PEASANT & TRIBAL MOVEMENTS
Q103. SANTHAL REBELLION TOOK PLACE IN?
SSC GD 2021
A. 1855
B. 1857
C. 1860
D. 1870
ANSWER: A. 1855
EXPLANATION: REVOLT AGAINST BRITISH AND ZAMINDARS IN JHARKHAND REGION.
Q104. BIRSA MUNDA MOVEMENT IS RELATED TO?
SSC MTS 2022
A. TRIBAL REVOLT
B. FARMER PROTEST
C. WORKER STRIKE
D. STUDENT PROTEST
ANSWER: A. TRIBAL REVOLT
EXPLANATION: BIRSA LED TRIBAL UPRISING AGAINST BRITISH POLICIES.
TOPIC: IMPORTANT LEADERS & CONTRIBUTIONS
Q105. WHO WAS KNOWN AS FRONTIER GANDHI?
SSC CGL 2018
A. KHAN ABDUL GHAFFAR KHAN
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. KHAN ABDUL GHAFFAR KHAN
EXPLANATION: HE LED NON-VIOLENT MOVEMENT IN NWFP.
Q106. WHO FOUNDED BANARAS HINDU UNIVERSITY?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. MADAN MOHAN MALAVIYA
B. NEHRU
C. GANDHI
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. MADAN MOHAN MALAVIYA
EXPLANATION: ESTABLISHED IN 1916.
TOPIC: BRITISH ACTS & REFORMS
Q107. GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT 1935 INTRODUCED?
SSC GD 2020
A. FEDERAL STRUCTURE
B. INDEPENDENCE
C. DOMINION STATUS
D. REPUBLIC
ANSWER: A. FEDERAL STRUCTURE
EXPLANATION: PROVIDED PROVINCIAL AUTONOMY.
Q108. PITT’S INDIA ACT PASSED IN?
SSC MTS 2021
A. 1784
B. 1773
C. 1793
D. 1813
ANSWER: A. 1784
EXPLANATION: ESTABLISHED DUAL CONTROL OF BRITISH GOVT AND COMPANY.
TOPIC: IMPORTANT MOVEMENTS
Q109. INDIVIDUAL SATYAGRAHA WAS LAUNCHED IN?
SSC CGL 2020
A. 1940
B. 1941
C. 1942
D. 1943
ANSWER: A. 1940
EXPLANATION: LIMITED MOVEMENT AGAINST BRITISH DURING WWII.
Q110. FIRST INDIVIDUAL SATYAGRAHI WAS?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. VINOBA BHAVE
B. NEHRU
C. GANDHI
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. VINOBA BHAVE
EXPLANATION: CHOSEN BY GANDHI FOR SYMBOLIC PROTEST.
TOPIC: NEWSPAPERS & LITERATURE
Q111. ‘YOUNG BENGAL MOVEMENT’ WAS LED BY?
SSC GD 2019
A. HENRY DEROZIO
B. ROY
C. VIVEKANANDA
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A. HENRY DEROZIO
EXPLANATION: PROMOTED RADICAL IDEAS AMONG YOUTH.
Q112. ‘BANDE MATARAM’ NEWSPAPER STARTED BY?
SSC MTS 2020
A. AUROBINDO GHOSH
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A. AUROBINDO GHOSH
EXPLANATION: SPREAD NATIONALIST IDEOLOGY.
TOPIC: MISCELLANEOUS ADVANCED
Q113. WHO GAVE SLOGAN ‘SIMON GO BACK’?
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2021
A. INDIANS
B. BRITISH
C. MUSLIMS
D. STUDENTS
ANSWER: A. INDIANS
EXPLANATION: PROTEST AGAINST SIMON COMMISSION (NO INDIAN MEMBERS).
Q114. WHO WAS KILLED DURING SIMON PROTEST?
SSC CHSL 2018
A. LALA LAJPAT RAI
B. TILAK
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. LALA LAJPAT RAI
EXPLANATION: DIED AFTER POLICE LATHI CHARGE.
Q115. WHO AVENGED LAJPAT RAI’S DEATH?
SSC GD 2022
A. BHAGAT SINGH
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. BHAGAT SINGH
EXPLANATION: ASSASSINATED SAUNDERS.
Q116. SAUNDERS WAS KILLED IN?
SSC MTS 2021
A. 1928
B. 1929
C. 1930
D. 1931
ANSWER: A. 1928
EXPLANATION: IN RETALIATION FOR LAJPAT RAI’S DEATH.
Q117. WHO WAS ASSOCIATED WITH HIND SWARAJ?
SSC CGL 2019
A. GANDHI
B. TILAK
C. BOSE
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A. GANDHI
EXPLANATION: WRITTEN IN 1909.
Q118. WHO STARTED ALL INDIA TRADE UNION CONGRESS?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. LALA LAJPAT RAI
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A. LALA LAJPAT RAI
EXPLANATION: FOUNDED IN 1920.
Q119. WHO FOUNDED SELF RESPECT MOVEMENT?
SSC GD 2021
A. PERIYAR
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. PERIYAR
EXPLANATION: SOCIAL REFORM MOVEMENT IN TAMIL NADU.
Q120. WHO FOUNDED SERVANTS OF INDIA SOCIETY?
SSC MTS 2022
A. GOKHALE
B. TILAK
C. BOSE
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A. GOKHALE
EXPLANATION: FOUNDED IN 1905 FOR PUBLIC SERVICE.
Q121. POONA PACT WAS SIGNED BETWEEN?
SSC MTS 2022
A. GANDHI & AMBEDKAR
B. GANDHI & NEHRU
C. BOSE & NEHRU
D. TILAK & GOKHALE
ANSWER: A. GANDHI & AMBEDKAR
EXPLANATION: AGREEMENT ON REPRESENTATION OF DEPRESSED CLASSES (1932).
Q122. WHO FOUNDED INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS?
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2020
A. A.O. HUME
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A. A.O. HUME
EXPLANATION: FOUNDED IN 1885 AS A POLITICAL PLATFORM.
Q123. WHO WAS FIRST GOVERNOR-GENERAL OF INDIA?
SSC GD 2019
A. WARREN HASTINGS
B. DALHOUSIE
C. CURZON
D. CANNING
ANSWER: A. WARREN HASTINGS
EXPLANATION: APPOINTED UNDER REGULATING ACT 1773.
Q124. WHO WAS FIRST VICEROY OF INDIA?
SSC MTS 2020
A. LORD CANNING
B. DALHOUSIE
C. CURZON
D. HASTINGS
ANSWER: A. LORD CANNING
EXPLANATION: BECAME VICEROY AFTER 1858 ACT.
Q125. CHAMPARAN SATYAGRAHA WAS RELATED TO?
SSC CGL 2020
A. INDIGO FARMERS
B. SALT
C. LABOUR
D. STUDENTS
ANSWER: A. INDIGO FARMERS
EXPLANATION: GANDHI’S FIRST SATYAGRAHA IN INDIA.
Q126. KHUDAI KHIDMATGAR WAS FOUNDED BY?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. KHAN ABDUL GHAFFAR KHAN
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. KHAN ABDUL GHAFFAR KHAN
EXPLANATION: NON-VIOLENT MOVEMENT IN NWFP.
Q127. ‘INDIA WINS FREEDOM’ WAS WRITTEN BY?
SSC GD 2022
A. MAULANA AZAD
B. NEHRU
C. GANDHI
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. MAULANA AZAD
EXPLANATION: AUTOBIOGRAPHICAL ACCOUNT OF FREEDOM STRUGGLE.
Q128. ‘JAI HIND’ SLOGAN WAS POPULARIZED BY?
SSC MTS 2021
A. SUBHAS BOSE
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. SUBHAS BOSE
EXPLANATION: BECAME NATIONAL SLOGAN DURING INA MOVEMENT.
Q129. WHO AMONG THE FOLLOWING WAS A MODERATE LEADER?
SSC CGL 2019
A. GOPAL KRISHNA GOKHALE
B. TILAK
C. BIPIN PAL
D. LAJPAT RAI
ANSWER: A. GOPAL KRISHNA GOKHALE
EXPLANATION: BELIEVED IN CONSTITUTIONAL REFORMS.
Q130. WHO AMONG THE FOLLOWING WAS AN EXTREMIST LEADER?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. BAL GANGADHAR TILAK
B. GOKHALE
C. NAOROJI
D. MEHTA
ANSWER: A. BAL GANGADHAR TILAK
EXPLANATION: ADVOCATED SWARAJ AND MASS AGITATION.
Q131. WHO GAVE SLOGAN ‘VANDE MATARAM’?
SSC GD 2021
A. BANKIM CHANDRA CHATTERJEE
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. BANKIM CHANDRA CHATTERJEE
EXPLANATION: FROM NOVEL ANANDAMATH.
Q132. WHO WROTE ANANDAMATH?
SSC MTS 2022
A. BANKIM CHANDRA
B. TAGORE
C. GANDHI
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: FAMOUS NATIONALIST NOVEL.
Q133. WHO COMPOSED NATIONAL ANTHEM?
SSC CGL 2018
A. RABINDRANATH TAGORE
B. BANKIM
C. GANDHI
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: JANA GANA MANA.
Q134. WHO GAVE SLOGAN ‘DO OR DIE’?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. GANDHI
B. BOSE
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: DURING QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT.
Q135. WHO LED DANDI MARCH?
SSC GD 2020
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: AGAINST SALT TAX.
Q136. DANDI MARCH STARTED FROM?
SSC MTS 2021
A. SABARMATI
B. DELHI
C. BOMBAY
D. CALCUTTA
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: MARCH TO DANDI (1930).
Q137. WHO LED SALT SATYAGRAHA IN TAMIL NADU?
SSC CGL 2019
A. RAJAGOPALACHARI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: ORGANIZED VEDARANYAM MARCH.
Q138. WHO WAS FIRST WOMAN PRESIDENT OF INC?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. ANNIE BESANT
B. SAROJINI NAIDU
C. INDIRA GANDHI
D. KASTURBA
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: BECAME PRESIDENT IN 1917.
Q139. WHO WAS FIRST INDIAN WOMAN PRESIDENT OF INC?
SSC GD 2021
A. SAROJINI NAIDU
B. ANNIE BESANT
C. INDIRA GANDHI
D. SUCHETA
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: BECAME PRESIDENT IN 1925.
Q140. WHO WAS KNOWN AS NIGHTINGALE OF INDIA?
SSC MTS 2022
A. SAROJINI NAIDU
B. ANNIE BESANT
C. INDIRA GANDHI
D. KASTURBA
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: FAMOUS POET AND LEADER.
Q141. WHO FOUNDED THE INDIAN NATIONAL ARMY (INA)?
SSC CGL 2020
A. RAS BEHARI BOSE
B. SUBHAS BOSE
C. GANDHI
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A. RAS BEHARI BOSE
EXPLANATION: INA WAS INITIALLY FORMED BY RAS BEHARI BOSE AND LATER LED BY SUBHAS BOSE.
Q142. WHO REORGANIZED INA?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. SUBHAS BOSE
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. SUBHAS BOSE
EXPLANATION: HE STRENGTHENED INA INTO A POWERFUL FORCE.
Q143. CABINET MISSION CAME TO INDIA IN?
SSC GD 2019
A. 1945
B. 1946
C. 1947
D. 1948
ANSWER: B. 1946
EXPLANATION: IT PROPOSED A PLAN FOR TRANSFER OF POWER.
Q144. WHO WAS VICEROY DURING CABINET MISSION?
SSC MTS 2020
A. WAVELL
B. CURZON
C. IRWIN
D. MOUNTBATTEN
ANSWER: A. WAVELL
EXPLANATION: LORD WAVELL WAS VICEROY IN 1946.
Q145. WHO PROPOSED TWO NATION THEORY?
SSC CGL 2018
A. JINNAH
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. JINNAH
EXPLANATION: BASIS FOR CREATION OF PAKISTAN.
Q146. WHO STARTED CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE MOVEMENT?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. GANDHI
B. BOSE
C. NEHRU
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A. GANDHI
EXPLANATION: LAUNCHED IN 1930.
Q147. LAHORE SESSION DECLARED PURNA SWARAJ IN?
SSC GD 2021
A. 1928
B. 1929
C. 1930
D. 1931
ANSWER: B. 1929
EXPLANATION: COMPLETE INDEPENDENCE DECLARED.
Q148. WHO HOISTED FLAG ON 26 JAN 1930?
SSC MTS 2022
A. NEHRU
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. NEHRU
EXPLANATION: MARKED INDEPENDENCE PLEDGE.
Q149. WHO LED NOAKHALI MOVEMENT?
SSC CGL 2020
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. GANDHI
EXPLANATION: WORKED FOR COMMUNAL HARMONY.
Q150. WHO WAS FIRST LAW MINISTER OF INDIA?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. B.R. AMBEDKAR
B. NEHRU
C. PATEL
D. RAJENDRA PRASAD
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: DRAFTED CONSTITUTION.
Q151. WHO FOUNDED THEOSOPHICAL SOCIETY IN INDIA?
SSC GD 2020
A. ANNIE BESANT
B. BLAVATSKY
C. BOTH A & B
D. NONE
ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION: MOVEMENT FOR SPIRITUAL REFORM.
Q152. WHO STARTED HOME RULE LEAGUE IN MADRAS?
SSC MTS 2021
A. ANNIE BESANT
B. TILAK
C. GANDHI
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: PARALLEL MOVEMENT WITH TILAK.
Q153. WHO STARTED HOME RULE LEAGUE IN MAHARASHTRA?
SSC CGL 2019
A. TILAK
B. BESANT
C. GANDHI
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
Q154. WHO WROTE ‘KESARI’?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. TILAK
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A
Q155. WHO LED BARDOLI MOVEMENT?
SSC GD 2021
A. PATEL
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
Q156. WHO WAS KNOWN AS DESHBANDHU?
SSC MTS 2022
A. C.R. DAS
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
Q157. WHO FOUNDED SWARAJ PARTY?
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
A. C.R. DAS & MOTILAL NEHRU
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
Q158. WHO WAS CALLED LOKMANYA?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. TILAK
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
Q159. WHO LED KHEDA SATYAGRAHA?
SSC GD 2020
A. GANDHI
B. PATEL
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
Q160. WHO FOUNDED ALL INDIA MUSLIM LEAGUE?
SSC MTS 2021
A. AGA KHAN
B. JINNAH
C. GANDHI
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A
Q161. MUSLIM LEAGUE FORMED IN?
SSC CGL 2019
A. 1906
B. 1905
C. 1907
D. 1908
ANSWER: A
Q162. WHO WAS FIRST PRESIDENT OF MUSLIM LEAGUE?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. AGA KHAN
B. JINNAH
C. GANDHI
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A
Q163. WHO GAVE ‘SWARAJ’ SLOGAN?
SSC GD 2021
A. TILAK
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A
Q164. WHO LED QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT LOCALLY?
SSC MTS 2022
A. ARUNA ASAF ALI
B. SAROJINI NAIDU
C. INDIRA GANDHI
D. ANNIE BESANT
ANSWER: A
Q165. WHO HOISTED FLAG IN QUIT INDIA?
SSC CGL 2020
A. ARUNA ASAF ALI
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
Q166. WHO FORMED AZAD HIND GOVT?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. SUBHAS BOSE
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
Q167. WHERE AZAD HIND GOVT FORMED?
SSC GD 2019
A. SINGAPORE
B. INDIA
C. JAPAN
D. GERMANY
ANSWER: A
Q168. WHO GAVE ‘GIVE ME BLOOD…’?
SSC MTS 2020
A. BOSE
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
Q169. WHO LED DANDI MARCH?
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
Q170. WHO SUPPORTED BRITISH IN WWI?
SSC GD 2022
A. CONGRESS
B. LEAGUE
C. BOTH
D. NONE
ANSWER: C
Q171. WHO LED AUGUST MOVEMENT?
SSC MTS 2021
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
Q172. WHO STARTED SATYAGRAHA IN SOUTH AFRICA?
SSC CGL 2019
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
Q173. GANDHI RETURNED INDIA FROM?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. SOUTH AFRICA
B. UK
C. USA
D. FRANCE
ANSWER: A
Q174. WHO FOUNDED INC SESSION BOMBAY?
SSC GD 2021
A. HUME
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A
Q175. FIRST INC SESSION PRESIDENT?
SSC MTS 2022
A. W.C. BANERJEE
B. HUME
C. NAOROJI
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A
Q176. WHO LED EXTREMIST GROUP?
SSC CGL 2020
A. TILAK
B. GOKHALE
C. NAOROJI
D. MEHTA
ANSWER: A
Q177. WHO LED MODERATE GROUP?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. GOKHALE
B. TILAK
C. BOSE
D. LAJPAT RAI
ANSWER: A
Q178. WHO STARTED SWADESHI MOVEMENT?
SSC GD 2019
A. AFTER BENGAL PARTITION
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A
Q179. BENGAL PARTITION YEAR?
SSC MTS 2020
A. 1905
B. 1906
C. 1907
D. 1908
ANSWER: A
Q180. WHO REVERSED BENGAL PARTITION?
SSC CGL 2018
A. GEORGE V
B. CURZON
C. DALHOUSIE
D. IRWIN
ANSWER: A
Q181. WHO WAS VICEROY DURING PARTITION REVERSAL?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. HARDINGE
B. CURZON
C. IRWIN
D. WAVELL
ANSWER: A
Q182. CAPITAL SHIFTED TO DELHI IN?
SSC GD 2021
A. 1911
B. 1910
C. 1912
D. 1913
ANSWER: A
Q183. WHO GAVE ‘FREEDOM IS MY BIRTHRIGHT’?
SSC MTS 2022
A. TILAK
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A
Q184. WHO FOUNDED FORWARD BLOC?
SSC CGL 2020
A. BOSE
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
Q185. FORWARD BLOC YEAR?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. 1939
B. 1938
C. 1940
D. 1941
ANSWER: A
Q186. WHO LED INA WOMEN REGIMENT?
SSC GD 2019
A. LAKSHMI SEHGAL
B. SAROJINI NAIDU
C. INDIRA GANDHI
D. ANNIE BESANT
ANSWER: A
Q187. INA WOMEN REGIMENT NAME?
SSC MTS 2020
A. RANI JHANSI REGIMENT
B. LAKSHMI REGIMENT
C. AZAD REGIMENT
D. SWARAJ REGIMENT
ANSWER: A
Q188. WHO LED QUIT INDIA UNDERGROUND?
SSC CGL 2018
A. JAYAPRAKASH NARAYAN
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
Q189. WHO FOUNDED CONGRESS SOCIALIST PARTY?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. JP NARAYAN
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A
Q190. CSP YEAR?
SSC GD 2021
A. 1934
B. 1933
C. 1935
D. 1936
ANSWER: A
Q191. WHO LED TEBHAGA MOVEMENT?
SSC MTS 2022
A. PEASANTS
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A
Q192. TEBHAGA MOVEMENT PLACE?
SSC CGL 2020
A. BENGAL
B. BIHAR
C. UP
D. PUNJAB
ANSWER: A
Q193. WHO LED TELANGANA MOVEMENT?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. PEASANTS
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A
Q194. TELANGANA MOVEMENT PERIOD?
SSC GD 2019
A. 1946–51
B. 1945–50
C. 1944–49
D. 1943–48
ANSWER: A
Q195. WHO FORMED AZAD HIND BANK?
SSC MTS 2020
A. BOSE
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
Q196. INA CURRENCY ISSUED BY?
SSC CGL 2018
A. BOSE
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
Q197. WHO STARTED INDIVIDUAL SATYAGRAHA?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
Q198. INDIVIDUAL SATYAGRAHA AIM?
SSC GD 2021
A. ANTI-WAR PROTEST
B. TAX PROTEST
C. SALT PROTEST
D. FARMER PROTEST
ANSWER: A
Q199. WHO LED FIRST SATYAGRAHA INDIA?
SSC MTS 2022
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
Q200. FIRST SATYAGRAHA IN INDIA PLACE?
SSC CGL 2020
A. CHAMPARAN
B. KHEDA
C. AHMEDABAD
D. BARDOLI
ANSWER: A
TOPIC: EARLY REVOLTS & LESSER-KNOWN MOVEMENTS
Q201. WAHABI MOVEMENT WAS LED BY?
SSC CGL 2019
A. SYED AHMED BARELVI
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. SYED AHMED BARELVI
EXPLANATION: IT WAS A REVIVALIST ISLAMIC MOVEMENT AGAINST BRITISH RULE.
Q202. FAKIR-SANYASI REBELLION OCCURRED IN?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. BENGAL
B. PUNJAB
C. UP
D. BIHAR
ANSWER: A. BENGAL
EXPLANATION: EARLY RESISTANCE AGAINST BRITISH ECONOMIC POLICIES.
Q203. KUKA MOVEMENT LEADER?
SSC GD 2021
A. GURU RAM SINGH
B. GANDHI
C. TILAK
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. GURU RAM SINGH
EXPLANATION: RELIGIOUS REFORM MOVEMENT IN PUNJAB WITH ANTI-BRITISH ELEMENTS.
TOPIC: REFORM MOVEMENTS (ADVANCED)
Q204. PRARTHANA SAMAJ WAS FOUNDED BY?
SSC MTS 2022
A. ATMARAM PANDURANG
B. VIVEKANANDA
C. ROY
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: FOCUSED ON SOCIAL REFORM IN MAHARASHTRA.
Q205. RAMAKRISHNA MISSION WAS FOUNDED BY?
SSC CGL 2018
A. SWAMI VIVEKANANDA
B. RAMAKRISHNA
C. DAYANAND
D. ROY
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: ESTABLISHED IN 1897 FOR SOCIAL AND SPIRITUAL UPLIFTMENT.
TOPIC: BRITISH ECONOMIC POLICIES
Q206. DRAIN THEORY WAS GIVEN BY?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. DADABHAI NAOROJI
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: EXPLAINED ECONOMIC EXPLOITATION BY BRITISH.
Q207. PERMANENT SETTLEMENT INTRODUCED BY?
SSC GD 2020
A. CORNWALLIS
B. DALHOUSIE
C. CURZON
D. HASTINGS
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: LAND REVENUE SYSTEM IN BENGAL (1793).
TOPIC: SESSIONS & CONGRESS HISTORY
Q208. FIRST INC SESSION HELD AT?
SSC MTS 2021
A. BOMBAY
B. DELHI
C. CALCUTTA
D. MADRAS
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: HELD IN 1885.
Q209. SURAT SPLIT YEAR?
SSC CGL 2020
A. 1907
B. 1905
C. 1906
D. 1908
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: SPLIT BETWEEN MODERATES AND EXTREMISTS.
TOPIC: IMPORTANT COMMITTEES & PLANS
Q210. CRIPPS MISSION CAME IN?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. 1942
B. 1941
C. 1940
D. 1943
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: PROPOSED DOMINION STATUS, REJECTED BY INDIANS.
Q211. WAVELL PLAN ANNOUNCED IN?
SSC GD 2019
A. 1945
B. 1946
C. 1944
D. 1943
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: ATTEMPT TO RESOLVE POLITICAL DEADLOCK.
TOPIC: REVOLUTIONARY ACTIVITIES
Q212. KAKORI CONSPIRACY YEAR?
SSC MTS 2020
A. 1925
B. 1926
C. 1927
D. 1928
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: TRAIN ROBBERY BY REVOLUTIONARIES.
Q213. HSRA STANDS FOR?
SSC CGL 2018
A. HINDUSTAN SOCIALIST REPUBLICAN ASSOCIATION
B. INDIAN NATIONAL ARMY
C. SWARAJ PARTY
D. CONGRESS PARTY
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: REVOLUTIONARY ORGANIZATION OF BHAGAT SINGH.
TOPIC: WOMEN IN FREEDOM STRUGGLE
Q214. WHO WAS FIRST WOMAN GOVERNOR OF INDIA?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. SAROJINI NAIDU
B. INDIRA GANDHI
C. ANNIE BESANT
D. SUCHETA KRIPLANI
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: GOVERNOR OF UP.
Q215. CAPTAIN LAKSHMI SEHGAL ASSOCIATED WITH?
SSC GD 2021
A. INA
B. CONGRESS
C. LEAGUE
D. SOCIALIST PARTY
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: LED RANI JHANSI REGIMENT.
TOPIC: MISC RARE FACTS
Q216. WHO ABOLISHED SATI?
SSC MTS 2022
A. LORD WILLIAM BENTINCK
B. CURZON
C. DALHOUSIE
D. HASTINGS
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: ACT PASSED IN 1829.
Q217. WIDOW REMARRIAGE ACT YEAR?
SSC CGL 2020
A. 1856
B. 1857
C. 1855
D. 1858
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: LEGALIZED WIDOW REMARRIAGE.
TOPIC: ADVANCED NATIONAL MOVEMENT
Q218. LUCKNOW PACT YEAR?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. 1916
B. 1915
C. 1917
D. 1918
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: AGREEMENT BETWEEN CONGRESS & MUSLIM LEAGUE.
Q219. WHO LED CHAMPARAN AFTER GANDHI?
SSC GD 2019
A. RAJENDRA PRASAD
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: CONTINUED LOCAL LEADERSHIP.
TOPIC: MISCELLANEOUS HIGH-YIELD
Q220. WHO GAVE ‘DO OR DIE’?
SSC MTS 2020
SSC CGL 2018
A. GANDHI
B. BOSE
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: QUIT INDIA SLOGAN.
Q221. WHO WAS CALLED GRAND OLD MAN OF INDIA?
SSC CGL 2019
A. DADABHAI NAOROJI
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: EARLY NATIONALIST LEADER.
Q222. WHO LED AHMEDABAD MILL STRIKE?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. GANDHI
B. PATEL
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: LABOR MOVEMENT (1918).
Q223. WHO FOUNDED INDIAN ASSOCIATION?
SSC GD 2021
A. SURENDRANATH BANERJEE
B. GOKHALE
C. TILAK
D. NAOROJI
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: POLITICAL ORGANIZATION BEFORE INC.
Q224. WHO WAS KNOWN AS IRON MAN OF INDIA?
SSC MTS 2022
A. SARDAR PATEL
B. NEHRU
C. GANDHI
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: INTEGRATED PRINCELY STATES.
TOPIC: ACTS, POLICIES & ADMINISTRATION
Q225. CHARTER ACT OF 1813 IS RELATED TO?
SSC CGL 2019
A. END OF TRADE MONOPOLY
B. BEGINNING OF BRITISH RULE
C. PARTITION OF BENGAL
D. CIVIL SERVICES
ANSWER: A. END OF TRADE MONOPOLY
EXPLANATION: EAST INDIA COMPANY LOST MONOPOLY OVER TRADE EXCEPT TEA AND CHINA TRADE.
Q226. CHARTER ACT OF 1833 IS IMPORTANT FOR?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. CENTRALIZATION OF POWER
B. PARTITION
C. FREEDOM
D. TRADE MONOPOLY
ANSWER: A. CENTRALIZATION OF POWER
EXPLANATION: MADE GOVERNOR-GENERAL OF BENGAL AS GOVERNOR-GENERAL OF INDIA.
Q227. WHO INTRODUCED DOCTRINE OF LAPSE?
SSC GD 2021
A. LORD DALHOUSIE
B. CURZON
C. HASTINGS
D. BENTINCK
ANSWER: A. LORD DALHOUSIE
EXPLANATION: ANNEXATION POLICY FOR STATES WITHOUT HEIR.
TOPIC: SOCIO-RELIGIOUS REFORM
Q228. ALIGARH MOVEMENT WAS STARTED BY?
SSC MTS 2022
A. SIR SYED AHMED KHAN
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. SIR SYED AHMED KHAN
EXPLANATION: PROMOTED MODERN EDUCATION AMONG MUSLIMS.
Q229. DEOBAND MOVEMENT WAS RELATED TO?
SSC CGL 2018
A. ISLAMIC REFORM
B. HINDU REFORM
C. SIKH REFORM
D. CHRISTIAN REFORM
ANSWER: A. ISLAMIC REFORM
EXPLANATION: FOCUSED ON RELIGIOUS EDUCATION AND REVIVAL.
TOPIC: IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES
Q230. WHO WAS CALLED ‘MAKER OF MODERN INDIA’?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. RAJA RAM MOHAN ROY
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. RAJA RAM MOHAN ROY
EXPLANATION: PIONEER OF SOCIAL REFORM MOVEMENTS.
Q231. WHO WAS KNOWN AS ‘INDIAN NAPOLEON’?
SSC GD 2020
A. SAMUDRAGUPTA
B. ASHOKA
C. AKBAR
D. CHANDRAGUPTA
ANSWER: A. SAMUDRAGUPTA
EXPLANATION: KNOWN FOR MILITARY CONQUESTS (THOUGH ANCIENT, SSC MIXES GK).
TOPIC: COMMITTEES & PROPOSALS
Q232. MOUNTBATTEN PLAN WAS ANNOUNCED IN?
SSC MTS 2021
A. 1947
B. 1946
C. 1945
D. 1948
ANSWER: A. 1947
EXPLANATION: LED TO PARTITION AND INDEPENDENCE.
Q233. WHO WAS VICEROY DURING MOUNTBATTEN PLAN?
SSC CGL 2020
A. MOUNTBATTEN
B. WAVELL
C. CURZON
D. IRWIN
ANSWER: A. MOUNTBATTEN
EXPLANATION: LAST VICEROY OF INDIA.
TOPIC: FREEDOM STRUGGLE MISC
Q234. WHO ORGANIZED AZAD HIND RADIO?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. SUBHAS BOSE
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. SUBHAS BOSE
EXPLANATION: USED FOR PROPAGANDA AND COMMUNICATION.
Q235. WHO LED REVOLT OF 1857 IN KANPUR?
SSC GD 2019
A. NANA SAHIB
B. TANTIA TOPE
C. RANI LAKSHMI BAI
D. BAHADUR SHAH
ANSWER: A. NANA SAHIB
EXPLANATION: MAJOR LEADER IN KANPUR REGION.
TOPIC: REVOLUTIONARY LEADERS
Q236. WHO WAS MENTOR OF BHAGAT SINGH?
SSC MTS 2020
A. CHANDRASHEKHAR AZAD
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. CHANDRASHEKHAR AZAD
EXPLANATION: GUIDED REVOLUTIONARY ACTIVITIES.
Q237. KAKORI CONSPIRACY INVOLVED WHICH ORGANIZATION?
SSC CGL 2018
A. HRA
B. INC
C. MUSLIM LEAGUE
D. INA
ANSWER: A. HRA
EXPLANATION: HINDUSTAN REPUBLICAN ASSOCIATION.
TOPIC: ADVANCED MOVEMENTS
Q238. EKA MOVEMENT WAS RELATED TO?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. PEASANTS
B. WORKERS
C. STUDENTS
D. SOLDIERS
ANSWER: A. PEASANTS
EXPLANATION: AGRARIAN REVOLT IN UP (1921).
Q239. TANA BHAGAT MOVEMENT WAS RELATED TO?
SSC GD 2021
A. TRIBAL REFORM
B. INDUSTRIAL STRIKE
C. STUDENT PROTEST
D. ARMY REVOLT
ANSWER: A. TRIBAL REFORM
EXPLANATION: MOVEMENT IN CHOTANAGPUR REGION.
Q240. WHO LED PAIKA REBELLION?
SSC MTS 2022
A. BAKSHI JAGABANDHU
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A. BAKSHI JAGABANDHU
EXPLANATION: EARLY REVOLT IN ODISHA (1817).
TOPIC: REGIONAL MOVEMENTS & UPRISINGS
Q241. RAMOSI REBELLION WAS LED BY?
SSC CGL 2019
A. CHITTUR SINGH
B. VASUDEV BALWANT PHADKE
C. TILAK
D. GANDHI
ANSWER: B. VASUDEV BALWANT PHADKE
EXPLANATION: EARLY ANTI-BRITISH REVOLT IN MAHARASHTRA.
Q242. KOL REBELLION TOOK PLACE IN?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. CHOTANAGPUR
B. PUNJAB
C. BENGAL
D. UP
ANSWER: A. CHOTANAGPUR
EXPLANATION: TRIBAL UPRISING AGAINST EXPLOITATION.
Q243. AHOM REVOLT WAS AGAINST?
SSC GD 2021
A. BRITISH RULE
B. MUGHALS
C. MARATHAS
D. PORTUGUESE
ANSWER: A. BRITISH RULE
EXPLANATION: REVOLT IN ASSAM REGION.
TOPIC: EDUCATION & PRESS
Q244. HUNTER COMMISSION (1882) RELATED TO?
SSC MTS 2022
A. EDUCATION
B. ARMY
C. FINANCE
D. POLICE
ANSWER: A. EDUCATION
EXPLANATION: FOCUSED ON PRIMARY EDUCATION REFORMS.
Q245. WHO STARTED ‘THE HINDU’ NEWSPAPER?
SSC CGL 2018
A. G. SUBRAMANIA IYER
B. TILAK
C. GANDHI
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. G. SUBRAMANIA IYER
EXPLANATION: INFLUENTIAL NATIONALIST NEWSPAPER.
TOPIC: BRITISH POLICIES & ECONOMY
Q246. RYOTWARI SYSTEM INTRODUCED BY?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. THOMAS MUNRO
B. CORNWALLIS
C. DALHOUSIE
D. HASTINGS
ANSWER: A. THOMAS MUNRO
EXPLANATION: DIRECT SETTLEMENT WITH PEASANTS.
Q247. MAHALWARI SYSTEM INTRODUCED IN?
SSC GD 2020
A. NORTH INDIA
B. BENGAL
C. SOUTH INDIA
D. ASSAM
ANSWER: A. NORTH INDIA
EXPLANATION: REVENUE SYSTEM BASED ON VILLAGES.
TOPIC: IMPORTANT SESSIONS & EVENTS
Q248. LAHORE SESSION PRESIDENT (1929)?
SSC MTS 2021
A. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
EXPLANATION: DECLARED PURNA SWARAJ.
Q249. KARACHI SESSION (1931) FAMOUS FOR?
SSC CGL 2020
A. FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
B. PARTITION
C. WAR POLICY
D. EDUCATION
ANSWER: A. FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
EXPLANATION: RESOLUTION ON RIGHTS AND ECONOMIC POLICY.
TOPIC: REVOLUTIONARY ACTIVITIES (ADVANCED)
Q250. DELHI CONSPIRACY CASE RELATED TO?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. BOMB ATTACK ON HARDINGE
B. INA
C. PARTITION
D. QUIT INDIA
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: ATTEMPT ON VICEROY IN 1912.
Q251. WHO THREW BOMB IN CENTRAL ASSEMBLY?
SSC GD 2019
A. BHAGAT SINGH & BATUKESHWAR DUTT
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: PROTEST AGAINST BRITISH LAWS (1929).
TOPIC: WOMEN & PARTICIPATION
Q252. WHO WAS FIRST WOMAN CM OF INDIA?
SSC MTS 2020
A. SUCHETA KRIPLANI
B. INDIRA GANDHI
C. SAROJINI NAIDU
D. ANNIE BESANT
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: CM OF UP.
Q253. WHO PARTICIPATED IN DANDI MARCH?
SSC CGL 2018
A. SAROJINI NAIDU
B. INDIRA GANDHI
C. ANNIE BESANT
D. KASTURBA
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: PROMINENT FEMALE LEADER.
TOPIC: MISC IMPORTANT
Q254. WHO WAS CALLED ‘BISMARCK OF INDIA’?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. SARDAR PATEL
B. NEHRU
C. GANDHI
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: UNIFIED PRINCELY STATES.
Q255. WHO GAVE SLOGAN ‘SIMON GO BACK’?
SSC GD 2021
SSC CGL 2017
A. INDIANS
B. BRITISH
C. LEAGUE
D. CONGRESS
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: PROTEST AGAINST SIMON COMMISSION.
TOPIC: ADVANCED COMMITTEES & PLANS
Q256. AUGUST OFFER WAS MADE IN?
SSC MTS 2022
A. 1940
B. 1941
C. 1942
D. 1943
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: BRITISH OFFER DURING WWII.
Q257. WHO REJECTED CRIPPS MISSION?
SSC CGL 2020
A. CONGRESS
B. LEAGUE
C. BOTH
D. NONE
ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION: BOTH PARTIES DISSATISFIED.
TOPIC: TRIBAL & PEASANT (RARE)
Q258. PABNA MOVEMENT WAS RELATED TO?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. PEASANTS
B. WORKERS
C. STUDENTS
D. SOLDIERS
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: AGRARIAN UNREST IN BENGAL.
Q259. DECCAN RIOTS TOOK PLACE IN?
SSC GD 2019
A. MAHARASHTRA
B. BENGAL
C. PUNJAB
D. UP
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: AGAINST MONEYLENDERS (1875).
TOPIC: MISC RARE PERSONALITIES
Q260. WHO FOUNDED INDIAN HOME RULE SOCIETY?
SSC MTS 2020
A. SHYAMJI KRISHNA VARMA
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: BASED IN LONDON.
TOPIC: EARLY POLITICAL ASSOCIATIONS
Q261. POONA SARVAJANIK SABHA WAS FOUNDED BY?
SSC CGL 2019
A. M.G. RANADE
B. TILAK
C. GOKHALE
D. GANDHI
ANSWER: A. M.G. RANADE
EXPLANATION: EARLY POLITICAL ORGANIZATION IN MAHARASHTRA (1870).
Q262. MADRAS MAHAJAN SABHA WAS ESTABLISHED IN?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. 1884
B. 1885
C. 1886
D. 1887
ANSWER: A. 1884
EXPLANATION: PRECURSOR TO INC IN SOUTH INDIA.
Q263. BOMBAY PRESIDENCY ASSOCIATION FOUNDER?
SSC GD 2021
A. PHEROZESHAH MEHTA
B. TILAK
C. GOKHALE
D. NAOROJI
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: IMPORTANT POLITICAL ASSOCIATION BEFORE INC.
TOPIC: LABOUR & TRADE UNION MOVEMENTS
Q264. FIRST FACTORY ACT IN INDIA PASSED IN?
SSC MTS 2022
A. 1881
B. 1882
C. 1883
D. 1884
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: REGULATED WORKING CONDITIONS.
Q265. WHO FOUNDED MADRAS LABOUR UNION?
SSC CGL 2018
A. B.P. WADIA
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: ONE OF THE FIRST LABOUR UNIONS (1918).
TOPIC: PRESS & LITERATURE (ADVANCED)
Q266. ‘AMRITA BAZAR PATRIKA’ WAS PUBLISHED FROM?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. CALCUTTA
B. BOMBAY
C. MADRAS
D. DELHI
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: PROMINENT NATIONALIST NEWSPAPER.
Q267. WHO EDITED ‘YOUNG INDIA’?
SSC GD 2020
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: USED TO SPREAD NATIONALIST IDEAS.
TOPIC: ADMINISTRATIVE CHANGES
Q268. REGULATING ACT WAS PASSED IN?
SSC MTS 2021
A. 1773
B. 1784
C. 1793
D. 1813
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: FIRST STEP OF BRITISH PARLIAMENTARY CONTROL.
Q269. CHARTER ACT OF 1853 IS IMPORTANT FOR?
SSC CGL 2020
A. CIVIL SERVICES REFORM
B. TRADE
C. WAR
D. EDUCATION
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: OPEN COMPETITION FOR CIVIL SERVICES.
TOPIC: REVOLT OF 1857 (ADVANCED)
Q270. WHO LED REVOLT IN JHANSI?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. RANI LAKSHMI BAI
B. NANA SAHIB
C. TANTIA TOPE
D. BAHADUR SHAH
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: KEY LEADER OF 1857 REVOLT.
Q271. WHO WAS LAST MUGHAL EMPEROR?
SSC GD 2019
A. BAHADUR SHAH ZAFAR
B. AKBAR
C. SHAH JAHAN
D. AURANGZEB
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: LEADER DURING 1857 REVOLT.
TOPIC: ECONOMIC NATIONALISM
Q272. WHO PROMOTED SWADESHI INDUSTRIES?
SSC MTS 2020
A. TILAK
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: ENCOURAGED INDIAN GOODS.
Q273. DRAIN THEORY PUBLISHED IN WHICH BOOK?
SSC CGL 2018
A. POVERTY AND UN-BRITISH RULE IN INDIA
B. HIND SWARAJ
C. DISCOVERY OF INDIA
D. INDIA WINS FREEDOM
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: WRITTEN BY NAOROJI.
TOPIC: COMMITTEES & CONFERENCES
Q274. ROUND TABLE CONFERENCES HELD IN?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. LONDON
B. DELHI
C. BOMBAY
D. CALCUTTA
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: DISCUSSED CONSTITUTIONAL REFORMS.
TOPIC: COMMITTEES & CONFERENCES
Q275. GANDHI ATTENDED WHICH ROUND TABLE CONFERENCE?
SSC GD 2021
A. FIRST
B. SECOND
C. THIRD
D. NONE
ANSWER: B. SECOND
EXPLANATION: GANDHI ATTENDED THE SECOND ROUND TABLE CONFERENCE IN 1931 AS CONGRESS REPRESENTATIVE.
TOPIC: REVOLUTIONARY ACTIVITIES (ADVANCED)
Q276. HINDUSTAN REPUBLICAN ASSOCIATION WAS FOUNDED IN?
SSC MTS 2022
A. 1923
B. 1924
C. 1925
D. 1926
ANSWER: B. 1924
EXPLANATION: FOUNDED BY RAM PRASAD BISMIL AND OTHERS FOR ARMED REVOLUTION.
Q277. CHITTAGONG ARMOURY RAID WAS LED BY?
SSC CGL 2020
A. SURYA SEN
B. BHAGAT SINGH
C. BOSE
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A. SURYA SEN
EXPLANATION: ORGANIZED IN 1930 TO SEIZE BRITISH ARMS.
TOPIC: TRIBAL & REGIONAL MOVEMENTS
Q278. MUNDA REBELLION WAS LED BY?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. BIRSA MUNDA
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. BIRSA MUNDA
EXPLANATION: TRIBAL REVOLT AGAINST BRITISH AND LANDLORDS.
Q279. BHIL MOVEMENT WAS RELATED TO?
SSC GD 2019
A. TRIBAL REVOLT
B. FARMER PROTEST
C. WORKER STRIKE
D. STUDENT PROTEST
ANSWER: A. TRIBAL REVOLT
EXPLANATION: UPRISING IN WESTERN INDIA.
TOPIC: FINAL PHASE & INDEPENDENCE
Q280. MOUNTBATTEN PLAN WAS ANNOUNCED IN WHICH YEAR?
SSC MTS 2020
A. 1946
B. 1947
C. 1948
D. 1949
ANSWER: B. 1947
EXPLANATION: LED TO PARTITION AND INDEPENDENCE.
Q281. WHO IMPLEMENTED MOUNTBATTEN PLAN?
SSC CGL 2018
A. LORD MOUNTBATTEN
B. WAVELL
C. CURZON
D. IRWIN
ANSWER: A. LORD MOUNTBATTEN
EXPLANATION: LAST VICEROY WHO OVERSAW INDEPENDENCE.
TOPIC: FREEDOM STRUGGLE – FINAL EVENTS
Q282. INTERIM GOVERNMENT WAS FORMED IN?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. 1945
B. 1946
C. 1947
D. 1948
ANSWER: B. 1946
EXPLANATION: FORMED BEFORE INDEPENDENCE WITH INDIAN LEADERS.
Q283. WHO WAS HEAD OF INTERIM GOVERNMENT?
SSC GD 2021
A. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
B. GANDHI
C. PATEL
D. RAJENDRA PRASAD
ANSWER: A. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
EXPLANATION: HEADED EXECUTIVE COUNCIL.
TOPIC: CONSTITUTION & TRANSITION
Q284. CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY FIRST MET IN?
SSC MTS 2022
A. 1945
B. 1946
C. 1947
D. 1948
ANSWER: B. 1946
EXPLANATION: FIRST MEETING ON 9 DEC 1946.
Q285. WHO WAS TEMPORARY CHAIRMAN OF CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY?
SSC CGL 2020
A. SACHIDANAND SINHA
B. RAJENDRA PRASAD
C. NEHRU
D. AMBEDKAR
ANSWER: A. SACHIDANAND SINHA
EXPLANATION: FIRST SESSION CHAIRED BY HIM.
TOPIC: MISC IMPORTANT LEADERS
Q286. WHO WAS KNOWN AS ‘PUNJAB KESARI’?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. LALA LAJPAT RAI
B. BHAGAT SINGH
C. TILAK
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. LALA LAJPAT RAI
EXPLANATION: PROMINENT NATIONALIST LEADER.
Q287. WHO WAS KNOWN AS ‘GRAND OLD MAN OF INDIA’?
SSC GD 2019
SSC CGL 2018
A. DADABHAI NAOROJI
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A. DADABHAI NAOROJI
EXPLANATION: EARLY NATIONALIST LEADER.
TOPIC: ADVANCED MOVEMENTS
Q288. SWADESHI MOVEMENT STARTED AFTER?
SSC MTS 2020
A. PARTITION OF BENGAL
B. QUIT INDIA
C. NON-COOPERATION
D. CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE
ANSWER: A. PARTITION OF BENGAL
EXPLANATION: BEGAN IN 1905.
Q289. WHO PROMOTED BOYCOTT DURING SWADESHI?
SSC CGL 2019
A. EXTREMISTS
B. MODERATES
C. BRITISH
D. LEAGUE
ANSWER: A. EXTREMISTS
EXPLANATION: ENCOURAGED REJECTION OF FOREIGN GOODS.
TOPIC: RARE & MISC
Q290. WHO STARTED ‘SERVANTS OF INDIA SOCIETY’?
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
A. GOPAL KRISHNA GOKHALE
B. TILAK
C. GANDHI
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. GOPAL KRISHNA GOKHALE
EXPLANATION: FOUNDED IN 1905 FOR SOCIAL SERVICE.
Q291. WHO GAVE SLOGAN ‘FREEDOM IS MY BIRTHRIGHT’?
SSC MTS 2021
A. BAL GANGADHAR TILAK
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. BAL GANGADHAR TILAK
EXPLANATION: FAMOUS NATIONALIST SLOGAN.
TOPIC: REVOLUTIONARY & ARMED STRUGGLE
Q292. KAKORI CONSPIRACY WAS ORGANIZED BY?
SSC CGL 2020
A. HRA
B. INA
C. INC
D. LEAGUE
ANSWER: A. HRA
EXPLANATION: TRAIN ROBBERY BY REVOLUTIONARIES.
Q293. WHO WAS LEADER OF KAKORI CASE?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. RAM PRASAD BISMIL
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. RAM PRASAD BISMIL
EXPLANATION: KEY REVOLUTIONARY LEADER.
TOPIC: WOMEN PARTICIPATION
Q294. WHO WAS FIRST WOMAN GOVERNOR IN INDIA?
SSC GD 2019
A. SAROJINI NAIDU
B. INDIRA GANDHI
C. ANNIE BESANT
D. SUCHETA KRIPLANI
ANSWER: A. SAROJINI NAIDU
EXPLANATION: GOVERNOR OF UP.
Q295. WHO LED RANI JHANSI REGIMENT?
SSC MTS 2022
A. LAKSHMI SEHGAL
B. SAROJINI NAIDU
C. ANNIE BESANT
D. INDIRA GANDHI
ANSWER: A. LAKSHMI SEHGAL
EXPLANATION: INA WOMEN REGIMENT LEADER.
TOPIC: FINAL CLOSURE
Q296. WHO WAS FIRST PRIME MINISTER OF INDIA?
SSC CGL 2018
A. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
B. GANDHI
C. PATEL
D. RAJENDRA PRASAD
ANSWER: A. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
EXPLANATION: BECAME PM IN 1947.
Q297. WHO WAS DEPUTY PRIME MINISTER OF INDIA?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. SARDAR PATEL
B. NEHRU
C. GANDHI
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. SARDAR PATEL
EXPLANATION: KEY LEADER IN INTEGRATION.
Q298. WHO WAS LAST GOVERNOR-GENERAL OF INDIA?
SSC GD 2021
A. C. RAJAGOPALACHARI
B. MOUNTBATTEN
C. WAVELL
D. CURZON
ANSWER: A. C. RAJAGOPALACHARI
EXPLANATION: FIRST INDIAN GOVERNOR-GENERAL.
Q299. WHO DESIGNED INDIAN NATIONAL FLAG?
SSC MTS 2020
A. PINGALI VENKAYYA
B. NEHRU
C. GANDHI
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. PINGALI VENKAYYA
EXPLANATION: DESIGNED TRICOLOUR FLAG.
Q300. WHO GAVE SLOGAN ‘JAI HIND’?
SSC CGL 2019
SSC CHSL 2021
A. SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A. SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE
EXPLANATION: POPULAR NATIONAL SLOGAN USED BY INA.
TOPIC: NEWSPAPERS & JOURNALS
Q301. ‘MARATHA’ NEWSPAPER WAS STARTED BY?
SSC CGL 2019
A. BAL GANGADHAR TILAK
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. BAL GANGADHAR TILAK
EXPLANATION: ALONG WITH KESARI, TILAK PUBLISHED MARATHA IN ENGLISH.
Q302. ‘INDIAN MIRROR’ NEWSPAPER WAS ASSOCIATED WITH?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. DEVENDRANATH TAGORE
B. GANDHI
C. TILAK
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A. DEVENDRANATH TAGORE
EXPLANATION: IMPORTANT PUBLICATION LINKED WITH BRAHMO SAMAJ.
Q303. ‘HIND SWARAJ’ WAS WRITTEN BY?
SSC GD 2021
SSC CGL 2018
A. MAHATMA GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A. MAHATMA GANDHI
EXPLANATION: WRITTEN IN 1909, OUTLINES GANDHI’S IDEOLOGY.
TOPIC: VICEROYS & THEIR POLICIES
Q304. WHO INTRODUCED LOCAL SELF-GOVERNMENT IN INDIA?
SSC MTS 2022
A. LORD RIPON
B. CURZON
C. LYTTON
D. DALHOUSIE
ANSWER: A. LORD RIPON
EXPLANATION: KNOWN AS FATHER OF LOCAL SELF-GOVERNMENT.
Q305. VERNACULAR PRESS ACT (1878) WAS PASSED BY?
SSC CGL 2020
A. LORD LYTTON
B. RIPON
C. CURZON
D. HASTINGS
ANSWER: A. LORD LYTTON
EXPLANATION: RESTRICTED INDIAN LANGUAGE NEWSPAPERS.
Q306. UNIVERSITIES ACT (1904) WAS PASSED BY?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. LORD CURZON
B. RIPON
C. LYTTON
D. DALHOUSIE
ANSWER: A. LORD CURZON
EXPLANATION: INCREASED GOVERNMENT CONTROL OVER UNIVERSITIES.
TOPIC: COMMITTEES (RARE BUT IMPORTANT)
Q307. HUNTER COMMISSION WAS RELATED TO?
SSC GD 2019
A. JALLIANWALA BAGH INQUIRY
B. EDUCATION
C. ARMY
D. TRADE
ANSWER: A. JALLIANWALA BAGH INQUIRY
EXPLANATION: INVESTIGATED THE 1919 MASSACRE.
Q308. SIMON COMMISSION WAS BOYCOTTED BECAUSE?
SSC MTS 2020
A. NO INDIAN MEMBER
B. HIGH TAXES
C. WAR
D. PARTITION
ANSWER: A. NO INDIAN MEMBER
EXPLANATION: ALL MEMBERS WERE BRITISH.
Q309. BUTLER COMMITTEE WAS RELATED TO?
SSC CGL 2018
A. PRINCELY STATES
B. EDUCATION
C. TRADE
D. ARMY
ANSWER: A. PRINCELY STATES
EXPLANATION: EXAMINED RELATIONS WITH PRINCELY STATES.
TOPIC: SESSIONS & RESOLUTIONS (MICRO)
Q310. SWARAJ RESOLUTION WAS PASSED IN?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. CALCUTTA SESSION 1906
B. SURAT SESSION
C. LAHORE SESSION
D. BOMBAY SESSION
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: DEMAND FOR SELF-GOVERNMENT.
Q311. SIMON COMMISSION BOYCOTT DECIDED IN?
SSC GD 2021
A. MADRAS SESSION 1927
B. LAHORE SESSION
C. CALCUTTA SESSION
D. KARACHI SESSION
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: CONGRESS DECIDED TO BOYCOTT SIMON COMMISSION.
TOPIC: INTERNATIONAL LINKAGES
Q312. GHADAR PARTY WAS FOUNDED IN?
SSC MTS 2022
A. USA
B. INDIA
C. UK
D. GERMANY
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: FOUNDED BY INDIAN IMMIGRANTS IN USA.
Q313. BERLIN COMMITTEE WAS FORMED DURING?
SSC CGL 2020
A. WORLD WAR I
B. WORLD WAR II
C. COLD WAR
D. 1857 REVOLT
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: WORKED FOR INDIAN INDEPENDENCE ABROAD.
TOPIC: IMPORTANT LAWS
Q314. ILBERT BILL CONTROVERSY WAS RELATED TO?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. JUDICIAL EQUALITY
B. TAXATION
C. ARMY
D. TRADE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: ALLOWED INDIAN JUDGES TO TRY EUROPEANS.
Q315. VERNACULAR PRESS ACT AIMED TO CONTROL?
SSC GD 2019
A. INDIAN LANGUAGE PRESS
B. ENGLISH PRESS
C. TRADE
D. EDUCATION
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: TARGETED NATIONALIST NEWSPAPERS.
TOPIC: CHRONOLOGY (SSC FAVORITE)
Q316. WHICH CAME FIRST?
SSC MTS 2020
A. NON-COOPERATION MOVEMENT
B. CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE
C. QUIT INDIA
D. SWADESHI
ANSWER: D. SWADESHI
EXPLANATION: STARTED IN 1905, EARLIER THAN OTHERS.
Q317. CORRECT CHRONOLOGICAL ORDER?
SSC CGL 2018
A. SWADESHI → NON-COOPERATION → CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE → QUIT INDIA
B. NON-COOPERATION → SWADESHI → QUIT INDIA → CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE
C. CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE → SWADESHI → QUIT INDIA → NON-COOPERATION
D. QUIT INDIA → CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE → SWADESHI → NON-COOPERATION
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: CORRECT SEQUENCE OF MAJOR MOVEMENTS.
TOPIC: FIRST & LAST (TRAP QUESTIONS)
Q318. FIRST SATYAGRAHA BY GANDHI IN INDIA?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. CHAMPARAN
B. KHEDA
C. AHMEDABAD
D. BARDOLI
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: CHAMPARAN (1917).
Q319. LAST VICEROY OF INDIA?
SSC GD 2021
SSC CGL 2019
A. LORD MOUNTBATTEN
B. WAVELL
C. CURZON
D. IRWIN
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: OVERSAW INDEPENDENCE.
Q320. FIRST WOMAN PRESIDENT OF INC?
SSC MTS 2022
A. ANNIE BESANT
B. SAROJINI NAIDU
C. INDIRA GANDHI
D. SUCHETA KRIPLANI
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: BECAME PRESIDENT IN 1917.
TOPIC: NEWSPAPERS & LITERATURE (ADVANCED)
Q321. ‘YOUNG INDIA’ NEWSPAPER WAS PUBLISHED BY?
SSC CGL 2020
SSC CHSL 2021
A. MAHATMA GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. TILAK
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A. MAHATMA GANDHI
EXPLANATION: WEEKLY JOURNAL USED BY GANDHI TO SPREAD NATIONALIST IDEAS.
Q322. ‘HARIJAN’ WAS ASSOCIATED WITH?
SSC GD 2019
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A. GANDHI
EXPLANATION: JOURNAL FOCUSING ON SOCIAL REFORMS AND UPLIFTMENT OF UNTOUCHABLES.
TOPIC: VICEROYS & IMPORTANT WORKS
Q323. WHO INTRODUCED ILBERT BILL?
SSC MTS 2022
A. LORD RIPON
B. LYTTON
C. CURZON
D. DALHOUSIE
ANSWER: A. LORD RIPON
EXPLANATION: ALLOWED INDIAN JUDGES TO TRY EUROPEANS.
Q324. WHO PARTITIONED BENGAL IN 1905?
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2021
A. LORD CURZON
B. RIPON
C. LYTTON
D. HASTINGS
ANSWER: A. LORD CURZON
EXPLANATION: LED TO SWADESHI MOVEMENT.
TOPIC: REVOLUTIONARY ORGANIZATIONS
Q325. ABHINAV BHARAT WAS FOUNDED BY?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. V.D. SAVARKAR
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A. V.D. SAVARKAR
EXPLANATION: SECRET REVOLUTIONARY SOCIETY.
Q326. ANUSHILAN SAMITI WAS ACTIVE IN?
SSC GD 2020
A. BENGAL
B. PUNJAB
C. UP
D. MAHARASHTRA
ANSWER: A. BENGAL
EXPLANATION: REVOLUTIONARY ORGANIZATION IN BENGAL.
TOPIC: MOVEMENTS & SLOGANS
Q327. ‘SIMON GO BACK’ SLOGAN WAS RAISED DURING?
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CGL 2019
A. SIMON COMMISSION
B. QUIT INDIA
C. SWADESHI
D. NON-COOPERATION
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: PROTEST AGAINST ALL-BRITISH COMMISSION.
Q328. ‘DO OR DIE’ SLOGAN WAS GIVEN DURING?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT
B. NON-COOPERATION
C. SWADESHI
D. CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: GIVEN BY GANDHI IN 1942.
TOPIC: LEADERS & TITLES
Q329. WHO WAS KNOWN AS ‘SHER-E-PUNJAB’?
SSC GD 2021
A. LALA LAJPAT RAI
B. BHAGAT SINGH
C. TILAK
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: TITLE FOR LALA LAJPAT RAI.
Q330. WHO WAS CALLED ‘DESHBANDHU’?
SSC MTS 2022
A. C.R. DAS
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: MEANS ‘FRIEND OF THE NATION’.
TOPIC: ACTS & LAWS (ADVANCED)
Q331. GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT 1919 IS ALSO KNOWN AS?
SSC CGL 2020
A. MONTAGU-CHELMSFORD REFORMS
B. REGULATING ACT
C. CHARTER ACT
D. PITTS INDIA ACT
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: INTRODUCED DYARCHY IN PROVINCES.
Q332. GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT 1935 INTRODUCED?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. PROVINCIAL AUTONOMY
B. PARTITION
C. SWARAJ
D. FEDERATION ONLY
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: GAVE AUTONOMY TO PROVINCES.
TOPIC: PEASANT & TRIBAL MOVEMENTS
Q333. INDIGO REVOLT WAS AGAINST?
SSC GD 2019
A. INDIGO PLANTERS
B. BRITISH ARMY
C. TAX SYSTEM
D. TRADE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: FARMERS PROTESTED FORCED INDIGO CULTIVATION.
Q334. SANTHAL REBELLION WAS LED BY?
SSC MTS 2020
A. SIDHU & KANHU
B. BIRSA MUNDA
C. GANDHI
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: TRIBAL REVOLT (1855–56).
TOPIC: IMPORTANT DATES (TRAP)
Q335. QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT STARTED IN?
SSC CGL 2018
A. 1942
B. 1941
C. 1943
D. 1944
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: LAUNCHED ON 8 AUGUST 1942.
Q336. NON-COOPERATION MOVEMENT STARTED IN?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. 1920
B. 1919
C. 1921
D. 1922
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: LED BY GANDHI AGAINST BRITISH RULE.
TOPIC: MISC ADVANCED
Q337. WHO FOUNDED BANARAS HINDU UNIVERSITY?
SSC GD 2021
A. MADAN MOHAN MALAVIYA
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: ESTABLISHED IN 1916.
Q338. WHO FOUNDED ALIGARH MUSLIM UNIVERSITY?
SSC MTS 2022
A. SIR SYED AHMED KHAN
B. JINNAH
C. GANDHI
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: PROMOTED MODERN EDUCATION.
TOPIC: FINAL PHASE REVISION
Q339. DIRECT ACTION DAY WAS CALLED BY?
SSC CGL 2020
A. MUSLIM LEAGUE
B. CONGRESS
C. BRITISH
D. INA
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: LED TO COMMUNAL RIOTS IN 1946.
Q340. DIRECT ACTION DAY YEAR?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. 1946
B. 1945
C. 1947
D. 1948
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: CALLED ON 16 AUGUST 1946.
TOPIC: ULTRA RARE FACTS
Q341. WHO FOUNDED SERVANTS OF PEOPLE SOCIETY?
SSC GD 2019
A. LALA LAJPAT RAI
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: SOCIAL SERVICE ORGANIZATION.
Q342. WHO STARTED ‘NEW INDIA’ NEWSPAPER?
SSC MTS 2020
A. ANNIE BESANT
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: USED TO PROMOTE HOME RULE.
TOPIC: FINAL TRAP QUESTIONS
Q343. FIRST GOVERNOR-GENERAL OF FREE INDIA?
SSC CGL 2018
A. LORD MOUNTBATTEN
B. RAJAGOPALACHARI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: SERVED AFTER INDEPENDENCE.
Q344. FIRST INDIAN GOVERNOR-GENERAL?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. C. RAJAGOPALACHARI
B. MOUNTBATTEN
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: SUCCEEDED MOUNTBATTEN.
TOPIC: FINAL QUICK REVISION
Q345. WHO GAVE ‘INQUILAB ZINDABAD’ SLOGAN?
SSC GD 2021
SSC CGL 2019
A. BHAGAT SINGH
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: REVOLUTIONARY SLOGAN.
Q346. WHO FOUNDED INA?
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CHSL 2020
A. RAS BEHARI BOSE
B. SUBHAS BOSE
C. GANDHI
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: LATER LED BY SUBHAS BOSE.
Q347. WHO LED INA?
SSC CGL 2020
A. SUBHAS BOSE
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: STRENGTHENED INA.
TOPIC: CLOSURE SET
Q348. WHO WAS FIRST PRESIDENT OF INDIA?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. DR. RAJENDRA PRASAD
B. NEHRU
C. GANDHI
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: BECAME PRESIDENT IN 1950.
Q349. WHO DRAFTED INDIAN CONSTITUTION?
SSC GD 2019
A. B.R. AMBEDKAR
B. NEHRU
C. GANDHI
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: CHAIRMAN OF DRAFTING COMMITTEE.
Q350. INDEPENDENCE OF INDIA CAME IN?
SSC MTS 2020
SSC CGL 2018
A. 1947
B. 1946
C. 1948
D. 1949
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: INDIA BECAME INDEPENDENT ON 15 AUGUST 1947.
Q351. WHO INTRODUCED SUBSIDIARY ALLIANCE?
SSC CGL 2019
A. LORD WELLESLEY
B. DALHOUSIE
C. CURZON
D. HASTINGS
ANSWER: A. LORD WELLESLEY
EXPLANATION: POLICY TO EXPAND BRITISH CONTROL OVER INDIAN STATES.
Q352. PITT’S INDIA ACT WAS PASSED IN?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. 1784
B. 1773
C. 1793
D. 1813
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: ESTABLISHED DUAL CONTROL OF BRITISH GOVERNMENT AND COMPANY.
Q353. WHO ABOLISHED SATI SYSTEM?
SSC GD 2021
SSC MTS 2022
A. LORD WILLIAM BENTINCK
B. CURZON
C. DALHOUSIE
D. HASTINGS
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: SOCIAL REFORM IN 1829.
Q354. WHO LED REVOLT IN BAREILLY IN 1857?
SSC CGL 2018
A. KHAN BAHADUR KHAN
B. NANA SAHIB
C. TANTIA TOPE
D. LAKSHMI BAI
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: LEADER IN ROHILKHAND REGION.
Q355. WHO FOUNDED ARYA SAMAJ?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. SWAMI DAYANAND SARASWATI
B. VIVEKANANDA
C. ROY
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: REFORM MOVEMENT (1875).
Q356. WHO STARTED BRAHMO SAMAJ?
SSC GD 2020
A. RAJA RAM MOHAN ROY
B. VIVEKANANDA
C. DAYANAND
D. TAGORE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: RELIGIOUS REFORM MOVEMENT (1828).
Q357. WHO FOUNDED INDIAN NATIONAL ARMY SLOGAN ‘DELHI CHALO’?
SSC MTS 2021
A. SUBHAS BOSE
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: MOTIVATED INA SOLDIERS.
Q358. WHO WAS FIRST INDIAN VICEROY?
SSC CGL 2020
A. LORD CANNING
B. RAJAGOPALACHARI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: TRICK QUESTION ❌
CORRECT ANSWER: NONE
EXPLANATION: NO INDIAN WAS EVER VICEROY.
Q359. WHO WAS FIRST INDIAN GOVERNOR-GENERAL?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. C. RAJAGOPALACHARI
B. MOUNTBATTEN
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: SERVED AFTER INDEPENDENCE.
Q360. WHO LED BARDOLI SATYAGRAHA?
SSC GD 2019
A. SARDAR PATEL
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: EARNED TITLE ‘SARDAR’.
Q361. WHO STARTED NON-COOPERATION MOVEMENT?
SSC MTS 2020
A. MAHATMA GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: STARTED IN 1920.
Q362. WHO SUSPENDED NON-COOPERATION MOVEMENT?
SSC CGL 2018
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: AFTER CHAURI CHAURA INCIDENT.
Q363. CHAURI CHAURA INCIDENT HAPPENED IN?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. 1922
B. 1921
C. 1923
D. 1920
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: VIOLENT PROTEST LED TO SUSPENSION.
Q364. WHO STARTED CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE MOVEMENT?
SSC GD 2021
A. GANDHI
B. BOSE
C. NEHRU
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: LAUNCHED IN 1930.
Q365. GANDHI-IRWIN PACT SIGNED IN?
SSC MTS 2022
A. 1931
B. 1930
C. 1932
D. 1929
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: AGREEMENT BEFORE SECOND RTC.
Q366. WHO WAS VICEROY DURING GANDHI-IRWIN PACT?
SSC CGL 2020
A. LORD IRWIN
B. CURZON
C. WAVELL
D. MOUNTBATTEN
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: SIGNED PACT WITH GANDHI.
Q367. WHO LED KUKA MOVEMENT?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. GURU RAM SINGH
B. GANDHI
C. TILAK
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: RELIGIOUS REFORM + ANTI-BRITISH.
Q368. WHO FOUNDED RAMAKRISHNA MISSION?
SSC GD 2019
A. SWAMI VIVEKANANDA
B. RAMAKRISHNA
C. ROY
D. DAYANAND
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: FOUNDED IN 1897.
Q369. WHO GAVE SLOGAN ‘JAI HIND’?
SSC MTS 2020
SSC CGL 2019
A. SUBHAS BOSE
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: POPULARIZED BY INA.
Q370. WHO GAVE SLOGAN ‘INQUILAB ZINDABAD’?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. BHAGAT SINGH
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: REVOLUTIONARY SLOGAN.
Q371. WHO LED AHMEDABAD MILL STRIKE?
SSC GD 2021
A. GANDHI
B. PATEL
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: LABOUR MOVEMENT.
Q372. WHO FOUNDED FORWARD BLOC?
SSC MTS 2022
A. SUBHAS BOSE
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: FOUNDED IN 1939.
Q373. WHO WAS FOUNDER OF SWARAJ PARTY?
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
A. C.R. DAS & MOTILAL NEHRU
B. GANDHI
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: FORMED AFTER NON-COOPERATION WITHDRAWAL.
Q374. WHO LED CHAMPARAN SATYAGRAHA?
SSC CHSL 2019
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: FIRST SATYAGRAHA IN INDIA.
Q375. WHO STARTED HOME RULE LEAGUE?
SSC GD 2020
A. TILAK & ANNIE BESANT
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: DEMANDED SELF-GOVERNMENT.
Q376. WHO FOUNDED MUSLIM LEAGUE?
SSC MTS 2021
A. AGA KHAN
B. JINNAH
C. GANDHI
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: FOUNDED IN 1906.
Q377. WHO WAS FIRST PRESIDENT OF MUSLIM LEAGUE?
SSC CGL 2020
A. AGA KHAN
B. JINNAH
C. GANDHI
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: EARLY LEADERSHIP.
Q378. WHO WAS KNOWN AS IRON MAN OF INDIA?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. SARDAR PATEL
B. NEHRU
C. GANDHI
D. BOSE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: INTEGRATED PRINCELY STATES.
Q379. WHO WAS KNOWN AS NIGHTINGALE OF INDIA?
SSC GD 2019
A. SAROJINI NAIDU
B. ANNIE BESANT
C. INDIRA GANDHI
D. KASTURBA
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: FAMOUS POET AND LEADER.
Q380. WHO WAS KNOWN AS GRAND OLD MAN OF INDIA?
SSC MTS 2020
A. DADABHAI NAOROJI
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: EARLY NATIONALIST.
Q381. WHO INTRODUCED DOCTRINE OF LAPSE?
SSC CGL 2019
A. LORD DALHOUSIE
B. CURZON
C. WELLESLEY
D. HASTINGS
ANSWER: A. LORD DALHOUSIE
EXPLANATION: POLICY TO ANNEX STATES WITHOUT NATURAL HEIRS.
Q382. WHO WAS VICEROY DURING REVOLT OF 1857?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. LORD CANNING
B. DALHOUSIE
C. CURZON
D. WAVELL
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: FIRST VICEROY AFTER REVOLT.
Q383. WHO LED REVOLT IN LUCKNOW IN 1857?
SSC GD 2021
A. BEGUM HAZRAT MAHAL
B. RANI LAKSHMI BAI
C. NANA SAHIB
D. TANTIA TOPE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: LED RESISTANCE IN AWADH.
Q384. WHO WAS FOUNDER OF ARYA SAMAJ?
SSC MTS 2022
A. SWAMI DAYANAND SARASWATI
B. VIVEKANANDA
C. ROY
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: FOUNDED IN 1875.
Q385. WHO FOUNDED BRAHMO SAMAJ?
SSC CGL 2018
A. RAJA RAM MOHAN ROY
B. VIVEKANANDA
C. DAYANAND
D. TAGORE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: REFORM MOVEMENT IN 1828.
Q386. WHO GAVE SLOGAN ‘DO OR DIE’?
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
A. MAHATMA GANDHI
B. BOSE
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT SLOGAN.
Q387. WHO LED CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE MOVEMENT?
SSC GD 2020
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: LAUNCHED IN 1930.
Q388. GANDHI-IRWIN PACT SIGNED IN?
SSC MTS 2021
A. 1931
B. 1930
C. 1932
D. 1929
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: AGREEMENT BEFORE ROUND TABLE CONFERENCE.
Q389. WHO FOUNDED INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS?
SSC CGL 2020
SSC CHSL 2018
A. A.O. HUME
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: FOUNDED IN 1885.
Q390. FIRST SESSION OF INC HELD AT?
SSC GD 2019
A. BOMBAY
B. CALCUTTA
C. MADRAS
D. DELHI
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: HELD IN 1885.
Q391. WHO WAS FIRST PRESIDENT OF INC?
SSC MTS 2022
A. W.C. BANERJEE
B. HUME
C. NAOROJI
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: PRESIDED OVER FIRST SESSION.
Q392. WHO FOUNDED MUSLIM LEAGUE?
SSC CGL 2018
A. AGA KHAN
B. JINNAH
C. GANDHI
D. NEHRU
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: FOUNDED IN 1906.
Q393. PARTITION OF BENGAL TOOK PLACE IN?
SSC CHSL 2020
A. 1905
B. 1906
C. 1907
D. 1908
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: LED TO SWADESHI MOVEMENT.
Q394. WHO LED SWADESHI MOVEMENT?
SSC GD 2021
A. EXTREMISTS
B. MODERATES
C. BRITISH
D. LEAGUE
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: LEADERS LIKE TILAK, BIPIN PAL, LAJPAT RAI.
Q395. WHO STARTED NON-COOPERATION MOVEMENT?
SSC MTS 2020
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. TILAK
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: STARTED IN 1920.
Q396. WHO SUSPENDED NON-COOPERATION MOVEMENT?
SSC CGL 2019
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: AFTER CHAURI CHAURA INCIDENT.
Q397. QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT STARTED IN?
SSC CHSL 2021
A. 1942
B. 1941
C. 1943
D. 1944
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: LAUNCHED IN AUGUST 1942.
Q398. WHO GAVE SLOGAN ‘JAI HIND’?
SSC GD 2020
SSC CGL 2018
A. SUBHAS BOSE
B. GANDHI
C. NEHRU
D. PATEL
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: POPULARIZED BY INA.
Q399. WHO WAS LAST VICEROY OF INDIA?
SSC MTS 2022
A. LORD MOUNTBATTEN
B. WAVELL
C. CURZON
D. IRWIN
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: OVERSAW INDEPENDENCE.
Q400. INDIA GOT INDEPENDENCE IN?
SSC CGL 2019
SSC CHSL 2020
A. 1947
B. 1946
C. 1948
D. 1949
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: INDIA BECAME INDEPENDENT ON 15 AUGUST 1947.
PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY: SSC TIER I
GK MCQS (WITH EXPLANATIONS & PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS)
INTRODUCTION TO PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY
PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY IS ONE OF THE MOST IMPORTANT SECTIONS IN SSC EXAMINATIONS (CGL, CHSL, MTS, CPO, GD, ETC.). IT DEALS WITH NATURAL FEATURES OF THE EARTH SUCH AS LANDFORMS, CLIMATE, SOIL, OCEANS, VEGETATION AND ATMOSPHERE.
WHY PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY IS IMPORTANT FOR SSC?
HIGH WEIGHTAGE IN TIER-I EXAMS
QUESTIONS ARE OFTEN REPEATED
MOSTLY CONCEPT-BASED + FACTUAL
EASY TO SCORE WITH PROPER REVISION
KEY TOPICS IN PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY
STRUCTURE OF EARTH
ROCKS & MINERALS
EARTHQUAKES & VOLCANOES
ATMOSPHERE & CLIMATE
WINDS & PRESSURE BELTS
OCEANS & CURRENTS
SOIL TYPES
BIOSPHERE
TOPIC 1: STRUCTURE OF EARTH
Q1. WHAT IS THE INNERMOST LAYER OF THE EARTH?
A) CRUST
B) MANTLE
C) CORE
D) LITHOSPHERE
ANSWER: C) CORE
EXPLANATION: THE EARTH HAS THREE LAYERS—CRUST (OUTER), MANTLE (MIDDLE), AND CORE (INNER). THE CORE IS MAINLY COMPOSED OF IRON AND NICKEL (NIFE).
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017, SSC CHSL 2019
Q2. WHICH LAYER OF THE EARTH IS THE THICKEST?
A) CRUST
B) MANTLE
C) CORE
D) INNER CORE
ANSWER: B) MANTLE
EXPLANATION: THE MANTLE IS ABOUT 2900 KM THICK, MAKING IT THE THICKEST LAYER OF EARTH.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2018
TOPIC 2: VOLCANOES & EARTHQUAKES
Q3. WHAT IS THE POINT INSIDE THE EARTH WHERE AN EARTHQUAKE ORIGINATES?
A) EPICENTER
B) FOCUS
C) FAULT LINE
D) SEISMIC ZONE
ANSWER: B) FOCUS
EXPLANATION: THE FOCUS (HYPOCENTER) IS THE ORIGIN POINT INSIDE THE EARTH. THE EPICENTER IS DIRECTLY ABOVE IT ON THE SURFACE.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2018, SSC CHSL 2020
Q4. WHICH TYPE OF VOLCANO IS CURRENTLY ACTIVE?
A) DORMANT
B) EXTINCT
C) ACTIVE
D) DEAD
ANSWER: C) ACTIVE
EXPLANATION: ACTIVE VOLCANOES ERUPT FREQUENTLY OR HAVE ERUPTED RECENTLY.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
TOPIC 3: ROCKS
Q5. WHICH ROCK IS FORMED BY COOLING OF MAGMA?
A) SEDIMENTARY
B) METAMORPHIC
C) IGNEOUS
D) LIMESTONE
ANSWER: C) IGNEOUS
EXPLANATION: IGNEOUS ROCKS ARE PRIMARY ROCKS FORMED FROM SOLIDIFIED MAGMA OR LAVA.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2016, SSC CPO 2019
Q6. MARBLE IS AN EXAMPLE OF WHICH ROCK?
A) IGNEOUS
B) SEDIMENTARY
C) METAMORPHIC
D) VOLCANIC
ANSWER: C) METAMORPHIC
EXPLANATION: MARBLE IS FORMED FROM LIMESTONE UNDER HEAT AND PRESSURE.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018
TOPIC 4: ATMOSPHERE
Q7. WHICH LAYER OF THE ATMOSPHERE CONTAINS OZONE?
A) TROPOSPHERE
B) STRATOSPHERE
C) MESOSPHERE
D) THERMOSPHERE
ANSWER: B) STRATOSPHERE
EXPLANATION: THE OZONE LAYER IS PRESENT IN THE STRATOSPHERE AND PROTECTS EARTH FROM HARMFUL UV RAYS.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017, SSC MTS 2020
Q8. WEATHER PHENOMENA OCCUR IN WHICH LAYER?
A) TROPOSPHERE
B) STRATOSPHERE
C) THERMOSPHERE
D) EXOSPHERE
ANSWER: A) TROPOSPHERE
EXPLANATION: ALL WEATHER CHANGES LIKE RAIN, CLOUDS, STORMS OCCUR IN THE TROPOSPHERE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 5: WINDS & PRESSURE BELTS
Q9. TRADE WINDS BLOW FROM:
A) EQUATOR TO POLES
B) POLES TO EQUATOR
C) SUBTROPICAL HIGHS TO EQUATORIAL LOWS
D) EQUATOR TO SUBTROPICAL HIGHS
ANSWER: C) SUBTROPICAL HIGHS TO EQUATORIAL LOWS
EXPLANATION: TRADE WINDS BLOW FROM HIGH-PRESSURE SUBTROPICAL REGIONS TOWARD LOW-PRESSURE EQUATORIAL REGIONS.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2019
TOPIC 6: OCEANS & CURRENTS
Q10. WHICH IS THE LARGEST OCEAN IN THE WORLD?
A) ATLANTIC OCEAN
B) INDIAN OCEAN
C) PACIFIC OCEAN
D) ARCTIC OCEAN
ANSWER: C) PACIFIC OCEAN
EXPLANATION: THE PACIFIC OCEAN COVERS ABOUT ONE-THIRD OF THE EARTH’S SURFACE.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2017, SSC MTS 2021
Q11. WHICH OCEAN CURRENT IS WARM?
A) LABRADOR CURRENT
B) CANARY CURRENT
C) GULF STREAM
D) BENGUELA CURRENT
ANSWER: C) GULF STREAM
EXPLANATION: GULF STREAM IS A WARM CURRENT FLOWING IN THE ATLANTIC OCEAN.
ASKED IN: SSC CPO 2020
TOPIC 7: SOIL
Q12. WHICH SOIL IS BEST FOR COTTON CULTIVATION?
A) ALLUVIAL SOIL
B) BLACK SOIL
C) RED SOIL
D) LATERITE SOIL
ANSWER: B) BLACK SOIL
EXPLANATION: BLACK SOIL (REGUR SOIL) RETAINS MOISTURE AND IS IDEAL FOR COTTON.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2019, SSC CHSL 2021
TOPIC 8: BIOSPHERE
Q13. WHICH BIOME IS KNOWN AS THE ‘LUNGS OF THE EARTH’?
A) DESERT
B) GRASSLAND
C) TROPICAL RAINFOREST
D) TUNDRA
ANSWER: C) TROPICAL RAINFOREST
EXPLANATION: RAINFORESTS ABSORB CO₂ AND RELEASE OXYGEN, HENCE CALLED EARTH’S LUNGS.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2020
TOPIC 1: STRUCTURE OF EARTH
Q14. WHICH ELEMENT IS MOST ABUNDANT IN THE EARTH’S CRUST?
A) IRON
B) OXYGEN
C) SILICON
D) ALUMINIUM
ANSWER: B) OXYGEN
EXPLANATION: OXYGEN IS THE MOST ABUNDANT ELEMENT IN THE EARTH’S CRUST (~46.6%), FOLLOWED BY SILICON.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2018, SSC CHSL 2020
TOPIC 3: ROCKS
Q15. WHICH ROCK TYPE IS FORMED BY DEPOSITION OF SEDIMENTS?
A) IGNEOUS
B) METAMORPHIC
C) SEDIMENTARY
D) VOLCANIC
ANSWER: C) SEDIMENTARY
EXPLANATION: SEDIMENTARY ROCKS ARE FORMED FROM ACCUMULATED SEDIMENTS OVER TIME (E.G., SANDSTONE, SHALE).
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2019
Q16. COAL IS WHICH TYPE OF ROCK?
A) IGNEOUS
B) SEDIMENTARY
C) METAMORPHIC
D) VOLCANIC
ANSWER: B) SEDIMENTARY
EXPLANATION: COAL IS AN ORGANIC SEDIMENTARY ROCK FORMED FROM PLANT REMAINS.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017, SSC GD 2021
TOPIC 2: EARTHQUAKES & VOLCANOES
Q17. WHICH INSTRUMENT MEASURES EARTHQUAKES?
A) BAROMETER
B) THERMOMETER
C) SEISMOGRAPH
D) HYGROMETER
ANSWER: C) SEISMOGRAPH
EXPLANATION: A SEISMOGRAPH RECORDS SEISMIC WAVES PRODUCED DURING EARTHQUAKES.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018, SSC MTS 2021
Q18. THE RING OF FIRE IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
A) ATLANTIC OCEAN
B) INDIAN OCEAN
C) PACIFIC OCEAN
D) ARCTIC OCEAN
ANSWER: C) PACIFIC OCEAN
EXPLANATION: THE PACIFIC RING OF FIRE IS A ZONE WITH FREQUENT EARTHQUAKES AND VOLCANOES.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2019, SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 4: ATMOSPHERE
Q19. WHICH GAS IS MOST ABUNDANT IN THE EARTH’S ATMOSPHERE?
A) OXYGEN
B) CARBON DIOXIDE
C) NITROGEN
D) ARGON
ANSWER: C) NITROGEN
EXPLANATION: NITROGEN MAKES UP ABOUT 78% OF THE ATMOSPHERE.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2016, SSC CHSL 2019
Q20. WHICH LAYER IS CLOSEST TO EARTH’S SURFACE?
A) STRATOSPHERE
B) TROPOSPHERE
C) MESOSPHERE
D) THERMOSPHERE
ANSWER: B) TROPOSPHERE
EXPLANATION: TROPOSPHERE IS THE LOWEST LAYER WHERE ALL WEATHER OCCURS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2020, SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 5: WINDS
Q21. MONSOON WINDS ARE:
A) PERMANENT WINDS
B) SEASONAL WINDS
C) LOCAL WINDS
D) PLANETARY WINDS
ANSWER: B) SEASONAL WINDS
EXPLANATION: MONSOON WINDS CHANGE DIRECTION WITH SEASONS, ESPECIALLY IN SOUTH ASIA.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2017, SSC CGL 2021
TOPIC 6: OCEANS
Q22. WHICH IS THE DEEPEST PART OF THE OCEAN?
A) CONTINENTAL SHELF
B) CONTINENTAL SLOPE
C) ABYSSAL PLAIN
D) MARIANA TRENCH
ANSWER: D) MARIANA TRENCH
EXPLANATION: IT IS THE DEEPEST KNOWN PART OF THE WORLD’S OCEANS.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2018, SSC CHSL 2022
Q23. TIDES ARE CAUSED MAINLY BY:
A) WIND
B) EARTHQUAKE
C) GRAVITATIONAL PULL OF MOON
D) OCEAN CURRENTS
ANSWER: C) GRAVITATIONAL PULL OF MOON
EXPLANATION: THE MOON’S GRAVITY IS THE PRIMARY CAUSE OF TIDES.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2019, SSC MTS 2021
TOPIC 7: SOIL
Q24. WHICH SOIL IS MOST FERTILE?
A) BLACK SOIL
B) RED SOIL
C) ALLUVIAL SOIL
D) LATERITE SOIL
ANSWER: C) ALLUVIAL SOIL
EXPLANATION: ALLUVIAL SOIL IS RICH IN NUTRIENTS AND IDEAL FOR AGRICULTURE.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017, SSC CHSL 2020
TOPIC 8: BIOSPHERE
Q25. WHICH IS THE LARGEST BIOME ON EARTH?
A) DESERT
B) TUNDRA
C) MARINE
D) FOREST
ANSWER: C) MARINE
EXPLANATION: OCEANS COVER ABOUT 71% OF EARTH’S SURFACE, MAKING MARINE BIOME THE LARGEST.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
MIXED PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY QUESTIONS
Q26. WHICH LATITUDE IS KNOWN AS THE TROPIC OF CANCER?
A) 0°
B) 23.5° N
C) 66.5° N
D) 90° N
ANSWER: B) 23.5° N
EXPLANATION: TROPIC OF CANCER IS LOCATED AT 23.5° NORTH LATITUDE.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2016, SSC CHSL 2018, SSC GD 2022
Q27. WHAT IS THE SHAPE OF THE EARTH?
A) PERFECT SPHERE
B) OBLATE SPHEROID
C) FLAT
D) OVAL
ANSWER: B) OBLATE SPHEROID
EXPLANATION: EARTH IS SLIGHTLY FLATTENED AT POLES AND BULGED AT EQUATOR.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2019
TOPIC 1: STRUCTURE OF EARTH
Q28. WHICH LAYER OF THE EARTH IS COMPOSED MAINLY OF SILICA AND ALUMINA?
A) SIMA
B) NIFE
C) SIAL
D) CORE
ANSWER: C) SIAL
EXPLANATION: THE CONTINENTAL CRUST IS MAINLY COMPOSED OF SILICA AND ALUMINA, HENCE CALLED SIAL.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017, SSC CHSL 2021
TOPIC 3: ROCKS
Q29. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN EXAMPLE OF IGNEOUS ROCK?
A) GRANITE
B) SANDSTONE
C) MARBLE
D) LIMESTONE
ANSWER: A) GRANITE
EXPLANATION: GRANITE IS AN INTRUSIVE IGNEOUS ROCK FORMED FROM SLOWLY COOLING MAGMA.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2018, SSC GD 2022
Q30. WHICH ROCK IS FORMED DUE TO HEAT AND PRESSURE?
A) IGNEOUS
B) SEDIMENTARY
C) METAMORPHIC
D) VOLCANIC
ANSWER: C) METAMORPHIC
EXPLANATION: METAMORPHIC ROCKS FORM WHEN EXISTING ROCKS ARE ALTERED BY HEAT AND PRESSURE.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2019
TOPIC 2: EARTHQUAKES & VOLCANOES
Q31. RICHTER SCALE MEASURES:
A) TEMPERATURE
B) WIND SPEED
C) EARTHQUAKE MAGNITUDE
D) PRESSURE
ANSWER: C) EARTHQUAKE MAGNITUDE
EXPLANATION: THE RICHTER SCALE MEASURES THE ENERGY RELEASED DURING AN EARTHQUAKE.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2017, SSC GD 2021
Q32. LAVA IS:
A) MAGMA INSIDE EARTH
B) MAGMA ON SURFACE
C) MOLTEN ROCK IN CORE
D) SOLID ROCK
ANSWER: B) MAGMA ON SURFACE
EXPLANATION: WHEN MAGMA REACHES EARTH’S SURFACE, IT IS CALLED LAVA.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2020
TOPIC 4: ATMOSPHERE
Q33. WHICH LAYER REFLECTS RADIO WAVES?
A) TROPOSPHERE
B) STRATOSPHERE
C) IONOSPHERE
D) MESOSPHERE
ANSWER: C) IONOSPHERE
EXPLANATION: IONOSPHERE REFLECTS RADIO WAVES, ENABLING LONG-DISTANCE COMMUNICATION.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2018, SSC CHSL 2022
Q34. OZONE LAYER PROTECTS US FROM:
A) INFRARED RAYS
B) ULTRAVIOLET RAYS
C) GAMMA RAYS
D) X-RAYS
ANSWER: B) ULTRAVIOLET RAYS
EXPLANATION: OZONE ABSORBS HARMFUL UV RADIATION FROM THE SUN.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2019, SSC MTS 2021
TOPIC 5: WINDS
Q35. WHICH IS A LOCAL WIND?
A) TRADE WIND
B) WESTERLIES
C) LOO
D) POLAR WIND
ANSWER: C) LOO
EXPLANATION: LOO IS A HOT, DRY LOCAL WIND BLOWING IN NORTHERN INDIA DURING SUMMER.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017
TOPIC 6: OCEANS
Q36. WHICH OCEAN IS THE SMALLEST?
A) ATLANTIC OCEAN
B) INDIAN OCEAN
C) ARCTIC OCEAN
D) PACIFIC OCEAN
ANSWER: C) ARCTIC OCEAN
EXPLANATION: ARCTIC OCEAN IS THE SMALLEST AND SHALLOWEST OCEAN.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018, SSC GD 2020
Q37. SALINITY OF OCEAN WATER IS MEASURED IN:
A) CELSIUS
B) PERCENTAGE
C) PARTS PER THOUSAND
D) METERS
ANSWER: C) PARTS PER THOUSAND
EXPLANATION: OCEAN SALINITY IS MEASURED IN PPT (‰).
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2019
TOPIC 7: SOIL
Q38. LATERITE SOIL IS RICH IN:
A) NITROGEN
B) IRON
C) POTASSIUM
D) PHOSPHORUS
ANSWER: B) IRON
EXPLANATION: LATERITE SOIL IS RICH IN IRON AND ALUMINUM DUE TO LEACHING.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
TOPIC 8: BIOSPHERE
Q39. WHICH ECOSYSTEM HAS THE HIGHEST BIODIVERSITY?
A) DESERT
B) TUNDRA
C) TROPICAL RAINFOREST
D) GRASSLAND
ANSWER: C) TROPICAL RAINFOREST
EXPLANATION: TROPICAL RAINFORESTS SUPPORT MAXIMUM BIODIVERSITY DUE TO FAVORABLE CLIMATE.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2020, SSC CHSL 2022
MIXED PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY QUESTIONS
Q40. WHICH LINE DIVIDES THE EARTH INTO NORTHERN AND SOUTHERN HEMISPHERE?
A) TROPIC OF CANCER
B) EQUATOR
C) PRIME MERIDIAN
D) ARCTIC CIRCLE
ANSWER: B) EQUATOR
EXPLANATION: EQUATOR (0° LATITUDE) DIVIDES EARTH INTO TWO HEMISPHERES.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2018, SSC GD 2022
Q41. LONGITUDE PASSING THROUGH GREENWICH IS CALLED:
A) EQUATOR
B) TROPIC OF CAPRICORN
C) PRIME MERIDIAN
D) INTERNATIONAL DATE LINE
ANSWER: C) PRIME MERIDIAN
EXPLANATION: IT IS 0° LONGITUDE AND DIVIDES EARTH INTO EASTERN AND WESTERN HEMISPHERES.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2016, SSC CHSL 2019
Q42. WHICH INSTRUMENT MEASURES ATMOSPHERIC PRESSURE?
A) THERMOMETER
B) BAROMETER
C) HYGROMETER
D) ANEMOMETER
ANSWER: B) BAROMETER
EXPLANATION: BAROMETER IS USED TO MEASURE AIR PRESSURE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2019, SSC MTS 2021
TOPIC 1: STRUCTURE OF EARTH
Q43. WHICH LAYER OF THE EARTH IS LIQUID IN NATURE?
A) CRUST
B) MANTLE
C) OUTER CORE
D) INNER CORE
ANSWER: C) OUTER CORE
EXPLANATION: THE OUTER CORE IS IN A MOLTEN (LIQUID) STATE, WHILE THE INNER CORE IS SOLID DUE TO EXTREME PRESSURE.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2020
TOPIC 3: ROCKS
Q44. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN EXAMPLE OF SEDIMENTARY ROCK?
A) BASALT
B) GRANITE
C) SHALE
D) MARBLE
ANSWER: C) SHALE
EXPLANATION: SHALE IS FORMED FROM COMPACTED CLAY AND IS A COMMON SEDIMENTARY ROCK.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q45. BASALT IS AN EXAMPLE OF WHICH TYPE OF ROCK?
A) SEDIMENTARY
B) IGNEOUS
C) METAMORPHIC
D) ORGANIC
ANSWER: B) IGNEOUS
EXPLANATION: BASALT IS AN EXTRUSIVE IGNEOUS ROCK FORMED FROM LAVA.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 2: EARTHQUAKES & VOLCANOES
Q46. WHICH COUNTRY EXPERIENCES THE HIGHEST NUMBER OF EARTHQUAKES?
A) INDIA
B) JAPAN
C) BRAZIL
D) AUSTRALIA
ANSWER: B) JAPAN
EXPLANATION: JAPAN LIES ON THE PACIFIC RING OF FIRE, MAKING IT HIGHLY PRONE TO EARTHQUAKES.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2018
Q47. WHAT IS THE INSTRUMENT USED TO MEASURE THE INTENSITY OF EARTHQUAKES?
A) SEISMOGRAPH
B) RICHTER SCALE
C) BAROMETER
D) ALTIMETER
ANSWER: B) RICHTER SCALE
EXPLANATION: THE RICHTER SCALE MEASURES THE MAGNITUDE/INTENSITY OF EARTHQUAKES.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2019
TOPIC 4: ATMOSPHERE
Q48. WHICH ATMOSPHERIC LAYER BURNS METEORS?
A) TROPOSPHERE
B) STRATOSPHERE
C) MESOSPHERE
D) THERMOSPHERE
ANSWER: C) MESOSPHERE
EXPLANATION: METEORS BURN UP IN THE MESOSPHERE DUE TO FRICTION WITH GASES.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2020
Q49. WHICH GAS IS ESSENTIAL FOR RESPIRATION?
A) NITROGEN
B) OXYGEN
C) CARBON DIOXIDE
D) HYDROGEN
ANSWER: B) OXYGEN
EXPLANATION: OXYGEN IS NECESSARY FOR BREATHING AND CELLULAR RESPIRATION.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
TOPIC 5: WINDS
Q50. WESTERLIES BLOW FROM:
A) EAST TO WEST
B) WEST TO EAST
C) NORTH TO SOUTH
D) SOUTH TO NORTH
ANSWER: B) WEST TO EAST
EXPLANATION: WESTERLIES ARE PERMANENT WINDS THAT BLOW FROM WEST TO EAST IN MID-LATITUDES.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017
TOPIC 6: OCEANS
Q51. WHICH OCEAN LIES BETWEEN AFRICA AND AUSTRALIA?
A) ATLANTIC OCEAN
B) PACIFIC OCEAN
C) INDIAN OCEAN
D) ARCTIC OCEAN
ANSWER: C) INDIAN OCEAN
EXPLANATION: THE INDIAN OCEAN IS BOUNDED BY AFRICA (WEST), ASIA (NORTH), AND AUSTRALIA (EAST).
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2020
Q52. WHICH CURRENT IS A COLD OCEAN CURRENT?
A) GULF STREAM
B) KUROSHIO CURRENT
C) LABRADOR CURRENT
D) BRAZIL CURRENT
ANSWER: C) LABRADOR CURRENT
EXPLANATION: LABRADOR CURRENT IS A COLD CURRENT FLOWING FROM THE ARCTIC.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2019
TOPIC 7: SOIL
Q53. RED SOIL GETS ITS COLOR DUE TO:
A) HUMUS
B) IRON OXIDE
C) CALCIUM
D) MAGNESIUM
ANSWER: B) IRON OXIDE
EXPLANATION: PRESENCE OF IRON OXIDE GIVES RED COLOR TO SOIL.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 8: BIOSPHERE
Q54. WHICH REGION IS KNOWN FOR TUNDRA VEGETATION?
A) EQUATORIAL REGION
B) DESERT REGION
C) POLAR REGION
D) TROPICAL REGION
ANSWER: C) POLAR REGION
EXPLANATION: TUNDRA VEGETATION GROWS IN COLD POLAR REGIONS WITH PERMAFROST.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2021
MIXED PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY QUESTIONS
Q55. THE EARTH ROTATES FROM:
A) NORTH TO SOUTH
B) SOUTH TO NORTH
C) WEST TO EAST
D) EAST TO WEST
ANSWER: C) WEST TO EAST
EXPLANATION: EARTH ROTATES FROM WEST TO EAST, CAUSING DAY AND NIGHT.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2016
Q56. WHICH IMAGINARY LINE PASSES THROUGH BOTH POLES?
A) EQUATOR
B) LATITUDE
C) LONGITUDE
D) TROPIC OF CANCER
ANSWER: C) LONGITUDE
EXPLANATION: LONGITUDES (MERIDIANS) RUN FROM NORTH POLE TO SOUTH POLE.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2018
Q57. WHAT IS THE TIME TAKEN BY EARTH TO COMPLETE ONE ROTATION?
A) 12 HOURS
B) 24 HOURS
C) 30 DAYS
D) 365 DAYS
ANSWER: B) 24 HOURS
EXPLANATION: EARTH COMPLETES ONE ROTATION IN APPROXIMATELY 24 HOURS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2020
TOPIC: LANDFORMS (GEOMORPHOLOGY)
Q58. WHICH LANDFORM IS CREATED BY RIVER DEPOSITION?
A) VALLEY
B) DELTA
C) GORGE
D) CANYON
ANSWER: B) DELTA
EXPLANATION: A DELTA FORMS AT THE MOUTH OF A RIVER DUE TO DEPOSITION OF SEDIMENTS.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2019
Q59. WHICH LANDFORM IS FORMED BY GLACIAL EROSION?
A) SAND DUNE
B) U-SHAPED VALLEY
C) DELTA
D) FLOODPLAIN
ANSWER: B) U-SHAPED VALLEY
EXPLANATION: GLACIERS CARVE U-SHAPED VALLEYS THROUGH EROSION.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2021
TOPIC: DESERT & AEOLIAN LANDFORMS
Q60. SAND DUNES ARE FORMED DUE TO:
A) RIVER ACTION
B) WIND ACTION
C) GLACIER ACTION
D) SEA WAVES
ANSWER: B) WIND ACTION
EXPLANATION: WIND (AEOLIAN PROCESS) DEPOSITS SAND FORMING DUNES.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: MOUNTAINS
Q61. HIMALAYAS ARE AN EXAMPLE OF:
A) BLOCK MOUNTAINS
B) FOLD MOUNTAINS
C) VOLCANIC MOUNTAINS
D) RESIDUAL MOUNTAINS
ANSWER: B) FOLD MOUNTAINS
EXPLANATION: FORMED BY FOLDING OF EARTH’S CRUST DUE TO TECTONIC FORCES.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2018, SSC MTS 2021
TOPIC: CLIMATE & WEATHER
Q62. CLIMATE REFERS TO:
A) DAILY WEATHER CONDITIONS
B) SHORT-TERM ATMOSPHERIC CHANGES
C) LONG-TERM AVERAGE WEATHER
D) WIND DIRECTION
ANSWER: C) LONG-TERM AVERAGE WEATHER
EXPLANATION: CLIMATE IS THE AVERAGE WEATHER CONDITION OVER A LONG PERIOD (30+ YEARS).
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2020
Q63. WHICH FACTOR DOES NOT AFFECT CLIMATE?
A) LATITUDE
B) ALTITUDE
C) LONGITUDE
D) DISTANCE FROM SEA
ANSWER: C) LONGITUDE
EXPLANATION: LATITUDE, ALTITUDE, AND DISTANCE FROM SEA INFLUENCE CLIMATE; LONGITUDE GENERALLY DOES NOT.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
TOPIC: RAINFALL TYPES
Q64. CONVECTIONAL RAINFALL IS COMMON IN:
A) POLAR REGIONS
B) EQUATORIAL REGIONS
C) DESERT REGIONS
D) MOUNTAIN REGIONS
ANSWER: B) EQUATORIAL REGIONS
EXPLANATION: INTENSE HEATING CAUSES RISING AIR AND HEAVY RAINFALL.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017
Q65. OROGRAPHIC RAINFALL OCCURS DUE TO:
A) WIND CONVERGENCE
B) MOUNTAINS
C) OCEAN CURRENTS
D) CYCLONES
ANSWER: B) MOUNTAINS
EXPLANATION: MOIST AIR RISES OVER MOUNTAINS, COOLS, AND CONDENSES.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
TOPIC: CYCLONES & ANTICYCLONES
Q66. CYCLONES ARE ASSOCIATED WITH:
A) HIGH PRESSURE
B) LOW PRESSURE
C) NO PRESSURE
D) CONSTANT PRESSURE
ANSWER: B) LOW PRESSURE
EXPLANATION: CYCLONES FORM IN LOW-PRESSURE AREAS WITH INWARD SPIRALING WINDS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2020
TOPIC: OCEANOGRAPHY (ADVANCED)
Q67. TSUNAMI IS CAUSED BY:
A) WIND
B) OCEAN CURRENTS
C) UNDERWATER EARTHQUAKES
D) TIDES
ANSWER: C) UNDERWATER EARTHQUAKES
EXPLANATION: SUDDEN DISPLACEMENT OF OCEAN WATER DUE TO SEISMIC ACTIVITY.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2018, SSC CHSL 2021
Q68. CORAL REEFS ARE MAINLY FOUND IN:
A) COLD WATER
B) DEEP OCEAN
C) WARM SHALLOW WATER
D) POLAR REGIONS
ANSWER: C) WARM SHALLOW WATER
EXPLANATION: CORALS THRIVE IN WARM, CLEAR, SHALLOW SEAS.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2019
TOPIC: NATURAL VEGETATION
Q69. THORN FORESTS ARE FOUND IN:
A) HIGH RAINFALL AREAS
B) DESERT REGIONS
C) MOUNTAIN REGIONS
D) COASTAL REGIONS
ANSWER: B) DESERT REGIONS
EXPLANATION: THORNY VEGETATION ADAPTS TO LOW RAINFALL CONDITIONS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: LATITUDES & LONGITUDES (ADVANCED)
Q70. THE ARCTIC CIRCLE IS LOCATED AT:
A) 23.5° N
B) 66.5° N
C) 90° N
D) 0°
ANSWER: B) 66.5° N
EXPLANATION: IT MARKS THE BOUNDARY OF POLAR DAY/NIGHT PHENOMENA.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2019
Q71. INTERNATIONAL DATE LINE IS APPROXIMATELY:
A) 0° LONGITUDE
B) 90° LONGITUDE
C) 180° LONGITUDE
D) 66.5° LONGITUDE
ANSWER: C) 180° LONGITUDE
EXPLANATION: IT SEPARATES TWO CONSECUTIVE CALENDAR DAYS.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2018, SSC GD 2021
MIXED PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY QUESTIONS (ADVANCED)
Q72. WHICH FORCE KEEPS PLANETS IN ORBIT?
A) MAGNETIC FORCE
B) FRICTION
C) GRAVITY
D) PRESSURE
ANSWER: C) GRAVITY
EXPLANATION: GRAVITATIONAL FORCE KEEPS CELESTIAL BODIES IN ORBIT.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017
Q73. THE REVOLUTION OF EARTH CAUSES:
A) DAY AND NIGHT
B) SEASONS
C) WINDS
D) TIDES
ANSWER: B) SEASONS
EXPLANATION: EARTH’S REVOLUTION AROUND THE SUN LEADS TO SEASONAL CHANGES.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2020
Q74. WHICH ZONE RECEIVES MAXIMUM HEAT FROM THE SUN?
A) TEMPERATE ZONE
B) FRIGID ZONE
C) TORRID ZONE
D) POLAR ZONE
ANSWER: C) TORRID ZONE
EXPLANATION: LOCATED BETWEEN TROPIC OF CANCER AND CAPRICORN.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2019
TOPIC: GEOMORPHOLOGY (ADVANCED LANDFORMS)
Q75. A ‘MEANDER’ IS FORMED BY WHICH AGENT?
A) WIND
B) GLACIER
C) RIVER
D) SEA WAVES
ANSWER: C) RIVER
EXPLANATION: MEANDERS ARE BENDS OR CURVES FORMED IN THE COURSE OF A RIVER DUE TO EROSION AND DEPOSITION.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2020
Q76. WHICH LANDFORM IS FORMED BY SEA WAVE EROSION?
A) DELTA
B) BEACH
C) SEA CAVE
D) FLOODPLAIN
ANSWER: C) SEA CAVE
EXPLANATION: CONTINUOUS WAVE ACTION ERODES COASTAL ROCKS FORMING SEA CAVES.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2021
TOPIC: MOUNTAINS & PLATE TECTONICS
Q77. WHICH PLATE IS ASSOCIATED WITH THE FORMATION OF THE HIMALAYAS?
A) AFRICAN PLATE
B) INDO-AUSTRALIAN PLATE
C) PACIFIC PLATE
D) ANTARCTIC PLATE
ANSWER: B) INDO-AUSTRALIAN PLATE
EXPLANATION: COLLISION OF INDO-AUSTRALIAN PLATE WITH EURASIAN PLATE FORMED THE HIMALAYAS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q78. VOLCANOES ARE MOSTLY FOUND AT:
A) PLATE INTERIORS
B) PLATE BOUNDARIES
C) RIVER VALLEYS
D) DESERTS
ANSWER: B) PLATE BOUNDARIES
EXPLANATION: MOST VOLCANOES OCCUR AT TECTONIC PLATE BOUNDARIES DUE TO MAGMA MOVEMENT.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2019
TOPIC: CLIMATOLOGY (ADVANCED)
Q79. WHICH INSTRUMENT MEASURES HUMIDITY?
A) BAROMETER
B) HYGROMETER
C) THERMOMETER
D) ANEMOMETER
ANSWER: B) HYGROMETER
EXPLANATION: HYGROMETER IS USED TO MEASURE THE MOISTURE CONTENT IN AIR.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2020
Q80. WHAT IS ‘ISOBAR’?
A) LINE OF EQUAL TEMPERATURE
B) LINE OF EQUAL RAINFALL
C) LINE OF EQUAL PRESSURE
D) LINE OF EQUAL WIND SPEED
ANSWER: C) LINE OF EQUAL PRESSURE
EXPLANATION: ISOBARS CONNECT POINTS OF EQUAL ATMOSPHERIC PRESSURE.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2018
TOPIC: PRECIPITATION & CLOUDS
Q81. WHICH CLOUD BRINGS HEAVY RAINFALL?
A) CIRRUS
B) CUMULUS
C) NIMBUS
D) STRATUS
ANSWER: C) NIMBUS
EXPLANATION: NIMBUS CLOUDS ARE DENSE AND DARK, ASSOCIATED WITH HEAVY RAIN.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
TOPIC: LOCAL WINDS (ADVANCED)
Q82. ‘CHINOOK’ IS A:
A) COLD WIND
B) HOT WIND
C) SEASONAL WIND
D) CYCLONE
ANSWER: B) HOT WIND
EXPLANATION: CHINOOK IS A WARM, DRY WIND DESCENDING ON THE LEEWARD SIDE OF MOUNTAINS.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017
TOPIC: OCEANOGRAPHY
Q83. WHICH OCEAN CURRENT FLOWS ALONG THE EAST COAST OF NORTH AMERICA?
A) CANARY CURRENT
B) GULF STREAM
C) BENGUELA CURRENT
D) PERU CURRENT
ANSWER: B) GULF STREAM
EXPLANATION: IT IS A WARM CURRENT FLOWING NORTHWARD ALONG THE EAST COAST.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q84. THE AVERAGE SALINITY OF OCEAN WATER IS:
A) 10 PPT
B) 20 PPT
C) 35 PPT
D) 50 PPT
ANSWER: C) 35 PPT
EXPLANATION: AVERAGE OCEAN SALINITY IS ABOUT 35 PARTS PER THOUSAND.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
TOPIC: SOIL & AGRICULTURE
Q85. WHICH SOIL IS FORMED BY VOLCANIC ACTIVITY?
A) ALLUVIAL SOIL
B) BLACK SOIL
C) LATERITE SOIL
D) DESERT SOIL
ANSWER: B) BLACK SOIL
EXPLANATION: BLACK SOIL IS FORMED FROM VOLCANIC ROCKS (BASALT).
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2020
TOPIC: NATURAL VEGETATION (ADVANCED)
Q86. EVERGREEN FORESTS ARE FOUND IN AREAS WITH RAINFALL MORE THAN:
A) 50 CM
B) 100 CM
C) 200 CM
D) 300 CM
ANSWER: C) 200 CM
EXPLANATION: DENSE EVERGREEN FORESTS REQUIRE HEAVY RAINFALL (>200 CM ANNUALLY).
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2018
MIXED PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY (ADVANCED)
Q87. WHICH IMAGINARY LINE DIVIDES THE EARTH INTO EQUAL HALVES?
A) TROPIC OF CANCER
B) PRIME MERIDIAN
C) EQUATOR
D) ARCTIC CIRCLE
ANSWER: C) EQUATOR
EXPLANATION: EQUATOR DIVIDES EARTH INTO NORTHERN AND SOUTHERN HEMISPHERES.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2020
Q88. THE TILT OF EARTH’S AXIS IS APPROXIMATELY:
A) 0°
B) 23.5°
C) 45°
D) 66.5°
ANSWER: B) 23.5°
EXPLANATION: EARTH’S AXIAL TILT CAUSES SEASONS.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q89. WHICH DAY HAS EQUAL DAY AND NIGHT EVERYWHERE ON EARTH?
A) SOLSTICE
B) EQUINOX
C) ECLIPSE
D) PERIHELION
ANSWER: B) EQUINOX
EXPLANATION: DURING EQUINOX (MARCH & SEPTEMBER), DAY AND NIGHT ARE EQUAL.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2019
Q90. WHICH PHENOMENON CAUSES DAY AND NIGHT?
A) REVOLUTION
B) ROTATION
C) TILT
D) GRAVITY
ANSWER: B) ROTATION
EXPLANATION: EARTH’S ROTATION ON ITS AXIS CAUSES DAY AND NIGHT.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2016
TOPIC: GEOMORPHOLOGY (ADVANCED)
Q91. WHAT IS A ‘GORGE’?
A) WIDE VALLEY
B) DEEP NARROW VALLEY WITH STEEP SIDES
C) FLAT PLAIN
D) COASTAL LANDFORM
ANSWER: B) DEEP NARROW VALLEY WITH STEEP SIDES
EXPLANATION: A GORGE IS FORMED DUE TO VERTICAL EROSION BY RIVERS IN HARD ROCK REGIONS.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2019
Q92. WHICH LANDFORM IS FORMED BY RIVER EROSION?
A) DELTA
B) FLOODPLAIN
C) CANYON
D) BEACH
ANSWER: C) CANYON
EXPLANATION: CANYONS ARE DEEP VALLEYS WITH STEEP SIDES FORMED BY RIVER EROSION OVER TIME.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2021
TOPIC: MOUNTAINS & LANDFORMS
Q93. WHICH TYPE OF MOUNTAIN IS FORMED DUE TO FAULTING?
A) FOLD MOUNTAIN
B) BLOCK MOUNTAIN
C) VOLCANIC MOUNTAIN
D) RESIDUAL MOUNTAIN
ANSWER: B) BLOCK MOUNTAIN
EXPLANATION: BLOCK MOUNTAINS ARE FORMED WHEN LARGE BLOCKS OF EARTH’S CRUST ARE UPLIFTED DUE TO FAULTING.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
TOPIC: CLIMATOLOGY (ADVANCED)
Q94. WHICH INSTRUMENT MEASURES WIND SPEED?
A) BAROMETER
B) HYGROMETER
C) ANEMOMETER
D) THERMOMETER
ANSWER: C) ANEMOMETER
EXPLANATION: ANEMOMETER IS USED TO MEASURE THE SPEED OF WIND.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2018
Q95. WHAT IS ‘ISOHYET’?
A) LINE OF EQUAL PRESSURE
B) LINE OF EQUAL RAINFALL
C) LINE OF EQUAL TEMPERATURE
D) LINE OF EQUAL ALTITUDE
ANSWER: B) LINE OF EQUAL RAINFALL
EXPLANATION: ISOHYETS JOIN PLACES HAVING EQUAL RAINFALL.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2020
TOPIC: PRECIPITATION (ADVANCED)
Q96. WHICH RAINFALL OCCURS DUE TO THE MEETING OF WARM AND COLD AIR MASSES?
A) CONVECTIONAL RAINFALL
B) OROGRAPHIC RAINFALL
C) CYCLONIC RAINFALL
D) MONSOON RAINFALL
ANSWER: C) CYCLONIC RAINFALL
EXPLANATION: IT OCCURS AT FRONTS WHERE WARM AND COLD AIR MASSES MEET.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2021
TOPIC: WINDS (ADVANCED)
Q97. ‘MISTRAL’ IS A:
A) HOT WIND
B) COLD WIND
C) SEASONAL WIND
D) LOCAL STORM
ANSWER: B) COLD WIND
EXPLANATION: MISTRAL IS A COLD, DRY WIND BLOWING IN SOUTHERN FRANCE.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2017
TOPIC: OCEANOGRAPHY (ADVANCED)
Q98. WHICH IS THE WARMEST OCEAN?
A) PACIFIC OCEAN
B) ATLANTIC OCEAN
C) INDIAN OCEAN
D) ARCTIC OCEAN
ANSWER: C) INDIAN OCEAN
EXPLANATION: DUE TO ITS LOCATION IN THE TROPICS, IT IS THE WARMEST OCEAN.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2019
Q99. WHICH FEATURE SEPARATES CONTINENTS UNDER OCEANS?
A) CONTINENTAL SHELF
B) MID-OCEAN RIDGE
C) TRENCH
D) ABYSSAL PLAIN
ANSWER: B) MID-OCEAN RIDGE
EXPLANATION: THESE ARE UNDERWATER MOUNTAIN CHAINS FORMED BY TECTONIC ACTIVITY.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2021
TOPIC: SOIL (ADVANCED)
Q100. WHICH SOIL IS SUITABLE FOR TEA CULTIVATION?
A) BLACK SOIL
B) ALLUVIAL SOIL
C) LATERITE SOIL
D) DESERT SOIL
ANSWER: C) LATERITE SOIL
EXPLANATION: LATERITE SOIL IS SUITABLE FOR TEA, COFFEE DUE TO GOOD DRAINAGE.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2020
TOPIC: NATURAL VEGETATION (ADVANCED)
Q101. WHICH VEGETATION IS FOUND IN MODERATE RAINFALL REGIONS?
A) DESERT VEGETATION
B) TROPICAL RAINFOREST
C) GRASSLAND
D) TUNDRA
ANSWER: C) GRASSLAND
EXPLANATION: GRASSLANDS OCCUR IN AREAS WITH MODERATE RAINFALL.
ASKED IN: SSC CGL 2018
MIXED PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY (ADVANCED)
Q102. THE EARTH IS CLOSEST TO THE SUN IN:
A) APHELION
B) PERIHELION
C) SOLSTICE
D) EQUINOX
ANSWER: B) PERIHELION
EXPLANATION: EARTH IS CLOSEST TO THE SUN AROUND JANUARY.
ASKED IN: SSC CHSL 2021
Q103. THE EARTH IS FARTHEST FROM THE SUN IN:
A) PERIHELION
B) APHELION
C) EQUINOX
D) ECLIPSE
ANSWER: B) APHELION
EXPLANATION: EARTH IS FARTHEST FROM THE SUN AROUND JULY.
ASKED IN: SSC GD 2022
Q104. WHICH ZONE IS THE COLDEST ON EARTH?
A) TORRID ZONE
B) TEMPERATE ZONE
C) FRIGID ZONE
D) TROPICAL ZONE
ANSWER: C) FRIGID ZONE
EXPLANATION: LOCATED NEAR POLES, RECEIVES LEAST SOLAR ENERGY.
ASKED IN: SSC MTS 2019
Q105. WHICH IMAGINARY LINE IS AT 23.5° SOUTH?
A) TROPIC OF CANCER
B) EQUATOR
C) TROPIC OF CAPRICORN
D) ANTARCTIC CIRCLE
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
Q204. WHICH ACT INTRODUCED PROVINCIAL AUTONOMY IN INDIA?
A. CHARTER ACT 1833
B. INDIAN COUNCILS ACT 1909
C. GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT 1919
D. GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT 1935
ANSWER: D. GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT 1935
EXPLANATION:
PROVINCIAL AUTONOMY WAS INTRODUCED UNDER THE GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT 1935.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC 107: CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY
Q205. WHO WAS THE TEMPORARY CHAIRMAN OF THE CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY?
A. DR. RAJENDRA PRASAD
B. SACHCHIDANANDA SINHA
C. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
D. B. R. AMBEDKAR
ANSWER: B. SACHCHIDANANDA SINHA
EXPLANATION:
DR. SACHCHIDANANDA SINHA WAS THE TEMPORARY CHAIRMAN OF THE CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
Q206. WHO WAS THE PERMANENT CHAIRMAN (PRESIDENT) OF THE CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY?
A. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
B. B. N. RAU
C. DR. RAJENDRA PRASAD
D. SARDAR PATEL
ANSWER: C. DR. RAJENDRA PRASAD
EXPLANATION:
DR. RAJENDRA PRASAD SERVED AS THE PRESIDENT OF THE CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC 108: COMMITTEES OF CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY
Q207. WHO WAS THE CHAIRMAN OF THE DRAFTING COMMITTEE?
A. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
B. DR. B. R. AMBEDKAR
C. RAJENDRA PRASAD
D. SARDAR PATEL
ANSWER: B. DR. B. R. AMBEDKAR
EXPLANATION:
DR. B. R. AMBEDKAR WAS THE CHAIRMAN OF THE DRAFTING COMMITTEE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2023
Q208. WHICH COMMITTEE WAS HEADED BY SARDAR VALLABHBHAI PATEL?
A. DRAFTING COMMITTEE
B. UNION POWERS COMMITTEE
C. ADVISORY COMMITTEE ON FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
D. FINANCE COMMITTEE
ANSWER: C. ADVISORY COMMITTEE ON FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
EXPLANATION:
SARDAR PATEL CHAIRED THE ADVISORY COMMITTEE ON FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS AND MINORITIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC 109: UNION AND ITS TERRITORY
Q209. WHICH ARTICLE DEFINES INDIA AS A UNION OF STATES?
A. ARTICLE 1
B. ARTICLE 2
C. ARTICLE 3
D. ARTICLE 4
ANSWER: A. ARTICLE 1
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 1 STATES THAT INDIA SHALL BE A UNION OF STATES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
Q210. PARLIAMENT HAS THE POWER TO ALTER BOUNDARIES OF STATES UNDER WHICH ARTICLE?
A. ARTICLE 2
B. ARTICLE 3
C. ARTICLE 4
D. ARTICLE 5
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 3
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 3 EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO ALTER STATE BOUNDARIES AND NAMES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC 110: CITIZENSHIP
Q211. CITIZENSHIP PROVISIONS ARE INCLUDED IN WHICH PART OF THE CONSTITUTION?
A. PART I
B. PART II
C. PART III
D. PART IV
ANSWER: B. PART II
EXPLANATION:
CITIZENSHIP PROVISIONS ARE CONTAINED IN PART II OF THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
Q212. WHICH ARTICLES DEAL WITH CITIZENSHIP?
A. ARTICLES 1–4
B. ARTICLES 5–11
C. ARTICLES 12–35
D. ARTICLES 36–51
ANSWER: B. ARTICLES 5–11
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLES 5 TO 11 DEAL WITH CITIZENSHIP AT THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC 111: IMPORTANT CONSTITUTIONAL FEATURES
Q213. WHICH FEATURE OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION IS BORROWED FROM THE USA?
A. PARLIAMENTARY SYSTEM
B. FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
C. RULE OF LAW
D. CABINET SYSTEM
ANSWER: B. FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
EXPLANATION:
THE CONCEPT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS WAS BORROWED FROM THE CONSTITUTION OF THE USA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
Q214. WHICH FEATURE IS BORROWED FROM THE BRITISH CONSTITUTION?
A. JUDICIAL REVIEW
B. FEDERALISM
C. PARLIAMENTARY GOVERNMENT
D. DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES
ANSWER: C. PARLIAMENTARY GOVERNMENT
EXPLANATION:
INDIA ADOPTED THE PARLIAMENTARY SYSTEM FROM BRITAIN.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC 112: MISCELLANEOUS CONSTITUTION PYQS
Q215. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH AMENDMENT OF THE CONSTITUTION?
A. ARTICLE 352
B. ARTICLE 356
C. ARTICLE 360
D. ARTICLE 368
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 368
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 368 CONTAINS THE PROCEDURE FOR AMENDMENT OF THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2019
SSC GD 2022
Q216. WHICH PART OF THE CONSTITUTION CANNOT BE AMENDED ACCORDING TO THE BASIC STRUCTURE DOCTRINE?
A. FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS ONLY
B. DPSP ONLY
C. BASIC STRUCTURE
D. PREAMBLE ONLY
ANSWER: C. BASIC STRUCTURE
EXPLANATION:
THE SUPREME COURT RULED THAT THE BASIC STRUCTURE OF THE CONSTITUTION CANNOT BE AMENDED.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC 113: FREQUENTLY REPEATED SSC CONSTITUTION QUESTIONS
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTION 31
WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH AMENDMENT OF THE CONSTITUTION?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 368
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2021
SSC MTS 2023
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTION 32
WHICH ARTICLE IS CALLED THE HEART AND SOUL OF THE CONSTITUTION?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 32
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC MTS 2023
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTION 33
WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT IS KNOWN AS THE MINI CONSTITUTION?
ANSWER: 42ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2018
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
TOPIC 114: ANTI-DEFECTION LAW
Q217. ANTI-DEFECTION PROVISIONS ARE INCLUDED IN WHICH SCHEDULE OF THE CONSTITUTION?
A. NINTH SCHEDULE
B. TENTH SCHEDULE
C. ELEVENTH SCHEDULE
D. TWELFTH SCHEDULE
ANSWER: B. TENTH SCHEDULE
EXPLANATION:
THE ANTI-DEFECTION LAW IS INCLUDED IN THE TENTH SCHEDULE OF THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2022
Q218. ANTI-DEFECTION LAW WAS ADDED BY WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT?
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 44TH AMENDMENT
C. 52ND AMENDMENT
D. 61ST AMENDMENT
ANSWER: C. 52ND AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 52ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1985 ADDED ANTI-DEFECTION PROVISIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC 115: CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES AND PIL
Q219. PUBLIC INTEREST LITIGATION (PIL) IS DIRECTLY RELATED TO WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 32
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 32
EXPLANATION:
PIL IS LINKED TO THE RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES UNDER ARTICLE 32.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
Q220. WHICH WRIT LITERALLY MEANS “PRODUCE THE BODY”?
A. MANDAMUS
B. HABEAS CORPUS
C. CERTIORARI
D. PROHIBITION
ANSWER: B. HABEAS CORPUS
EXPLANATION:
HABEAS CORPUS IS ISSUED TO PRODUCE A DETAINED PERSON BEFORE THE COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC 116: CONSTITUTIONAL OFFICES
Q221. WHO ADMINISTERS OATH TO THE VICE PRESIDENT OF INDIA?
A. PRESIDENT
B. CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA
C. PRIME MINISTER
D. SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA
ANSWER: A. PRESIDENT
EXPLANATION:
THE PRESIDENT ADMINISTERS OATH TO THE VICE PRESIDENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
Q222. THE RESIGNATION LETTER OF THE VICE PRESIDENT IS ADDRESSED TO WHOM?
A. PRIME MINISTER
B. PRESIDENT
C. CHIEF JUSTICE
D. SPEAKER
ANSWER: B. PRESIDENT
EXPLANATION:
THE VICE PRESIDENT SUBMITS RESIGNATION TO THE PRESIDENT OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC 117: PARLIAMENT SESSIONS AND PROCEDURES
Q223. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM GAP ALLOWED BETWEEN TWO SESSIONS OF PARLIAMENT?
A. 3 MONTHS
B. 6 MONTHS
C. 9 MONTHS
D. 12 MONTHS
ANSWER: B. 6 MONTHS
EXPLANATION:
THERE SHOULD NOT BE MORE THAN SIX MONTHS GAP BETWEEN TWO SESSIONS OF PARLIAMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2022
Q224. JOINT SITTING OF PARLIAMENT IS MENTIONED IN WHICH ARTICLE?
A. ARTICLE 108
B. ARTICLE 110
C. ARTICLE 112
D. ARTICLE 123
ANSWER: A. ARTICLE 108
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 108 PROVIDES FOR JOINT SITTING OF LOK SABHA AND RAJYA SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC 118: ORDINANCE MAKING POWER
Q225. WHICH ARTICLE GIVES ORDINANCE-MAKING POWER TO THE PRESIDENT?
A. ARTICLE 110
B. ARTICLE 112
C. ARTICLE 123
D. ARTICLE 143
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 123
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 123 EMPOWERS THE PRESIDENT TO PROMULGATE ORDINANCES.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
Q226. GOVERNOR’S ORDINANCE-MAKING POWER IS PROVIDED UNDER WHICH ARTICLE?
A. ARTICLE 153
B. ARTICLE 161
C. ARTICLE 200
D. ARTICLE 213
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 213
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 213 GIVES ORDINANCE-MAKING POWER TO THE GOVERNOR.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC 119: CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES AND AUTHORITIES
Q227. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH ELECTION COMMISSION?
A. ARTICLE 280
B. ARTICLE 300A
C. ARTICLE 315
D. ARTICLE 324
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 324
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 324 PROVIDES FOR THE ELECTION COMMISSION OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
Q228. WHICH BODY IS RESPONSIBLE FOR DELIMITATION OF CONSTITUENCIES?
A. FINANCE COMMISSION
B. DELIMITATION COMMISSION
C. UPSC
D. ELECTION COMMISSION
ANSWER: B. DELIMITATION COMMISSION
EXPLANATION:
THE DELIMITATION COMMISSION REDRAWS CONSTITUENCY BOUNDARIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC 120: CONSTITUTIONAL CONCEPTS
Q229. WHAT IS MEANT BY SECULAR STATE?
A. STATE RELIGION EXISTS
B. RELIGION CONTROLS GOVERNMENT
C. EQUAL RESPECT FOR ALL RELIGIONS
D. RULE BY RELIGIOUS LEADERS
ANSWER: C. EQUAL RESPECT FOR ALL RELIGIONS
EXPLANATION:
A SECULAR STATE TREATS ALL RELIGIONS EQUALLY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2022
Q230. INDIA IS DESCRIBED AS A REPUBLIC BECAUSE:
A. IT HAS STATES
B. IT HAS PARLIAMENT
C. HEAD OF STATE IS ELECTED
D. IT FOLLOWS FEDERALISM
ANSWER: C. HEAD OF STATE IS ELECTED
EXPLANATION:
INDIA IS A REPUBLIC BECAUSE THE PRESIDENT IS ELECTED.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC 121: IMPORTANT CONSTITUTIONAL CASES
Q231. WHICH CASE ESTABLISHED THE BASIC STRUCTURE DOCTRINE?
A. GOLAKNATH CASE
B. KESAVANANDA BHARATI CASE
C. MINERVA MILLS CASE
D. SHANKARI PRASAD CASE
ANSWER: B. KESAVANANDA BHARATI CASE
EXPLANATION:
THE BASIC STRUCTURE DOCTRINE WAS ESTABLISHED IN THE KESAVANANDA BHARATI CASE (1973).
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2022
Q232. IN WHICH CASE WAS JUDICIAL REVIEW DECLARED PART OF BASIC STRUCTURE?
A. GOLAKNATH CASE
B. KESAVANANDA BHARATI CASE
C. MINERVA MILLS CASE
D. BERUBARI CASE
ANSWER: C. MINERVA MILLS CASE
EXPLANATION:
THE MINERVA MILLS CASE STRENGTHENED THE BASIC STRUCTURE DOCTRINE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC 122: MISCELLANEOUS CONSTITUTION TOPICS
Q233. WHICH SCHEDULE CONTAINS LAWS PROTECTED FROM JUDICIAL REVIEW?
A. EIGHTH SCHEDULE
B. NINTH SCHEDULE
C. TENTH SCHEDULE
D. ELEVENTH SCHEDULE
ANSWER: B. NINTH SCHEDULE
EXPLANATION:
THE NINTH SCHEDULE CONTAINS LAWS PROTECTED FROM JUDICIAL REVIEW UNDER CERTAIN CONDITIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
Q234. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ADDED THE NINTH SCHEDULE?
A. FIRST AMENDMENT
B. SEVENTH AMENDMENT
C. 24TH AMENDMENT
D. 42ND AMENDMENT
ANSWER: A. FIRST AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE NINTH SCHEDULE WAS ADDED BY THE FIRST CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1951.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC 123: FREQUENTLY REPEATED SSC CONSTITUTION QUESTIONS
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTION 34
WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 32
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2021
SSC MTS 2023
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTION 35
WHICH AMENDMENT INTRODUCED PANCHAYATI RAJ?
ANSWER: 73RD CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC MTS 2023
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTION 36
WHICH CASE ESTABLISHED BASIC STRUCTURE DOCTRINE?
ANSWER: KESAVANANDA BHARATI CASE
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2019
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q235. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO FORM A NEW STATE?
A. ARTICLE 1
B. ARTICLE 2
C. ARTICLE 3
D. ARTICLE 4
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 3
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 3 EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO CREATE NEW STATES AND ALTER BOUNDARIES, NAMES, OR AREAS OF EXISTING STATES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q236. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH ADMISSION OR ESTABLISHMENT OF NEW STATES?
A. ARTICLE 1
B. ARTICLE 2
C. ARTICLE 3
D. ARTICLE 5
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 2
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 2 EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO ADMIT OR ESTABLISH NEW STATES INTO THE UNION OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 124: OFFICIAL LANGUAGE AND REGIONAL LANGUAGES
Q237. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH THE OFFICIAL LANGUAGE OF THE UNION?
A. ARTICLE 340
B. ARTICLE 343
C. ARTICLE 345
D. ARTICLE 348
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 343
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 343 DECLARES HINDI IN DEVANAGARI SCRIPT AS THE OFFICIAL LANGUAGE OF THE UNION.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q238. WHICH LANGUAGE WAS ORIGINALLY ADOPTED FOR OFFICIAL PURPOSES FOR 15 YEARS AFTER COMMENCEMENT OF THE CONSTITUTION?
A. HINDI
B. SANSKRIT
C. URDU
D. ENGLISH
ANSWER: D. ENGLISH
EXPLANATION:
ENGLISH WAS TO CONTINUE FOR OFFICIAL PURPOSES FOR 15 YEARS FROM 1950.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 125: SCHEDULED AREAS AND TRIBAL AREAS
Q239. WHICH SCHEDULE DEALS WITH SCHEDULED AREAS AND SCHEDULED TRIBES?
A. FOURTH SCHEDULE
B. FIFTH SCHEDULE
C. SIXTH SCHEDULE
D. SEVENTH SCHEDULE
ANSWER: B. FIFTH SCHEDULE
EXPLANATION:
THE FIFTH SCHEDULE DEALS WITH ADMINISTRATION AND CONTROL OF SCHEDULED AREAS AND SCHEDULED TRIBES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q240. WHICH SCHEDULE DEALS WITH TRIBAL AREAS IN ASSAM, MEGHALAYA, TRIPURA, AND MIZORAM?
A. FIFTH SCHEDULE
B. SIXTH SCHEDULE
C. SEVENTH SCHEDULE
D. EIGHTH SCHEDULE
ANSWER: B. SIXTH SCHEDULE
EXPLANATION:
THE SIXTH SCHEDULE CONTAINS PROVISIONS FOR TRIBAL ADMINISTRATION IN NORTHEASTERN STATES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2021
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 126: CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENTS LESS COVERED PYQS
Q241. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT IS RELATED TO ANTI-DEFECTION LAW?
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 44TH AMENDMENT
C. 52ND AMENDMENT
D. 61ST AMENDMENT
ANSWER: C. 52ND AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 52ND AMENDMENT ACT INTRODUCED ANTI-DEFECTION PROVISIONS IN THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q242. WHICH AMENDMENT ADDED PART IVA TO THE CONSTITUTION?
A. 24TH AMENDMENT
B. 42ND AMENDMENT
C. 44TH AMENDMENT
D. 73RD AMENDMENT
ANSWER: B. 42ND AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
PART IVA DEALING WITH FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES WAS ADDED BY THE 42ND AMENDMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 127: SUPREME COURT ADVANCED QUESTIONS
Q243. WHO CAN REMOVE A SUPREME COURT JUDGE?
A. PRESIDENT ALONE
B. PARLIAMENT ALONE
C. PRESIDENT ON PARLIAMENT’S RECOMMENDATION
D. CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA
ANSWER: C. PRESIDENT ON PARLIAMENT’S RECOMMENDATION
EXPLANATION:
A SUPREME COURT JUDGE IS REMOVED BY THE PRESIDENT AFTER PARLIAMENT PASSES AN IMPEACHMENT MOTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q244. WHAT IS THE RETIREMENT AGE OF SUPREME COURT JUDGES?
A. 60 YEARS
B. 62 YEARS
C. 65 YEARS
D. 70 YEARS
ANSWER: C. 65 YEARS
EXPLANATION:
JUDGES OF THE SUPREME COURT RETIRE AT THE AGE OF 65 YEARS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 128: HIGH COURT ADVANCED QUESTIONS
Q245. WHAT IS THE RETIREMENT AGE OF HIGH COURT JUDGES?
A. 60 YEARS
B. 62 YEARS
C. 65 YEARS
D. 68 YEARS
ANSWER: B. 62 YEARS
EXPLANATION:
JUDGES OF HIGH COURTS RETIRE AT THE AGE OF 62 YEARS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q246. WHO APPOINTS THE CHIEF JUSTICE OF A HIGH COURT?
A. PRIME MINISTER
B. GOVERNOR
C. PRESIDENT
D. SUPREME COURT
ANSWER: C. PRESIDENT
EXPLANATION:
THE CHIEF JUSTICE OF A HIGH COURT IS APPOINTED BY THE PRESIDENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 129: CENTRE-STATE ADMINISTRATIVE RELATIONS
Q247. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH CONTROL OF THE UNION OVER STATES IN CERTAIN CASES?
A. ARTICLE 256
B. ARTICLE 263
C. ARTICLE 280
D. ARTICLE 300A
ANSWER: A. ARTICLE 256
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 256 DEALS WITH OBLIGATIONS OF STATES AND CONTROL OF THE UNION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q248. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES FOR INTER-STATE COUNCIL?
A. ARTICLE 249
B. ARTICLE 252
C. ARTICLE 263
D. ARTICLE 280
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 263
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 263 PROVIDES FOR THE ESTABLISHMENT OF AN INTER-STATE COUNCIL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 130: MISCELLANEOUS LESS-COVERED CONSTITUTION PYQS
Q249. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH UNIFORM CIVIL CODE?
A. ARTICLE 40
B. ARTICLE 44
C. ARTICLE 48
D. ARTICLE 50
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 44
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 44 DIRECTS THE STATE TO SECURE A UNIFORM CIVIL CODE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q250. WHICH ARTICLE SEPARATES JUDICIARY FROM EXECUTIVE?
A. ARTICLE 44
B. ARTICLE 48A
C. ARTICLE 49
D. ARTICLE 50
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 50
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 50 DIRECTS SEPARATION OF JUDICIARY FROM EXECUTIVE IN PUBLIC SERVICES.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 131: EMERGENCY PROVISIONS ADVANCED QUESTIONS
Q251. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS ARE AUTOMATICALLY SUSPENDED DURING NATIONAL EMERGENCY UNDER ARTICLE 359?
A. ALL FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
B. RIGHTS UNDER ARTICLE 19
C. RIGHTS MENTIONED IN PRESIDENTIAL ORDER
D. ONLY RIGHT TO EQUALITY
ANSWER: C. RIGHTS MENTIONED IN PRESIDENTIAL ORDER
EXPLANATION:
UNDER ARTICLE 359, THE PRESIDENT MAY SUSPEND THE ENFORCEMENT OF SPECIFIED FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS DURING EMERGENCY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q252. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT CANNOT BE SUSPENDED EVEN DURING EMERGENCY?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 20 AND 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 20 AND 21
EXPLANATION:
AFTER THE 44TH AMENDMENT, RIGHTS UNDER ARTICLES 20 AND 21 CANNOT BE SUSPENDED DURING EMERGENCY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 132: CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENTS ADVANCED PYQS
Q253. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT REDUCED THE VOTING AGE FROM 21 YEARS TO 18 YEARS?
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 44TH AMENDMENT
C. 52ND AMENDMENT
D. 61ST AMENDMENT
ANSWER: D. 61ST AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 61ST CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1988 REDUCED VOTING AGE TO 18 YEARS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q254. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ADDED THE WORDS “SOCIALIST” AND “SECULAR” TO THE PREAMBLE?
A. 24TH AMENDMENT
B. 42ND AMENDMENT
C. 44TH AMENDMENT
D. 52ND AMENDMENT
ANSWER: B. 42ND AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 42ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ADDED SOCIALIST AND SECULAR TO THE PREAMBLE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 133: ELECTION AND VOTING SYSTEM
Q255. WHICH SYSTEM OF VOTING IS FOLLOWED IN LOK SABHA ELECTIONS?
A. PROPORTIONAL REPRESENTATION
B. SINGLE TRANSFERABLE VOTE
C. FIRST PAST THE POST SYSTEM
D. LIST SYSTEM
ANSWER: C. FIRST PAST THE POST SYSTEM
EXPLANATION:
INDIA FOLLOWS THE FIRST PAST THE POST ELECTORAL SYSTEM FOR LOK SABHA ELECTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q256. ELECTION OF THE PRESIDENT OF INDIA IS CONDUCTED BY WHICH SYSTEM?
A. DIRECT ELECTION
B. PROPORTIONAL REPRESENTATION BY SINGLE TRANSFERABLE VOTE
C. FIRST PAST THE POST
D. OPEN BALLOT SYSTEM
ANSWER: B. PROPORTIONAL REPRESENTATION BY SINGLE TRANSFERABLE VOTE
EXPLANATION:
THE PRESIDENT IS ELECTED THROUGH PROPORTIONAL REPRESENTATION USING SINGLE TRANSFERABLE VOTE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2021
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 134: GOVERNOR AND STATE EXECUTIVE
Q257. WHO APPOINTS THE GOVERNOR OF A STATE?
A. PRIME MINISTER
B. PRESIDENT
C. CHIEF MINISTER
D. PARLIAMENT
ANSWER: B. PRESIDENT
EXPLANATION:
THE GOVERNOR OF A STATE IS APPOINTED BY THE PRESIDENT OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2023
Q258. THE GOVERNOR HOLDS OFFICE FOR A TERM OF:
A. 3 YEARS
B. 4 YEARS
C. 5 YEARS
D. 6 YEARS
ANSWER: C. 5 YEARS
EXPLANATION:
THE GOVERNOR NORMALLY HOLDS OFFICE FOR FIVE YEARS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 135: CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES ADVANCED PYQS
Q259. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL BODY CONDUCTS RECRUITMENT FOR ALL INDIA SERVICES?
A. ELECTION COMMISSION
B. FINANCE COMMISSION
C. UPSC
D. NITI AAYOG
ANSWER: C. UPSC
EXPLANATION:
UPSC CONDUCTS EXAMINATIONS FOR ALL INDIA SERVICES AND CENTRAL SERVICES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q260. WHICH BODY RECOMMENDS DISTRIBUTION OF TAXES BETWEEN CENTRE AND STATES?
A. ELECTION COMMISSION
B. FINANCE COMMISSION
C. UPSC
D. CAG
ANSWER: B. FINANCE COMMISSION
EXPLANATION:
THE FINANCE COMMISSION RECOMMENDS TAX DISTRIBUTION BETWEEN UNION AND STATES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 136: FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES LESS-COVERED PYQS
Q261. FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES ARE INSPIRED BY THE CONSTITUTION OF WHICH COUNTRY?
A. USA
B. UK
C. RUSSIA (USSR)
D. FRANCE
ANSWER: C. RUSSIA (USSR)
EXPLANATION:
THE CONCEPT OF FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES WAS BORROWED FROM THE SOVIET CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q262. WHICH COMMITTEE RECOMMENDED INCLUSION OF FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES?
A. SARKARIA COMMITTEE
B. BALWANT RAI MEHTA COMMITTEE
C. SWARAN SINGH COMMITTEE
D. PUNCHHI COMMISSION
ANSWER: C. SWARAN SINGH COMMITTEE
EXPLANATION:
THE SWARAN SINGH COMMITTEE RECOMMENDED FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 137: SCHEDULES OF THE CONSTITUTION
Q263. WHICH SCHEDULE CONTAINS ALLOCATION OF SEATS IN RAJYA SABHA?
A. THIRD SCHEDULE
B. FOURTH SCHEDULE
C. FIFTH SCHEDULE
D. SIXTH SCHEDULE
ANSWER: B. FOURTH SCHEDULE
EXPLANATION:
THE FOURTH SCHEDULE DEALS WITH ALLOCATION OF RAJYA SABHA SEATS TO STATES AND UNION TERRITORIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q264. WHICH SCHEDULE CONTAINS FORMS OF OATH AND AFFIRMATIONS?
A. FIRST SCHEDULE
B. SECOND SCHEDULE
C. THIRD SCHEDULE
D. FOURTH SCHEDULE
ANSWER: C. THIRD SCHEDULE
EXPLANATION:
THE THIRD SCHEDULE CONTAINS OATHS AND AFFIRMATIONS FOR CONSTITUTIONAL OFFICES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 138: IMPORTANT CONSTITUTIONAL TERMS
Q265. WHAT IS “RULE OF LAW”?
A. RULE BY MILITARY
B. RULE BY PARLIAMENT ONLY
C. EQUALITY BEFORE LAW
D. RULE BY JUDICIARY ONLY
ANSWER: C. EQUALITY BEFORE LAW
EXPLANATION:
RULE OF LAW MEANS EQUALITY BEFORE LAW AND ABSENCE OF ARBITRARY POWER.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q266. WHICH FEATURE ENSURES INDEPENDENCE OF JUDICIARY IN INDIA?
A. SINGLE CITIZENSHIP
B. JUDICIAL REVIEW
C. PARLIAMENTARY SOVEREIGNTY
D. COLLECTIVE RESPONSIBILITY
ANSWER: B. JUDICIAL REVIEW
EXPLANATION:
JUDICIAL REVIEW HELPS COURTS PROTECT THE CONSTITUTION AND MAINTAIN JUDICIAL INDEPENDENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 139: REPEATED SSC CONSTITUTION PYQS
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTION 37
WHICH ARTICLE ABOLISHES UNTOUCHABILITY?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 17
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2021
SSC MTS 2023
SSC CGL 2023
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTION 38
WHICH AMENDMENT INTRODUCED FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES?
ANSWER: 42ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC MTS 2023
SSC CPO 2020
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTION 39
WHICH CASE ESTABLISHED BASIC STRUCTURE DOCTRINE?
ANSWER: KESAVANANDA BHARATI CASE
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC CPO 2021
TOPIC 141: PARLIAMENTARY PRIVILEGES
Q269. PARLIAMENTARY PRIVILEGES ARE MENTIONED IN WHICH ARTICLE?
A. ARTICLE 85
B. ARTICLE 105
C. ARTICLE 110
D. ARTICLE 123
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 105
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 105 DEALS WITH POWERS, PRIVILEGES, AND IMMUNITIES OF PARLIAMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q270. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH POWERS AND PRIVILEGES OF STATE LEGISLATURES?
A. ARTICLE 168
B. ARTICLE 194
C. ARTICLE 200
D. ARTICLE 213
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 194
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 194 PROVIDES POWERS AND PRIVILEGES TO STATE LEGISLATURES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 142: MONEY BILL AND FINANCIAL BILLS
Q271. WHO DECIDES WHETHER A BILL IS A MONEY BILL?
A. PRESIDENT
B. PRIME MINISTER
C. SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA
D. RAJYA SABHA CHAIRMAN
ANSWER: C. SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA
EXPLANATION:
THE SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA CERTIFIES WHETHER A BILL IS A MONEY BILL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2023
Q272. RAJYA SABHA CAN DELAY A MONEY BILL FOR A MAXIMUM PERIOD OF:
A. 7 DAYS
B. 14 DAYS
C. 1 MONTH
D. 6 MONTHS
ANSWER: B. 14 DAYS
EXPLANATION:
RAJYA SABHA CAN RETAIN A MONEY BILL FOR ONLY 14 DAYS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 143: PRIME MINISTER AND COUNCIL OF MINISTERS
Q273. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH COUNCIL OF MINISTERS AT THE CENTRE?
A. ARTICLE 52
B. ARTICLE 74
C. ARTICLE 76
D. ARTICLE 78
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 74
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 74 PROVIDES FOR A COUNCIL OF MINISTERS HEADED BY THE PRIME MINISTER.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q274. THE PRIME MINISTER IS APPOINTED BY WHOM?
A. PARLIAMENT
B. CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA
C. PRESIDENT
D. LOK SABHA SPEAKER
ANSWER: C. PRESIDENT
EXPLANATION:
THE PRESIDENT APPOINTS THE PRIME MINISTER.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 144: LOK SABHA AND RAJYA SABHA
Q275. MAXIMUM STRENGTH OF LOK SABHA ACCORDING TO CONSTITUTION IS:
A. 500
B. 525
C. 545
D. 552
ANSWER: D. 552
EXPLANATION:
THE CONSTITUTION PROVIDES A MAXIMUM STRENGTH OF 552 MEMBERS FOR LOK SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q276. RAJYA SABHA CAN HAVE A MAXIMUM STRENGTH OF:
A. 200
B. 238
C. 250
D. 275
ANSWER: C. 250
EXPLANATION:
THE MAXIMUM STRENGTH OF RAJYA SABHA IS 250 MEMBERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 145: IMPORTANT CONSTITUTIONAL ARTICLES
Q277. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH ABOLITION OF UNTOUCHABILITY?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 15
C. ARTICLE 16
D. ARTICLE 17
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 17
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 17 ABOLISHES UNTOUCHABILITY IN ALL FORMS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2023
Q278. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH PROHIBITION OF HUMAN TRAFFICKING AND FORCED LABOUR?
A. ARTICLE 21
B. ARTICLE 22
C. ARTICLE 23
D. ARTICLE 24
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 23
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 23 PROHIBITS TRAFFICKING IN HUMAN BEINGS AND FORCED LABOUR.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 146: CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES LESS-COVERED PYQS
Q279. WHICH BODY AUDITS GOVERNMENT EXPENDITURE?
A. UPSC
B. ELECTION COMMISSION
C. FINANCE COMMISSION
D. CAG
ANSWER: D. CAG
EXPLANATION:
THE COMPTROLLER AND AUDITOR GENERAL AUDITS GOVERNMENT ACCOUNTS AND EXPENDITURE.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q280. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL BODY CONDUCTS ELECTIONS IN INDIA?
A. UPSC
B. ELECTION COMMISSION
C. FINANCE COMMISSION
D. NITI AAYOG
ANSWER: B. ELECTION COMMISSION
EXPLANATION:
THE ELECTION COMMISSION SUPERVISES ELECTIONS TO PARLIAMENT AND STATE LEGISLATURES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 147: JUDICIARY AND JUDICIAL REVIEW
Q281. JUDICIAL REVIEW IN INDIA IS BORROWED FROM WHICH COUNTRY?
A. UK
B. USA
C. CANADA
D. IRELAND
ANSWER: B. USA
EXPLANATION:
INDIA ADOPTED THE CONCEPT OF JUDICIAL REVIEW FROM THE USA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q282. WHICH COURT ACTS AS THE GUARDIAN OF THE CONSTITUTION?
A. HIGH COURT
B. PARLIAMENT
C. SUPREME COURT
D. PRESIDENT
ANSWER: C. SUPREME COURT
EXPLANATION:
THE SUPREME COURT PROTECTS AND INTERPRETS THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 148: IMPORTANT CONSTITUTIONAL TERMS
Q283. WHAT IS MEANT BY “UNIVERSAL ADULT FRANCHISE”?
A. VOTING BY EDUCATED CITIZENS ONLY
B. VOTING RIGHTS TO ALL ADULTS
C. VOTING BY TAXPAYERS ONLY
D. VOTING BY PARLIAMENT ONLY
ANSWER: B. VOTING RIGHTS TO ALL ADULTS
EXPLANATION:
UNIVERSAL ADULT FRANCHISE MEANS EVERY ADULT CITIZEN HAS THE RIGHT TO VOTE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2023
Q284. WHICH PART OF THE CONSTITUTION DEALS WITH FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES?
A. PART III
B. PART IVA
C. PART IV
D. PART V
ANSWER: B. PART IVA
EXPLANATION:
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES ARE INCLUDED IN PART IVA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 149: FREQUENTLY REPEATED SSC CONSTITUTION QUESTIONS
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTION 40
WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES RIGHT TO FREEDOM?
ANSWER: ARTICLES 19 TO 22
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC MTS 2023
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTION 41
WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 32
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2019
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC CGL 2023
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTION 42
WHICH AMENDMENT REDUCED VOTING AGE TO 18 YEARS?
ANSWER: 61ST CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 150: FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS AND MINORITY RIGHTS
Q285. WHICH ARTICLE GRANTS MINORITIES THE RIGHT TO ESTABLISH AND ADMINISTER EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS?
A. ARTICLE 28
B. ARTICLE 29
C. ARTICLE 30
D. ARTICLE 32
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 30
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 30 GIVES MINORITIES THE RIGHT TO ESTABLISH AND ADMINISTER EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS OF THEIR CHOICE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q286. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS INTERESTS OF MINORITIES?
A. ARTICLE 25
B. ARTICLE 27
C. ARTICLE 29
D. ARTICLE 31
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 29
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 29 PROTECTS LANGUAGE, SCRIPT, AND CULTURE OF MINORITIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 151: FREEDOM OF RELIGION
Q287. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES FREEDOM OF CONSCIENCE AND FREE PROFESSION OF RELIGION?
A. ARTICLE 24
B. ARTICLE 25
C. ARTICLE 26
D. ARTICLE 27
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 25
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 25 GUARANTEES FREEDOM OF RELIGION TO ALL CITIZENS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q288. WHICH ARTICLE PROHIBITS RELIGIOUS INSTRUCTION IN STATE-FUNDED EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS?
A. ARTICLE 25
B. ARTICLE 26
C. ARTICLE 27
D. ARTICLE 28
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 28
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 28 PROHIBITS RELIGIOUS INSTRUCTION IN WHOLLY STATE-FUNDED INSTITUTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 152: DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY ADVANCED PYQS
Q289. WHICH ARTICLE DIRECTS THE STATE TO ORGANIZE VILLAGE PANCHAYATS?
A. ARTICLE 38
B. ARTICLE 39
C. ARTICLE 40
D. ARTICLE 44
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 40
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 40 DIRECTS THE STATE TO ORGANIZE VILLAGE PANCHAYATS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2023
Q290. WHICH ARTICLE DIRECTS THE STATE TO PROMOTE INTERNATIONAL PEACE AND SECURITY?
A. ARTICLE 44
B. ARTICLE 48A
C. ARTICLE 50
D. ARTICLE 51
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 51
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51 PROMOTES INTERNATIONAL PEACE AND SECURITY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 153: PRESIDENT AND EXECUTIVE POWERS
Q291. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH PARDONING POWER OF THE PRESIDENT?
A. ARTICLE 72
B. ARTICLE 74
C. ARTICLE 76
D. ARTICLE 78
ANSWER: A. ARTICLE 72
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 72 EMPOWERS THE PRESIDENT TO GRANT PARDONS AND REPRIEVES.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q292. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH DUTIES OF THE PRIME MINISTER?
A. ARTICLE 74
B. ARTICLE 75
C. ARTICLE 77
D. ARTICLE 78
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 78
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 78 DEFINES DUTIES OF THE PRIME MINISTER REGARDING COMMUNICATION WITH THE PRESIDENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 154: PARLIAMENT ADVANCED PYQS
Q293. WHO PRESIDES OVER A JOINT SITTING OF PARLIAMENT?
A. PRESIDENT
B. VICE PRESIDENT
C. SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA
D. CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA
ANSWER: C. SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA
EXPLANATION:
THE SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA PRESIDES OVER A JOINT SITTING OF PARLIAMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q294. WHICH HOUSE HAS MORE POWERS REGARDING MONEY BILLS?
A. RAJYA SABHA
B. LOK SABHA
C. BOTH HOUSES EQUALLY
D. PRESIDENT
ANSWER: B. LOK SABHA
EXPLANATION:
LOK SABHA HAS GREATER POWERS REGARDING MONEY BILLS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 155: SUPREME COURT AND HIGH COURT PYQS
Q295. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS HIGH COURTS TO ISSUE WRITS?
A. ARTICLE 32
B. ARTICLE 131
C. ARTICLE 136
D. ARTICLE 226
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 226
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 226 EMPOWERS HIGH COURTS TO ISSUE WRITS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2023
Q296. WHICH ARTICLE GIVES SPECIAL LEAVE PETITION POWER TO SUPREME COURT?
A. ARTICLE 131
B. ARTICLE 136
C. ARTICLE 141
D. ARTICLE 143
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 136
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 136 PROVIDES SPECIAL LEAVE PETITION POWERS TO THE SUPREME COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 156: CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENTS AND IMPORTANT FACTS
Q297. WHICH AMENDMENT MADE THE RIGHT TO EDUCATION A FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT?
A. 61ST AMENDMENT
B. 73RD AMENDMENT
C. 86TH AMENDMENT
D. 91ST AMENDMENT
ANSWER: C. 86TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 86TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT INSERTED ARTICLE 21A.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
- SSC GD 2023
Q298. WHICH AMENDMENT ADDED FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES?
A. 24TH AMENDMENT
B. 42ND AMENDMENT
C. 44TH AMENDMENT
D. 52ND AMENDMENT
ANSWER: B. 42ND AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES WERE INSERTED BY THE 42ND AMENDMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 157: MISCELLANEOUS CONSTITUTION QUESTIONS
Q299. WHO IS KNOWN AS THE “FATHER OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION”?
A. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
B. B. N. RAU
C. DR. B. R. AMBEDKAR
D. RAJENDRA PRASAD
ANSWER: C. DR. B. R. AMBEDKAR
EXPLANATION:
DR. B. R. AMBEDKAR WAS CHAIRMAN OF THE DRAFTING COMMITTEE AND IS KNOWN AS FATHER OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q300. THE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA CAME INTO FORCE ON:
A. 15 AUGUST 1947
B. 26 NOVEMBER 1949
C. 26 JANUARY 1950
D. 2 OCTOBER 1950
ANSWER: C. 26 JANUARY 1950
EXPLANATION:
THE CONSTITUTION CAME INTO FORCE ON 26 JANUARY 1950, CELEBRATED AS REPUBLIC DAY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 158: UNION TERRITORIES
Q301. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH ADMINISTRATION OF UNION TERRITORIES?
A. ARTICLE 153
B. ARTICLE 239
C. ARTICLE 280
D. ARTICLE 356
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 239
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 239 PROVIDES THAT UNION TERRITORIES SHALL BE ADMINISTERED BY THE PRESIDENT THROUGH AN ADMINISTRATOR.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q302. WHO ADMINISTERS A UNION TERRITORY ON BEHALF OF THE PRESIDENT?
A. GOVERNOR
B. CHIEF MINISTER
C. ADMINISTRATOR/LIEUTENANT GOVERNOR
D. CHIEF JUSTICE
ANSWER: C. ADMINISTRATOR/LIEUTENANT GOVERNOR
EXPLANATION:
UNION TERRITORIES ARE ADMINISTERED THROUGH ADMINISTRATORS OR LIEUTENANT GOVERNORS APPOINTED BY THE PRESIDENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 159: SPECIAL CONSTITUTIONAL PROVISIONS FOR STATES
Q303. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES SPECIAL STATUS PROVISIONS FOR SOME STATES?
A. ARTICLE 356
B. ARTICLE 360
C. ARTICLE 368
D. ARTICLE 371
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 371
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 371 CONTAINS SPECIAL PROVISIONS FOR SEVERAL STATES INCLUDING MAHARASHTRA, GUJARAT, NAGALAND, AND OTHERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q304. WHICH ARTICLE EARLIER GRANTED SPECIAL STATUS TO JAMMU AND KASHMIR?
A. ARTICLE 352
B. ARTICLE 356
C. ARTICLE 370
D. ARTICLE 371
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 370
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 370 PROVIDED SPECIAL AUTONOMOUS STATUS TO JAMMU AND KASHMIR BEFORE ITS EFFECTIVE ABROGATION IN 2019.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 160: COOPERATIVE SOCIETIES
Q305. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT GAVE CONSTITUTIONAL STATUS TO COOPERATIVE SOCIETIES?
A. 86TH AMENDMENT
B. 91ST AMENDMENT
C. 97TH AMENDMENT
D. 101ST AMENDMENT
ANSWER: C. 97TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 97TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ADDED PROVISIONS RELATED TO COOPERATIVE SOCIETIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2023
Q306. WHICH PART OF THE CONSTITUTION DEALS WITH COOPERATIVE SOCIETIES?
A. PART IX
B. PART IXA
C. PART IXB
D. PART X
ANSWER: C. PART IXB
EXPLANATION:
PART IXB DEALS WITH COOPERATIVE SOCIETIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 161: TRIBUNALS
Q307. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH ADMINISTRATIVE TRIBUNALS?
A. ARTICLE 300A
B. ARTICLE 312
C. ARTICLE 323A
D. ARTICLE 324
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 323A
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 323A PROVIDES FOR ADMINISTRATIVE TRIBUNALS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q308. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH TRIBUNALS FOR OTHER MATTERS?
A. ARTICLE 323A
B. ARTICLE 323B
C. ARTICLE 324
D. ARTICLE 326
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 323B
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 323B DEALS WITH TRIBUNALS FOR TAXATION, LABOUR DISPUTES, AND OTHER MATTERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 162: OFFICIAL LANGUAGE COMMISSION
Q309. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES FOR THE OFFICIAL LANGUAGE COMMISSION?
A. ARTICLE 343
B. ARTICLE 344
C. ARTICLE 345
D. ARTICLE 348
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 344
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 344 PROVIDES FOR THE OFFICIAL LANGUAGE COMMISSION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q310. WHICH SCRIPT IS USED FOR OFFICIAL HINDI LANGUAGE UNDER THE CONSTITUTION?
A. ROMAN
B. PERSIAN
C. DEVANAGARI
D. GURUMUKHI
ANSWER: C. DEVANAGARI
EXPLANATION:
HINDI IN DEVANAGARI SCRIPT IS THE OFFICIAL LANGUAGE OF THE UNION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 163: CONSTITUTIONAL AND NON-CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES
Q311. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A NON-CONSTITUTIONAL BODY?
A. UPSC
B. ELECTION COMMISSION
C. FINANCE COMMISSION
D. NITI AAYOG
ANSWER: D. NITI AAYOG
EXPLANATION:
NITI AAYOG IS A NON-CONSTITUTIONAL AND NON-STATUTORY BODY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2023
Q312. WHICH BODY REPLACED PLANNING COMMISSION?
A. FINANCE COMMISSION
B. NITI AAYOG
C. UPSC
D. GST COUNCIL
ANSWER: B. NITI AAYOG
EXPLANATION:
NITI AAYOG REPLACED THE PLANNING COMMISSION IN 2015.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 164: REMOVAL PROCEDURES
Q313. WHO CAN REMOVE THE GOVERNOR OF A STATE?
A. PARLIAMENT
B. CHIEF MINISTER
C. PRESIDENT
D. SUPREME COURT
ANSWER: C. PRESIDENT
EXPLANATION:
THE GOVERNOR HOLDS OFFICE DURING THE PLEASURE OF THE PRESIDENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q314. REMOVAL PROCEDURE OF CAG IS SIMILAR TO THAT OF:
A. PRIME MINISTER
B. GOVERNOR
C. SUPREME COURT JUDGE
D. ATTORNEY GENERAL
ANSWER: C. SUPREME COURT JUDGE
EXPLANATION:
THE CAG CAN BE REMOVED IN THE SAME MANNER AS A SUPREME COURT JUDGE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 165: CONSTITUTIONAL BORROWINGS ADVANCED
Q315. THE IDEA OF DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES WAS BORROWED FROM:
A. USA
B. IRELAND
C. CANADA
D. AUSTRALIA
ANSWER: B. IRELAND
EXPLANATION:
DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY WERE BORROWED FROM THE IRISH CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q316. EMERGENCY PROVISIONS IN THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION WERE BORROWED FROM:
A. GERMANY
B. USA
C. FRANCE
D. CANADA
ANSWER: A. GERMANY
EXPLANATION:
EMERGENCY PROVISIONS WERE INSPIRED BY THE WEIMAR CONSTITUTION OF GERMANY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 166: IMPORTANT COMMITTEES AND COMMISSIONS
Q317. WHICH COMMITTEE RECOMMENDED PANCHAYATI RAJ SYSTEM?
A. ASHOK MEHTA COMMITTEE
B. SARKARIA COMMISSION
C. BALWANT RAI MEHTA COMMITTEE
D. PUNCHHI COMMISSION
ANSWER: C. BALWANT RAI MEHTA COMMITTEE
EXPLANATION:
THE BALWANT RAI MEHTA COMMITTEE RECOMMENDED PANCHAYATI RAJ INSTITUTIONS IN 1957.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2023
Q318. WHICH COMMISSION STUDIED CENTRE-STATE RELATIONS?
A. SARKARIA COMMISSION
B. HUNTER COMMISSION
C. MANDAL COMMISSION
D. KOTHARI COMMISSION
ANSWER: A. SARKARIA COMMISSION
EXPLANATION:
THE SARKARIA COMMISSION EXAMINED CENTRE-STATE RELATIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 167: LOCAL GOVERNMENT ADVANCED QUESTIONS
Q319. WHICH BODY CONDUCTS ELECTIONS TO PANCHAYATS AND MUNICIPALITIES?
A. ELECTION COMMISSION OF INDIA
B. STATE ELECTION COMMISSION
C. UPSC
D. FINANCE COMMISSION
ANSWER: B. STATE ELECTION COMMISSION
EXPLANATION:
STATE ELECTION COMMISSION CONDUCTS LOCAL BODY ELECTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q320. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT PROVIDED CONSTITUTIONAL STATUS TO MUNICIPALITIES?
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 52ND AMENDMENT
C. 73RD AMENDMENT
D. 74TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER: D. 74TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 74TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT GAVE CONSTITUTIONAL STATUS TO URBAN LOCAL BODIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 168: GST AND TAXATION PROVISIONS
Q321. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT INTRODUCED GST IN INDIA?
A. 97TH AMENDMENT
B. 99TH AMENDMENT
C. 101ST AMENDMENT
D. 102ND AMENDMENT
ANSWER: C. 101ST AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 101ST CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT INTRODUCED THE GOODS AND SERVICES TAX (GST) SYSTEM IN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q322. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH GST COUNCIL?
A. ARTICLE 246
B. ARTICLE 269A
C. ARTICLE 279A
D. ARTICLE 300A
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 279A
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 279A PROVIDES FOR THE GST COUNCIL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 169: CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES COMPARISON
Q323. WHICH BODY ADVISES THE PRESIDENT ON DISTRIBUTION OF REVENUES BETWEEN CENTRE AND STATES?
A. UPSC
B. ELECTION COMMISSION
C. FINANCE COMMISSION
D. NITI AAYOG
ANSWER: C. FINANCE COMMISSION
EXPLANATION:
FINANCE COMMISSION RECOMMENDS TAX-SHARING ARRANGEMENTS BETWEEN UNION AND STATES.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q324. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL BODY CONDUCTS ELECTIONS IN INDIA?
A. UPSC
B. ELECTION COMMISSION
C. CAG
D. FINANCE COMMISSION
ANSWER: B. ELECTION COMMISSION
EXPLANATION:
THE ELECTION COMMISSION SUPERVISES ELECTIONS TO PARLIAMENT, STATE LEGISLATURES, AND CONSTITUTIONAL OFFICES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 170: JUDICIAL CONCEPTS
Q325. WHAT IS JUDICIAL ACTIVISM?
A. EXECUTIVE CONTROL OVER JUDICIARY
B. LEGISLATURE CONTROLLING COURTS
C. ACTIVE ROLE OF JUDICIARY IN PROTECTING RIGHTS
D. MILITARY CONTROL OVER JUDICIARY
ANSWER: C. ACTIVE ROLE OF JUDICIARY IN PROTECTING RIGHTS
EXPLANATION:
JUDICIAL ACTIVISM REFERS TO PROACTIVE JUDICIAL INTERPRETATION FOR PROTECTION OF RIGHTS AND JUSTICE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2023
Q326. WHAT IS JUDICIAL REVIEW?
A. REVIEW BY PARLIAMENT
B. REVIEW OF LAWS BY JUDICIARY
C. REVIEW BY EXECUTIVE
D. REVIEW OF ELECTIONS
ANSWER: B. REVIEW OF LAWS BY JUDICIARY
EXPLANATION:
JUDICIAL REVIEW ALLOWS COURTS TO EXAMINE CONSTITUTIONALITY OF LAWS AND EXECUTIVE ACTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 171: LOCAL GOVERNMENT LESS-COVERED PYQS
Q327. GRAM SABHA IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
A. PARLIAMENT
B. JUDICIARY
C. PANCHAYATI RAJ
D. ELECTION COMMISSION
ANSWER: C. PANCHAYATI RAJ
EXPLANATION:
GRAM SABHA IS THE BASIC VILLAGE ASSEMBLY IN PANCHAYATI RAJ SYSTEM.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q328. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT IS KNOWN AS THE “NAGARPALIKA ACT”?
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 52ND AMENDMENT
C. 73RD AMENDMENT
D. 74TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER: D. 74TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 74TH AMENDMENT ACT DEALS WITH MUNICIPALITIES AND URBAN LOCAL BODIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 172: CONSTITUTIONAL OFFICES COMPARISON
Q329. ATTORNEY GENERAL OF INDIA IS APPOINTED BY WHOM?
A. PRIME MINISTER
B. CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA
C. PRESIDENT
D. PARLIAMENT
ANSWER: C. PRESIDENT
EXPLANATION:
THE ATTORNEY GENERAL IS APPOINTED BY THE PRESIDENT UNDER ARTICLE 76.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q330. ADVOCATE GENERAL IS THE HIGHEST LEGAL OFFICER OF:
A. INDIA
B. SUPREME COURT
C. STATE GOVERNMENT
D. PARLIAMENT
ANSWER: C. STATE GOVERNMENT
EXPLANATION:
ADVOCATE GENERAL IS THE CHIEF LEGAL ADVISOR TO THE STATE GOVERNMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 173: IMPORTANT CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENTS
Q331. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT IS RELATED TO RIGHT TO EDUCATION?
A. 61ST AMENDMENT
B. 73RD AMENDMENT
C. 86TH AMENDMENT
D. 101ST AMENDMENT
ANSWER: C. 86TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 86TH AMENDMENT INSERTED ARTICLE 21A FOR RIGHT TO EDUCATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q332. WHICH AMENDMENT IS RELATED TO GST?
A. 91ST AMENDMENT
B. 97TH AMENDMENT
C. 101ST AMENDMENT
D. 103RD AMENDMENT
ANSWER: C. 101ST AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
GST WAS INTRODUCED THROUGH THE 101ST CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 174: CONSTITUTIONAL ARTICLES RAPID REVISION
Q333. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH EQUALITY BEFORE LAW?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 32
ANSWER: A. ARTICLE 14
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 14 GUARANTEES EQUALITY BEFORE LAW AND EQUAL PROTECTION OF LAWS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q334. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH PROTECTION OF LIFE AND PERSONAL LIBERTY?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 21
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 21 PROTECTS LIFE AND PERSONAL LIBERTY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 175: CONSTITUTIONAL TERMS AND CONCEPTS
Q335. WHAT IS MEANT BY “SECULARISM” IN INDIAN CONSTITUTION?
A. RULE BY RELIGION
B. STATE RELIGION
C. EQUAL RESPECT TO ALL RELIGIONS
D. RELIGIOUS DICTATORSHIP
ANSWER: C. EQUAL RESPECT TO ALL RELIGIONS
EXPLANATION:
INDIAN SECULARISM MEANS EQUAL TREATMENT OF ALL RELIGIONS BY THE STATE.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q336. INDIA IS CALLED A “REPUBLIC” BECAUSE:
A. IT HAS FEDERAL STRUCTURE
B. PRESIDENT IS ELECTED
C. IT HAS PARLIAMENT
D. IT HAS WRITTEN CONSTITUTION
ANSWER: B. PRESIDENT IS ELECTED
EXPLANATION:
INDIA IS A REPUBLIC BECAUSE ITS HEAD OF STATE IS ELECTED, NOT HEREDITARY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 176: FREQUENTLY REPEATED SSC CONSTITUTION PYQS
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTION 43
WHICH ARTICLE IS KNOWN AS THE HEART AND SOUL OF THE CONSTITUTION?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 32
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC MTS 2023
SSC CGL 2023
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTION 44
WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ADDED FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES?
ANSWER: 42ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
SSC CPO 2021
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTION 45
WHICH AMENDMENT LOWERED VOTING AGE TO 18 YEARS?
ANSWER: 61ST CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 177: NON-CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES
Q337. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A NON-CONSTITUTIONAL BODY?
A. ELECTION COMMISSION
B. UPSC
C. FINANCE COMMISSION
D. NATIONAL HUMAN RIGHTS COMMISSION (NHRC)
ANSWER: D. NATIONAL HUMAN RIGHTS COMMISSION (NHRC)
EXPLANATION:
NHRC IS A STATUTORY BODY ESTABLISHED UNDER THE PROTECTION OF HUMAN RIGHTS ACT, 1993.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q338. WHICH BODY INVESTIGATES CORRUPTION CASES AGAINST PUBLIC SERVANTS?
A. UPSC
B. CBI
C. FINANCE COMMISSION
D. ELECTION COMMISSION
ANSWER: B. CBI
EXPLANATION:
THE CENTRAL BUREAU OF INVESTIGATION (CBI) INVESTIGATES CORRUPTION AND MAJOR CRIMINAL CASES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 178: LOKPAL AND LOKAYUKTA
Q339. LOKPAL IS RELATED TO:
A. ELECTIONS
B. ANTI-CORRUPTION MECHANISM
C. DEFENCE ADMINISTRATION
D. TAX COLLECTION
ANSWER: B. ANTI-CORRUPTION MECHANISM
EXPLANATION:
LOKPAL IS AN ANTI-CORRUPTION OMBUDSMAN AT THE CENTRAL LEVEL.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q340. WHICH ACT ESTABLISHED LOKPAL IN INDIA?
A. RTI ACT
B. LOKPAL AND LOKAYUKTAS ACT, 2013
C. PREVENTION OF CORRUPTION ACT
D. HUMAN RIGHTS ACT
ANSWER: B. LOKPAL AND LOKAYUKTAS ACT, 2013
EXPLANATION:
THE LOKPAL INSTITUTION WAS ESTABLISHED THROUGH THE LOKPAL AND LOKAYUKTAS ACT, 2013.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 179: CENTRAL VIGILANCE AND INFORMATION COMMISSION
Q341. CENTRAL VIGILANCE COMMISSION (CVC) IS MAINLY ASSOCIATED WITH:
A. ELECTIONS
B. ANTI-CORRUPTION VIGILANCE
C. DEFENCE
D. JUDICIARY
ANSWER: B. ANTI-CORRUPTION VIGILANCE
EXPLANATION:
CVC SUPERVISES VIGILANCE ADMINISTRATION AND ANTI-CORRUPTION MEASURES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2023
Q342. WHICH ACT ESTABLISHED THE CENTRAL INFORMATION COMMISSION?
A. LOKPAL ACT
B. RTI ACT, 2005
C. HUMAN RIGHTS ACT
D. CONSUMER PROTECTION ACT
ANSWER: B. RTI ACT, 2005
EXPLANATION:
THE CENTRAL INFORMATION COMMISSION WAS ESTABLISHED UNDER THE RIGHT TO INFORMATION ACT, 2005.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 180: REVIEW AND CURATIVE PETITIONS
Q343. WHICH ARTICLE ALLOWS THE SUPREME COURT TO REVIEW ITS OWN JUDGMENT?
A. ARTICLE 131
B. ARTICLE 137
C. ARTICLE 141
D. ARTICLE 143
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 137
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 137 EMPOWERS THE SUPREME COURT TO REVIEW ITS JUDGMENTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q344. CURATIVE PETITION IS FILED AFTER DISMISSAL OF:
A. PIL
B. APPEAL
C. REVIEW PETITION
D. WRIT PETITION
ANSWER: C. REVIEW PETITION
EXPLANATION:
A CURATIVE PETITION IS THE FINAL JUDICIAL REMEDY AFTER A REVIEW PETITION IS DISMISSED.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 181: CONSTITUTIONAL BORROWINGS ADVANCED PYQS
Q345. THE IDEA OF CONCURRENT LIST IS BORROWED FROM:
A. USA
B. AUSTRALIA
C. CANADA
D. IRELAND
ANSWER: B. AUSTRALIA
EXPLANATION:
INDIA BORROWED THE CONCURRENT LIST CONCEPT FROM AUSTRALIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q346. THE CONCEPT OF A STRONG CENTRE IN FEDERATION IS BORROWED FROM:
A. USA
B. IRELAND
C. CANADA
D. GERMANY
ANSWER: C. CANADA
EXPLANATION:
INDIA BORROWED THE IDEA OF A STRONG CENTRE FROM CANADA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 182: PANCHAYATI RAJ ADVANCED QUESTIONS
Q347. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT PROVIDED CONSTITUTIONAL STATUS TO PANCHAYATS?
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 52ND AMENDMENT
C. 73RD AMENDMENT
D. 74TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER: C. 73RD AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 73RD AMENDMENT ACT CONSTITUTIONALIZED PANCHAYATI RAJ INSTITUTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2023
Q348. GRAM SABHA CONSISTS OF:
A. ELECTED PANCHAYAT MEMBERS ONLY
B. ALL REGISTERED VOTERS OF VILLAGE
C. GOVERNMENT OFFICIALS ONLY
D. MPS AND MLAS ONLY
ANSWER: B. ALL REGISTERED VOTERS OF VILLAGE
EXPLANATION:
GRAM SABHA INCLUDES ALL ADULT VOTERS REGISTERED IN A VILLAGE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 183: IMPORTANT CONSTITUTIONAL ARTICLES REVISION
Q349. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH FREEDOM OF SPEECH AND EXPRESSION?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 32
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 19
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19 GUARANTEES SIX FREEDOMS INCLUDING FREEDOM OF SPEECH AND EXPRESSION.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q350. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH ABOLITION OF TITLES?
A. ARTICLE 17
B. ARTICLE 18
C. ARTICLE 19
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 18
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 18 ABOLISHES TITLES EXCEPT MILITARY AND ACADEMIC DISTINCTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 184: MISCELLANEOUS CONSTITUTION PYQS
Q351. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT PROVIDED RESERVATION FOR ECONOMICALLY WEAKER SECTIONS (EWS)?
A. 97TH AMENDMENT
B. 99TH AMENDMENT
C. 101ST AMENDMENT
D. 103RD AMENDMENT
ANSWER: D. 103RD AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 103RD AMENDMENT INTRODUCED 10% RESERVATION FOR EWS CATEGORY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q352. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES CONSTITUTIONAL STATUS TO RIGHT TO EDUCATION?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 21A
C. ARTICLE 29
D. ARTICLE 45
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 21A
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 21A GUARANTEES FREE AND COMPULSORY EDUCATION FOR CHILDREN AGED 6–14 YEARS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 185: FREQUENTLY REPEATED SSC CONSTITUTION PYQS
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTION 46
WHICH SCHEDULE CONTAINS ANTI-DEFECTION LAW?
ANSWER: TENTH SCHEDULE
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC MTS 2023
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTION 47
WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH EMERGENCY DUE TO FAILURE OF CONSTITUTIONAL MACHINERY?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 356
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC CPO 2021
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTION 48
WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ADDED THE WORDS SOCIALIST AND SECULAR IN PREAMBLE?
ANSWER: 42ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
SSC CGL 2023
TOPIC 186: NATIONAL COMMISSIONS
Q353. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH THE NATIONAL COMMISSION FOR SCHEDULED CASTES?
A. ARTICLE 324
B. ARTICLE 338
C. ARTICLE 340
D. ARTICLE 356
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 338
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 338 PROVIDES FOR THE NATIONAL COMMISSION FOR SCHEDULED CASTES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q354. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH THE NATIONAL COMMISSION FOR SCHEDULED TRIBES?
A. ARTICLE 338
B. ARTICLE 338A
C. ARTICLE 339
D. ARTICLE 340
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 338A
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 338A ESTABLISHES THE NATIONAL COMMISSION FOR SCHEDULED TRIBES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 187: PARLIAMENTARY MAJORITIES
Q355. MORE THAN 50% OF TOTAL MEMBERSHIP IS CALLED:
A. SIMPLE MAJORITY
B. ABSOLUTE MAJORITY
C. EFFECTIVE MAJORITY
D. SPECIAL MAJORITY
ANSWER: B. ABSOLUTE MAJORITY
EXPLANATION:
ABSOLUTE MAJORITY MEANS MORE THAN 50% OF THE TOTAL STRENGTH OF THE HOUSE.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
356. MAJORITY OF MEMBERS PRESENT AND VOTING IS CALLED:
A. ABSOLUTE MAJORITY
B. EFFECTIVE MAJORITY
C. SPECIAL MAJORITY
D. SIMPLE MAJORITY
ANSWER: D. SIMPLE MAJORITY
EXPLANATION:
SIMPLE MAJORITY REFERS TO MAJORITY OF MEMBERS PRESENT AND VOTING.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 188: PARLIAMENTARY DEVICES
Q357. THE FIRST HOUR OF A PARLIAMENTARY SITTING IS GENERALLY KNOWN AS:
A. ZERO HOUR
B. QUESTION HOUR
C. MOTION HOUR
D. ADJOURNMENT HOUR
ANSWER: B. QUESTION HOUR
EXPLANATION:
QUESTION HOUR IS THE FIRST HOUR DURING WHICH MPS ASK QUESTIONS TO MINISTERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2023
Q358. ZERO HOUR IN PARLIAMENT STARTS IMMEDIATELY AFTER:
A. ADJOURNMENT MOTION
B. LUNCH BREAK
C. QUESTION HOUR
D. CALLING ATTENTION MOTION
ANSWER: C. QUESTION HOUR
EXPLANATION:
ZERO HOUR BEGINS IMMEDIATELY AFTER QUESTION HOUR IN PARLIAMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 189: TYPES OF BILLS
Q359. A BILL OTHER THAN MONEY BILL OR FINANCIAL BILL IS CALLED:
A. CONSTITUTIONAL BILL
B. ORDINARY BILL
C. SPECIAL BILL
D. FINANCE BILL
ANSWER: B. ORDINARY BILL
EXPLANATION:
ANY BILL THAT IS NOT A MONEY BILL, FINANCIAL BILL, OR CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT BILL IS CALLED AN ORDINARY BILL.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q360. CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT BILLS ARE INTRODUCED UNDER WHICH ARTICLE?
A. ARTICLE 110
B. ARTICLE 123
C. ARTICLE 356
D. ARTICLE 368
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 368
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 368 PROVIDES THE PROCEDURE FOR CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT BILLS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 190: VICE PRESIDENT ADVANCED QUESTIONS
Q361. VICE PRESIDENT OF INDIA IS THE EX-OFFICIO CHAIRMAN OF:
A. LOK SABHA
B. RAJYA SABHA
C. SUPREME COURT
D. NITI AAYOG
ANSWER: B. RAJYA SABHA
EXPLANATION:
THE VICE PRESIDENT SERVES AS EX-OFFICIO CHAIRMAN OF RAJYA SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q362. THE VICE PRESIDENT IS ELECTED BY:
A. LOK SABHA ONLY
B. RAJYA SABHA ONLY
C. MEMBERS OF BOTH HOUSES OF PARLIAMENT
D. STATE LEGISLATURES
ANSWER: C. MEMBERS OF BOTH HOUSES OF PARLIAMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE VICE PRESIDENT IS ELECTED BY MEMBERS OF BOTH HOUSES OF PARLIAMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 191: FEDERALISM CONCEPTS
Q363. INDIAN FEDERALISM IS OFTEN DESCRIBED AS:
A. PURE FEDERAL
B. UNITARY
C. QUASI-FEDERAL
D. CONFEDERAL
ANSWER: C. QUASI-FEDERAL
EXPLANATION:
INDIA HAS A FEDERAL SYSTEM WITH STRONG UNITARY FEATURES; HENCE CALLED QUASI-FEDERAL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2023
Q364. WHICH FEATURE MAKES THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION UNITARY IN SPIRIT?
A. DUAL CITIZENSHIP
B. SEPARATE CONSTITUTIONS FOR STATES
C. STRONG CENTRE
D. STATE SOVEREIGNTY
ANSWER: C. STRONG CENTRE
EXPLANATION:
A STRONG CENTRAL GOVERNMENT GIVES INDIA A UNITARY BIAS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 192: PREAMBLE ADVANCED QUESTIONS
Q365. IN WHICH CASE WAS IT HELD THAT PREAMBLE IS PART OF THE CONSTITUTION?
A. GOLAKNATH CASE
B. KESAVANANDA BHARATI CASE
C. BERUBARI CASE
D. MINERVA MILLS CASE
ANSWER: B. KESAVANANDA BHARATI CASE
EXPLANATION:
THE SUPREME COURT IN KESAVANANDA BHARATI CASE HELD THAT PREAMBLE IS PART OF THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q366. WHICH WORDS WERE ADDED TO THE PREAMBLE BY THE 42ND AMENDMENT?
A. EQUALITY AND JUSTICE
B. SOCIALIST, SECULAR, INTEGRITY
C. DEMOCRACY AND REPUBLIC
D. LIBERTY AND FRATERNITY
ANSWER: B. SOCIALIST, SECULAR, INTEGRITY
EXPLANATION:
THESE WORDS WERE INSERTED INTO THE PREAMBLE BY THE 42ND AMENDMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 193: CITIZENSHIP ADVANCED QUESTIONS
Q367. INDIA FOLLOWS WHICH TYPE OF CITIZENSHIP?
A. DUAL CITIZENSHIP
B. SINGLE CITIZENSHIP
C. STATE CITIZENSHIP
D. FEDERAL CITIZENSHIP
ANSWER: B. SINGLE CITIZENSHIP
EXPLANATION:
INDIA FOLLOWS THE SYSTEM OF SINGLE CITIZENSHIP.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q368. CITIZENSHIP IN INDIA IS GOVERNED BY WHICH ACT?
A. REPRESENTATION OF PEOPLE ACT
B. CITIZENSHIP ACT, 1955
C. INDIAN PENAL CODE
D. GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT
ANSWER: B. CITIZENSHIP ACT, 1955
EXPLANATION:
THE CITIZENSHIP ACT, 1955 GOVERNS ACQUISITION AND TERMINATION OF CITIZENSHIP.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 194: ELECTION ADVANCED PYQS
Q369. NOTA STANDS FOR:
A. NATIONAL OPTION TO ACT
B. NONE OF THE ABOVE
C. NATIONAL OFFICIAL VOTING AUTHORITY
D. NONE OF THE BALLOT
ANSWER: B. NONE OF THE ABOVE
EXPLANATION:
NOTA ALLOWS VOTERS TO REJECT ALL CANDIDATES IN AN ELECTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2023
Q370. ELECTRONIC VOTING MACHINES (EVMS) ARE SUPERVISED BY:
A. UPSC
B. SUPREME COURT
C. ELECTION COMMISSION
D. PARLIAMENT
ANSWER: C. ELECTION COMMISSION
EXPLANATION:
THE ELECTION COMMISSION SUPERVISES THE USE OF EVMS DURING ELECTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 195: CONSTITUTIONAL SCHEDULES MINOR AREAS
Q371. WHICH SCHEDULE DEALS WITH SALARIES OF CONSTITUTIONAL AUTHORITIES?
A. FIRST SCHEDULE
B. SECOND SCHEDULE
C. THIRD SCHEDULE
D. FOURTH SCHEDULE
ANSWER: B. SECOND SCHEDULE
EXPLANATION:
THE SECOND SCHEDULE CONTAINS PROVISIONS RELATED TO SALARIES AND ALLOWANCES.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q372. WHICH SCHEDULE CONTAINS SUBJECTS RELATED TO PANCHAYATS?
A. NINTH SCHEDULE
B. TENTH SCHEDULE
C. ELEVENTH SCHEDULE
D. TWELFTH SCHEDULE
ANSWER: C. ELEVENTH SCHEDULE
EXPLANATION:
THE ELEVENTH SCHEDULE CONTAINS 29 SUBJECTS RELATED TO PANCHAYATS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 196: DPSP CLASSIFICATION
Q373. WHICH CATEGORY OF DPSP PROMOTES VILLAGE PANCHAYATS?
A. SOCIALIST PRINCIPLES
B. LIBERAL PRINCIPLES
C. GANDHIAN PRINCIPLES
D. ECONOMIC PRINCIPLES
ANSWER: C. GANDHIAN PRINCIPLES
EXPLANATION:
ORGANIZATION OF VILLAGE PANCHAYATS IS PART OF GANDHIAN PRINCIPLES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q374. UNIFORM CIVIL CODE BELONGS TO WHICH CATEGORY OF DPSP?
A. GANDHIAN PRINCIPLES
B. SOCIALIST PRINCIPLES
C. LIBERAL-INTELLECTUAL PRINCIPLES
D. RELIGIOUS PRINCIPLES
ANSWER: C. LIBERAL-INTELLECTUAL PRINCIPLES
EXPLANATION:
UNIFORM CIVIL CODE IS CLASSIFIED UNDER LIBERAL-INTELLECTUAL PRINCIPLES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 197: EMERGENCY ADVANCED QUESTIONS
Q375. NATIONAL EMERGENCY MUST BE APPROVED BY PARLIAMENT WITHIN:
A. 14 DAYS
B. 1 MONTH
C. 2 MONTHS
D. 6 MONTHS
ANSWER: B. 1 MONTH
EXPLANATION:
NATIONAL EMERGENCY MUST BE APPROVED WITHIN ONE MONTH AFTER PROCLAMATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2023
Q376. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH FINANCIAL EMERGENCY?
A. ARTICLE 352
B. ARTICLE 356
C. ARTICLE 360
D. ARTICLE 368
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 360
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 360 DEALS WITH FINANCIAL EMERGENCY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 198: FREQUENTLY REPEATED SSC CONSTITUTION PYQS
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTION 49
WHICH ARTICLE ABOLISHES UNTOUCHABILITY?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 17
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC MTS 2023
SSC CPO 2022
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTION 50
WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT INTRODUCED GST?
ANSWER: 101ST CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 199: FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS RESTRICTIONS
Q377. REASONABLE RESTRICTIONS ON FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS ARE IMPOSED IN THE INTEREST OF:
A. NATIONAL SECURITY AND PUBLIC ORDER
B. PERSONAL BENEFITS
C. POLITICAL PARTIES ONLY
D. RELIGIOUS GROUPS ONLY
ANSWER: A. NATIONAL SECURITY AND PUBLIC ORDER
EXPLANATION:
REASONABLE RESTRICTIONS MAY BE IMPOSED TO PROTECT SOVEREIGNTY, INTEGRITY, SECURITY, AND PUBLIC ORDER.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q378. MEMBERS OF ARMED FORCES CAN HAVE THEIR FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS RESTRICTED UNDER:
A. ARTICLE 31
B. ARTICLE 32
C. ARTICLE 33
D. ARTICLE 35
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 33
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 33 EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO RESTRICT FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS OF ARMED FORCES PERSONNEL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 200: CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT PROCEDURE
Q379. WHICH TYPE OF MAJORITY IS GENERALLY REQUIRED FOR CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT?
A. SIMPLE MAJORITY
B. EFFECTIVE MAJORITY
C. SPECIAL MAJORITY
D. ABSOLUTE MAJORITY
ANSWER: C. SPECIAL MAJORITY
EXPLANATION:
MOST CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENTS REQUIRE A SPECIAL MAJORITY UNDER ARTICLE 368.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q380. SOME CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENTS ALSO REQUIRE RATIFICATION BY:
A. SUPREME COURT
B. PRESIDENT
C. STATE LEGISLATURES
D. ELECTION COMMISSION
ANSWER: C. STATE LEGISLATURES
EXPLANATION:
CERTAIN AMENDMENTS AFFECTING FEDERAL STRUCTURE REQUIRE APPROVAL BY AT LEAST HALF OF STATE LEGISLATURES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 201: ATTORNEY GENERAL ADVANCED QUESTIONS
Q381. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH ATTORNEY GENERAL OF INDIA?
A. ARTICLE 74
B. ARTICLE 76
C. ARTICLE 78
D. ARTICLE 148
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 76
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 76 PROVIDES FOR THE OFFICE OF ATTORNEY GENERAL OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2023
Q382. ATTORNEY GENERAL HAS THE RIGHT TO:
A. VOTE IN PARLIAMENT
B. PRESIDE OVER RAJYA SABHA
C. SPEAK IN PARLIAMENT WITHOUT VOTING RIGHT
D. REMOVE JUDGES
ANSWER: C. SPEAK IN PARLIAMENT WITHOUT VOTING RIGHT
EXPLANATION:
ATTORNEY GENERAL CAN PARTICIPATE IN PARLIAMENTARY PROCEEDINGS BUT CANNOT VOTE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 202: VICE PRESIDENT REMOVAL PROCESS
Q383. A RESOLUTION FOR REMOVAL OF VICE PRESIDENT MUST ORIGINATE IN:
A. LOK SABHA
B. RAJYA SABHA
C. SUPREME COURT
D. STATE LEGISLATURE
ANSWER: B. RAJYA SABHA
EXPLANATION:
A REMOVAL RESOLUTION AGAINST VICE PRESIDENT CAN BE INITIATED ONLY IN RAJYA SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q384. REMOVAL RESOLUTION OF VICE PRESIDENT MUST BE AGREED TO BY:
A. LOK SABHA ONLY
B. RAJYA SABHA ONLY
C. BOTH HOUSES OF PARLIAMENT
D. SUPREME COURT
ANSWER: C. BOTH HOUSES OF PARLIAMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE RESOLUTION PASSED BY RAJYA SABHA MUST ALSO BE APPROVED BY LOK SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 203: TYPES OF BILLS ADVANCED PYQS
Q385. MONEY BILLS CAN BE INTRODUCED ONLY IN:
A. RAJYA SABHA
B. LOK SABHA
C. JOINT SITTING
D. STATE LEGISLATURE
ANSWER: B. LOK SABHA
EXPLANATION:
MONEY BILLS CAN ONLY ORIGINATE IN LOK SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q386. PRIOR RECOMMENDATION OF THE PRESIDENT IS REQUIRED FOR INTRODUCTION OF:
A. ORDINARY BILL
B. PRIVATE BILL
C. MONEY BILL
D. ADJOURNMENT MOTION
ANSWER: C. MONEY BILL
EXPLANATION:
A MONEY BILL REQUIRES PRIOR RECOMMENDATION OF THE PRESIDENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 204: PARLIAMENTARY MOTIONS
Q387. NO-CONFIDENCE MOTION CAN BE INTRODUCED ONLY IN:
A. RAJYA SABHA
B. LOK SABHA
C. STATE ASSEMBLY
D. SUPREME COURT
ANSWER: B. LOK SABHA
EXPLANATION:
NO-CONFIDENCE MOTION IS MOVED ONLY IN LOK SABHA AGAINST THE COUNCIL OF MINISTERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2023
Q388. ADJOURNMENT MOTION IS RELATED TO:
A. JUDICIAL REVIEW
B. FINANCIAL MATTERS
C. URGENT PUBLIC IMPORTANCE MATTER
D. CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT
ANSWER: C. URGENT PUBLIC IMPORTANCE MATTER
EXPLANATION:
ADJOURNMENT MOTION IS USED TO DISCUSS URGENT MATTERS OF PUBLIC IMPORTANCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 205: CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES ADDITIONAL PYQS
Q389. WHICH BODY PREPARES ELECTORAL ROLLS IN INDIA?
A. PARLIAMENT
B. ELECTION COMMISSION
C. UPSC
D. FINANCE COMMISSION
ANSWER: B. ELECTION COMMISSION
EXPLANATION:
ELECTION COMMISSION SUPERVISES PREPARATION OF ELECTORAL ROLLS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q390. COMPTROLLER AND AUDITOR GENERAL SUBMITS REPORTS TO:
A. PRIME MINISTER
B. SUPREME COURT
C. PRESIDENT
D. FINANCE COMMISSION
ANSWER: C. PRESIDENT
EXPLANATION:
CAG SUBMITS AUDIT REPORTS TO THE PRESIDENT WHO LAYS THEM BEFORE PARLIAMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 206: CONSTITUTIONAL CONCEPTS
Q391. COOPERATIVE FEDERALISM MEANS:
A. STATES ARE SUBORDINATE TO CENTRE
B. CENTRE AND STATES COOPERATE TOGETHER
C. JUDICIARY CONTROLS STATES
D. MILITARY ADMINISTRATION
ANSWER: B. CENTRE AND STATES COOPERATE TOGETHER
EXPLANATION:
COOPERATIVE FEDERALISM PROMOTES COLLABORATION BETWEEN UNION AND STATE GOVERNMENTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q392. INDIAN CONSTITUTION IS CALLED “LIVING DOCUMENT” BECAUSE:
A. IT IS UNWRITTEN
B. IT CHANGES FREQUENTLY THROUGH AMENDMENTS AND INTERPRETATION
C. IT IS TEMPORARY
D. IT APPLIES ONLY TO PARLIAMENT
ANSWER: B. IT CHANGES FREQUENTLY THROUGH AMENDMENTS AND INTERPRETATION
EXPLANATION:
THE CONSTITUTION EVOLVES THROUGH AMENDMENTS AND JUDICIAL INTERPRETATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 207: TWELFTH SCHEDULE AND MUNICIPALITIES
Q393. WHICH SCHEDULE CONTAINS SUBJECTS RELATED TO MUNICIPALITIES?
A. NINTH SCHEDULE
B. TENTH SCHEDULE
C. ELEVENTH SCHEDULE
D. TWELFTH SCHEDULE
ANSWER: D. TWELFTH SCHEDULE
EXPLANATION:
THE TWELFTH SCHEDULE CONTAINS 18 SUBJECTS RELATED TO MUNICIPALITIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2023
Q394. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ADDED THE TWELFTH SCHEDULE?
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 52ND AMENDMENT
C. 73RD AMENDMENT
D. 74TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER: D. 74TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 74TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ADDED THE TWELFTH SCHEDULE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 208: IMPORTANT CONSTITUTIONAL FACTS
Q395. THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION IS REGARDED AS:
A. SHORTEST WRITTEN CONSTITUTION
B. UNWRITTEN CONSTITUTION
C. LENGTHIEST WRITTEN CONSTITUTION
D. TEMPORARY CONSTITUTION
ANSWER: C. LENGTHIEST WRITTEN CONSTITUTION
EXPLANATION:
THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION IS THE LENGTHIEST WRITTEN CONSTITUTION IN THE WORLD.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q396. THE CONSTITUTION WAS ADOPTED ON:
A. 26 JANUARY 1950
B. 15 AUGUST 1947
C. 26 NOVEMBER 1949
D. 2 OCTOBER 1950
ANSWER: C. 26 NOVEMBER 1949
EXPLANATION:
THE CONSTITUTION WAS ADOPTED ON 26 NOVEMBER 1949.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 209: FREQUENTLY REPEATED SSC CONSTITUTION PYQS
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTION 51
WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH EMERGENCY DUE TO CONSTITUTIONAL BREAKDOWN IN STATES?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 356
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC MTS 2023
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTION 52
WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ADDED FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES?
ANSWER: 42ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC CPO 2021
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTION 53
WHICH SCHEDULE CONTAINS PANCHAYATI RAJ SUBJECTS?
ANSWER: ELEVENTH SCHEDULE
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
SSC CGL 2023
TOPIC 210: IMPORTANT CONSTITUTIONAL ARTICLES FINAL REVISION
Q397. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO AMEND THE CONSTITUTION?
A. ARTICLE 352
B. ARTICLE 356
C. ARTICLE 360
D. ARTICLE 368
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 368
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 368 PROVIDES THE PROCEDURE AND POWER FOR AMENDMENT OF THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q398. WHICH ARTICLE IS KNOWN AS THE “HEART AND SOUL” OF THE CONSTITUTION?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 32
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 32
EXPLANATION:
DR. B. R. AMBEDKAR CALLED ARTICLE 32 THE “HEART AND SOUL” OF THE CONSTITUTION BECAUSE IT GUARANTEES CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q399. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT IS KNOWN AS THE “MINI CONSTITUTION”?
A. 24TH AMENDMENT
B. 42ND AMENDMENT
C. 44TH AMENDMENT
D. 52ND AMENDMENT
ANSWER: B. 42ND AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 42ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT IS CALLED THE “MINI CONSTITUTION” BECAUSE IT MADE EXTENSIVE CHANGES TO THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
SSC CPO 2022
Q400. WHICH PART OF THE CONSTITUTION CONTAINS FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. PART II
B. PART III
C. PART IV
D. PART IVA
ANSWER: B. PART III
EXPLANATION:
PART III OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION CONTAINS FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS FROM ARTICLES 12 TO 35.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
SC GD, SSC STENOGRAPHER, SSC JE, AND OTHER COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS. QUESTIONS FROM THE CONSTITUTION ARE FREQUENTLY REPEATED IN SSC TIER-I EXAMS.
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS OF THE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA
THE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA IS THE LONGEST WRITTEN CONSTITUTION IN THE WORLD.
DR. B. R. AMBEDKAR IS KNOWN AS THE FATHER OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION.
THE CONSTITUTION WAS ADOPTED ON 26 NOVEMBER 1949.
IT CAME INTO FORCE ON 26 JANUARY 1950.
ORIGINALLY, THE CONSTITUTION HAD 395 ARTICLES, 22 PARTS, AND 8 SCHEDULES.
AT PRESENT, THE CONSTITUTION CONTAINS MORE ARTICLES AND SCHEDULES AFTER AMENDMENTS.
THE IDEA OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS WAS BORROWED FROM THE CONSTITUTION OF THE USA.
DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY WERE BORROWED FROM IRELAND.
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES WERE BORROWED FROM THE USSR.
PARLIAMENTARY FORM OF GOVERNMENT WAS BORROWED FROM THE UK.
THE CONSTITUTION ESTABLISHES INDIA AS A SOVEREIGN, SOCIALIST, SECULAR, DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC.
THE PREAMBLE IS KNOWN AS THE SOUL OF THE CONSTITUTION.
THE CONSTITUTION PROVIDES SINGLE CITIZENSHIP.
THE SUPREME COURT IS THE GUARDIAN OF THE CONSTITUTION.
SSC ALL EXAMS GK: FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
& DUTIES MCQ QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS & DUTIES: COMPLETE SSC EXAM PREPARATION GUIDE
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS AND FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES ARE AMONG THE MOST IMPORTANT TOPICS IN INDIAN POLITY FOR SSC EXAMS. QUESTIONS FROM THIS CHAPTER ARE REPEATEDLY ASKED IN SSC CGL, SSC CHSL, SSC MTS, SSC GD, CPO, STENOGRAPHER, RAILWAY, AND OTHER COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS.
MANY QUESTIONS ARE REPEATED DIRECTLY IN DIFFERENT YEARS AND DIFFERENT SSC EXAMINATIONS. THEREFORE, PREPARING PREVIOUS YEAR MCQS FROM FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS & DUTIES BECOMES EXTREMELY IMPORTANT FOR SCORING HIGH MARKS IN GENERAL AWARENESS.
HIGHLIGHTS OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
WHAT ARE FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS ARE BASIC RIGHTS GUARANTEED TO EVERY CITIZEN OF INDIA BY THE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA. THESE RIGHTS ARE MENTIONED IN PART III OF THE CONSTITUTION FROM ARTICLE 12 TO ARTICLE 35.
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS ENSURE:
EQUALITY BEFORE LAW
FREEDOM OF SPEECH AND EXPRESSION
PROTECTION AGAINST EXPLOITATION
FREEDOM OF RELIGION
CULTURAL AND EDUCATIONAL RIGHTS
CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES
DR. B. R. AMBEDKAR CALLED THE RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES THE “HEART AND SOUL OF THE CONSTITUTION.”
IMPORTANT ARTICLES OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
| FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT | ARTICLES | ||
| RIGHT TO EQUALITY | ARTICLE 14 TO 18 | ||
| RIGHT TO FREEDOM | ARTICLE 19 TO 22 | ||
| RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION | ARTICLE 23 TO 24 | ||
| RIGHT TO FREEDOM OF RELIGION | ARTICLE 25 TO 28 | ||
| CULTURAL AND EDUCATIONAL RIGHTS | ARTICLE 29 TO 30 | ||
| RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES | ARTICLE 32 |
HIGHLIGHTS OF FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES
WHAT ARE FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES?
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES ARE MORAL OBLIGATIONS OF INDIAN CITIZENS TOWARDS THE NATION.
THESE DUTIES WERE ADDED BY THE 42ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1976 ON THE RECOMMENDATION OF THE SWARAN SINGH COMMITTEE.
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES ARE MENTIONED IN ARTICLE 51A UNDER PART IVA OF THE CONSTITUTION.
INITIALLY, THERE WERE 10 FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES.
LATER, THE 11TH DUTY WAS ADDED BY THE 86TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 2002.
IMPORTANT FACTS ABOUT FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES
ARTICLE RELATED TO FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES: ARTICLE 51A
PART OF CONSTITUTION: PART IVA
ADDED BY: 42ND AMENDMENT ACT, 1976
INSPIRED FROM: USSR CONSTITUTION
TOTAL DUTIES AT PRESENT: 11
SSC PREVIOUS YEAR MCQS ON FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS & DUTIES
Q1. FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS IN THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION ARE BORROWED FROM WHICH COUNTRY?
A. USA
B. UK
C. USSR
D. CANADA
ANSWER: A. USA
EXPLANATION:
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS IN THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION ARE INSPIRED BY THE CONSTITUTION OF THE UNITED STATES OF AMERICA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2018
SSC MTS 2021
Q2. WHICH PART OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION DEALS WITH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. PART II
B. PART III
C. PART IV
D. PART V
ANSWER: B. PART III
EXPLANATION:
PART III OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION CONTAINS FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS FROM ARTICLE 12 TO ARTICLE 35.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q3. WHICH ARTICLE OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION GUARANTEES RIGHT TO EQUALITY?
A. ARTICLE 12
B. ARTICLE 14
C. ARTICLE 19
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 14
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 14 GUARANTEES EQUALITY BEFORE LAW AND EQUAL PROTECTION OF LAWS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2018
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2022
Q4. UNTOUCHABILITY IS ABOLISHED UNDER WHICH ARTICLE?
A. ARTICLE 15
B. ARTICLE 16
C. ARTICLE 17
D. ARTICLE 18
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 17
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 17 ABOLISHES UNTOUCHABILITY AND FORBIDS ITS PRACTICE IN ANY FORM.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q5. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT HAS BEEN CALLED THE “HEART AND SOUL” OF THE CONSTITUTION?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
C. RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES
D. RIGHT TO RELIGION
ANSWER: C. RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES
EXPLANATION:
DR. B. R. AMBEDKAR CALLED ARTICLE 32 THE “HEART AND SOUL OF THE CONSTITUTION.”
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CGL 2020
SSC CHSL 2023
Q6. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES?
A. ARTICLE 30
B. ARTICLE 31
C. ARTICLE 32
D. ARTICLE 35
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 32
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 32 ALLOWS CITIZENS TO MOVE TO THE SUPREME COURT FOR ENFORCEMENT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2019
SSC GD 2021
SSC MTS 2023
Q7. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT WAS REMOVED FROM THE LIST OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT TO PROPERTY
C. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
D. RIGHT TO RELIGION
ANSWER: B. RIGHT TO PROPERTY
EXPLANATION:
RIGHT TO PROPERTY WAS REMOVED FROM FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS BY THE 44TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1978. IT IS NOW A LEGAL RIGHT UNDER ARTICLE 300A.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q8. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES PROTECTION OF LIFE AND PERSONAL LIBERTY?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 21
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 21 GUARANTEES PROTECTION OF LIFE AND PERSONAL LIBERTY.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2019
SSC CPO 2021
SSC CHSL 2023
Q9. HOW MANY FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS ARE CURRENTLY AVAILABLE IN THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
ANSWER: B. 6
EXPLANATION:
CURRENTLY, THERE ARE SIX FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS IN INDIA AFTER REMOVAL OF RIGHT TO PROPERTY.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2019
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
Q10. WHICH ARTICLE PROHIBITS DISCRIMINATION ON GROUNDS OF RELIGION, RACE, CASTE, SEX, OR PLACE OF BIRTH?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 15
C. ARTICLE 16
D. ARTICLE 17
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 15
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 15 PROHIBITS DISCRIMINATION BY THE STATE ON GROUNDS OF RELIGION, RACE, CASTE, SEX, OR PLACE OF BIRTH.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2018
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2023
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES MCQS FOR SSC EXAMS
Q11. FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES WERE ADDED TO THE CONSTITUTION BY WHICH AMENDMENT?
A. 44TH AMENDMENT
B. 42ND AMENDMENT
C. 52ND AMENDMENT
D. 86TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER: B. 42ND AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES WERE ADDED BY THE 42ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1976.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q12. FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES ARE INCLUDED IN WHICH PART OF THE CONSTITUTION?
A. PART III
B. PART IVA
C. PART IV
D. PART V
ANSWER: B. PART IVA
EXPLANATION:
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES ARE MENTIONED IN PART IVA UNDER ARTICLE 51A.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2018
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q13. FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES WERE INSPIRED BY THE CONSTITUTION OF WHICH COUNTRY?
A. USA
B. UK
C. USSR
D. FRANCE
ANSWER: C. USSR
EXPLANATION:
THE CONCEPT OF FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES WAS BORROWED FROM THE CONSTITUTION OF THE USSR.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2020
SSC CGL 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q14. WHICH COMMITTEE RECOMMENDED THE INCLUSION OF FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES?
A. SARKARIA COMMITTEE
B. SWARAN SINGH COMMITTEE
C. RAJAMANNAR COMMITTEE
D. PUNCHHI COMMITTEE
ANSWER: B. SWARAN SINGH COMMITTEE
EXPLANATION:
THE SWARAN SINGH COMMITTEE RECOMMENDED ADDING FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES TO THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2019
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
Q15. HOW MANY FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES WERE ORIGINALLY ADDED TO THE CONSTITUTION?
A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 11
ANSWER: C. 10
EXPLANATION:
INITIALLY, 10 FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES WERE ADDED BY THE 42ND AMENDMENT ACT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC MTS 2023
Q16. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ADDED THE 11TH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY?
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 44TH AMENDMENT
C. 73RD AMENDMENT
D. 86TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER: D. 86TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 86TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 2002 ADDED THE 11TH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY RELATED TO EDUCATION OF CHILDREN.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CGL 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q17. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES?
A. ARTICLE 32
B. ARTICLE 48A
C. ARTICLE 51A
D. ARTICLE 52
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 51A
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A CONTAINS FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES OF INDIAN CITIZENS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2019
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q18. THE DUTY OF PARENTS TO PROVIDE EDUCATION TO CHILDREN AGED 6 TO 14 YEARS IS INCLUDED UNDER WHICH ARTICLE?
A. ARTICLE 21A
B. ARTICLE 45
C. ARTICLE 51A(K)
D. ARTICLE 30
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 51A(K)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(K) MAKES IT A DUTY OF PARENTS OR GUARDIANS TO PROVIDE EDUCATION OPPORTUNITIES TO CHILDREN BETWEEN 6 AND 14 YEARS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q19. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
C. RIGHT TO PROPERTY
D. RIGHT TO RELIGION
ANSWER: C. RIGHT TO PROPERTY
EXPLANATION:
RIGHT TO PROPERTY IS NOW A LEGAL RIGHT UNDER ARTICLE 300A AND NOT A FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CGL 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q20. WHICH WRIT IS ISSUED TO PRODUCE A PERSON BEFORE THE COURT?
A. MANDAMUS
B. HABEAS CORPUS
C. CERTIORARI
D. QUO WARRANTO
ANSWER: B. HABEAS CORPUS
EXPLANATION:
HABEAS CORPUS MEANS “TO PRODUCE THE BODY.” IT IS ISSUED TO PROTECT PERSONAL LIBERTY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2018
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
IMPORTANT ONE-LINER FACTS FOR SSC EXAMS
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS ARE MENTIONED IN PART III.
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES ARE MENTIONED IN PART IVA.
ARTICLE 32 IS CALLED THE HEART AND SOUL OF THE CONSTITUTION.
RIGHT TO PROPERTY WAS REMOVED BY THE 44TH AMENDMENT.
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES WERE ADDED IN 1976.
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES WERE INSPIRED BY USSR.
ARTICLE 21 DEALS WITH RIGHT TO LIFE.
ARTICLE 17 ABOLISHES UNTOUCHABILITY.
ARTICLE 51A CONTAINS FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES.
ARTICLE 21A PROVIDES RIGHT TO EDUCATION.
REPEATED SSC QUESTIONS FROM FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS & DUTIES
FREQUENTLY REPEATED QUESTIONS
1. WHICH ARTICLE ABOLISHES UNTOUCHABILITY?
ASKED IN SSC CHSL 2019
ASKED IN SSC GD 2022
ASKED IN SSC CGL 2023
ANSWER: ARTICLE 17
2. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT IS CALLED THE HEART AND SOUL OF THE CONSTITUTION?
ASKED IN SSC CGL 2016
ASKED IN SSC CGL 2020
ASKED IN SSC CHSL 2023
ANSWER: RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES
3. FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES WERE BORROWED FROM WHICH COUNTRY?
ASKED IN SSC GD 2020
ASKED IN SSC CGL 2022
ASKED IN SSC CHSL 2023
ANSWER: USSR
4. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ADDED FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES?
ASKED IN SSC CGL 2017
ASKED IN SSC CHSL 2019
ASKED IN SSC GD 2022
ASKED IN SSC CGL 2023
ANSWER: 42ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT
5. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES?
ASKED IN SSC CPO 2019
ASKED IN SSC GD 2021
ASKED IN SSC MTS 2023
ANSWER: ARTICLE 32
PREPARATION TIPS FOR SSC EXAMS
HOW TO PREPARE FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS & DUTIES FOR SSC?
- LEARN ALL IMPORTANT ARTICLES.
- REVISE REPEATED SSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS.
- REMEMBER CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENTS.
- PRACTICE MCQS DAILY.
- FOCUS ON REPEATED TOPICS LIKE:
ARTICLE 14
ARTICLE 17
ARTICLE 21
ARTICLE 32
ARTICLE 51A
42ND AMENDMENT
44TH AMENDMENT
Q21. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES FREEDOM OF SPEECH AND EXPRESSION?
A. ARTICLE 18
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 20
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 19
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(A) GUARANTEES FREEDOM OF SPEECH AND EXPRESSION TO INDIAN CITIZENS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q22. WHICH WRIT IS ISSUED BY A COURT TO A PUBLIC OFFICIAL TO PERFORM DUTY?
A. HABEAS CORPUS
B. CERTIORARI
C. MANDAMUS
D. PROHIBITION
ANSWER: C. MANDAMUS
EXPLANATION:
MANDAMUS MEANS “WE COMMAND.” IT IS ISSUED TO ORDER A PUBLIC AUTHORITY TO PERFORM ITS DUTY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2018
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CGL 2023
Q23. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT PROTECTS AGAINST HUMAN TRAFFICKING AND FORCED LABOUR?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION
C. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
D. RIGHT TO RELIGION
ANSWER: B. RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 23 PROHIBITS HUMAN TRAFFICKING, BEGAR, AND FORCED LABOUR.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2020
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q24. CHILD LABOUR IN HAZARDOUS INDUSTRIES IS PROHIBITED UNDER WHICH ARTICLE?
A. ARTICLE 21
B. ARTICLE 22
C. ARTICLE 23
D. ARTICLE 24
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 24
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 24 PROHIBITS EMPLOYMENT OF CHILDREN BELOW 14 YEARS IN HAZARDOUS FACTORIES AND INDUSTRIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2019
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2023
Q25. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES FREEDOM OF RELIGION?
A. ARTICLE 24
B. ARTICLE 25
C. ARTICLE 26
D. ARTICLE 27
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 25
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 25 GUARANTEES FREEDOM OF CONSCIENCE AND FREE PROFESSION, PRACTICE, AND PROPAGATION OF RELIGION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CPO 2021
SSC GD 2022
Q26. WHICH ARTICLE PROHIBITS TITLES IN INDIA?
A. ARTICLE 16
B. ARTICLE 17
C. ARTICLE 18
D. ARTICLE 19
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 18
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 18 ABOLISHES TITLES EXCEPT MILITARY AND ACADEMIC DISTINCTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q27. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES PROTECTION AGAINST ARREST AND DETENTION IN CERTAIN CASES?
A. ARTICLE 20
B. ARTICLE 21
C. ARTICLE 22
D. ARTICLE 23
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 22
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 22 PROVIDES SAFEGUARDS AGAINST ARBITRARY ARREST AND DETENTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q28. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT IS AVAILABLE ONLY TO CITIZENS?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES
C. CULTURAL AND EDUCATIONAL RIGHTS
D. FREEDOM OF SPEECH AND EXPRESSION
ANSWER: D. FREEDOM OF SPEECH AND EXPRESSION
EXPLANATION:
FREEDOM OF SPEECH AND EXPRESSION UNDER ARTICLE 19 IS AVAILABLE ONLY TO INDIAN CITIZENS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q29. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH PROTECTION IN RESPECT OF CONVICTION FOR OFFENCES?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 20
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 20 PROVIDES PROTECTION AGAINST EX-POST FACTO LAWS, DOUBLE JEOPARDY, AND SELF-INCRIMINATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC CPO 2021
SSC CGL 2023
Q30. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ENCOURAGES PROTECTION OF NATURAL ENVIRONMENT?
A. ARTICLE 51A(A)
B. ARTICLE 51A(C)
C. ARTICLE 51A(G)
D. ARTICLE 51A(K)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 51A(G)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(G) MAKES IT A DUTY OF EVERY CITIZEN TO PROTECT AND IMPROVE THE NATURAL ENVIRONMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2020
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q31. WHICH WRIT MEANS “BY WHAT AUTHORITY”?
A. CERTIORARI
B. HABEAS CORPUS
C. QUO WARRANTO
D. MANDAMUS
ANSWER: C. QUO WARRANTO
EXPLANATION:
QUO WARRANTO IS ISSUED TO QUESTION THE LEGALITY OF A PERSON HOLDING A PUBLIC OFFICE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q32. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES EQUALITY OF OPPORTUNITY IN PUBLIC EMPLOYMENT?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 15
C. ARTICLE 16
D. ARTICLE 17
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 16
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 16 GUARANTEES EQUALITY OF OPPORTUNITY IN MATTERS OF PUBLIC EMPLOYMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CGL 2023
Q33. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT PROTECTS THE INTERESTS OF MINORITIES?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
C. CULTURAL AND EDUCATIONAL RIGHTS
D. RIGHT TO RELIGION
ANSWER: C. CULTURAL AND EDUCATIONAL RIGHTS
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLES 29 AND 30 PROTECT THE LANGUAGE, CULTURE, AND EDUCATIONAL RIGHTS OF MINORITIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q34. WHICH WRIT IS ISSUED TO TRANSFER A CASE FROM LOWER COURT TO HIGHER COURT?
A. CERTIORARI
B. HABEAS CORPUS
C. QUO WARRANTO
D. MANDAMUS
ANSWER: A. CERTIORARI
EXPLANATION:
CERTIORARI IS ISSUED BY A HIGHER COURT TO TRANSFER OR QUASH ORDERS OF LOWER COURTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2019
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q35. THE RIGHT TO EDUCATION WAS ADDED BY WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT?
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 44TH AMENDMENT
C. 73RD AMENDMENT
D. 86TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER: D. 86TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 86TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 2002 ADDED ARTICLE 21A PROVIDING RIGHT TO EDUCATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q36. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH RIGHT TO EDUCATION?
A. ARTICLE 19A
B. ARTICLE 20A
C. ARTICLE 21A
D. ARTICLE 22A
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 21A
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 21A PROVIDES FREE AND COMPULSORY EDUCATION FOR CHILDREN AGED 6 TO 14 YEARS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2020
SSC CPO 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q37. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY PROMOTES HARMONY AND BROTHERHOOD?
A. ARTICLE 51A(E)
B. ARTICLE 51A(F)
C. ARTICLE 51A(G)
D. ARTICLE 51A(H)
ANSWER: A. ARTICLE 51A(E)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(E) PROMOTES HARMONY AND SPIRIT OF COMMON BROTHERHOOD AMONG ALL PEOPLE OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q38. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT CANNOT BE SUSPENDED DURING NATIONAL EMERGENCY?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 20 AND 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 20 AND 21
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLES 20 AND 21 REMAIN PROTECTED EVEN DURING NATIONAL EMERGENCY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q39. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS THE SUPREME COURT TO ISSUE WRITS?
A. ARTICLE 30
B. ARTICLE 31
C. ARTICLE 32
D. ARTICLE 33
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 32
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 32 EMPOWERS THE SUPREME COURT TO ISSUE WRITS FOR ENFORCEMENT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q40. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO ABIDE BY THE CONSTITUTION AND RESPECT THE NATIONAL FLAG AND NATIONAL ANTHEM?
A. ARTICLE 51A(A)
B. ARTICLE 51A(B)
C. ARTICLE 51A(C)
D. ARTICLE 51A(D)
ANSWER: A. ARTICLE 51A(A)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(A) MAKES IT A DUTY TO RESPECT THE CONSTITUTION, NATIONAL FLAG, AND NATIONAL ANTHEM.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q41. WHICH ARTICLE ALLOWS THE STATE TO MAKE SPECIAL PROVISIONS FOR WOMEN AND CHILDREN?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 15(3)
C. ARTICLE 16
D. ARTICLE 17
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 15(3)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 15(3) EMPOWERS THE STATE TO MAKE SPECIAL PROVISIONS FOR WOMEN AND CHILDREN.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q42. WHICH ARTICLE ABOLISHES DISCRIMINATION IN PUBLIC EMPLOYMENT?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 15
C. ARTICLE 16
D. ARTICLE 18
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 16
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 16 GUARANTEES EQUAL OPPORTUNITY IN MATTERS OF PUBLIC EMPLOYMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2020
SSC CPO 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q43. WHICH WRIT IS ISSUED TO PROHIBIT A LOWER COURT FROM EXCEEDING ITS JURISDICTION?
A. PROHIBITION
B. CERTIORARI
C. MANDAMUS
D. HABEAS CORPUS
ANSWER: A. PROHIBITION
EXPLANATION:
THE WRIT OF PROHIBITION IS ISSUED BY A HIGHER COURT TO PREVENT A LOWER COURT FROM EXCEEDING ITS JURISDICTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q44. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO MODIFY FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS FOR ARMED FORCES?
A. ARTICLE 31
B. ARTICLE 32
C. ARTICLE 33
D. ARTICLE 34
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 33
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 33 AUTHORIZES PARLIAMENT TO RESTRICT OR MODIFY FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS FOR ARMED FORCES AND POLICE FORCES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q45. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT PROTECTS AGAINST EXPLOITATION OF CHILDREN?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION
C. RIGHT TO RELIGION
D. CULTURAL RIGHTS
ANSWER: B. RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLES 23 AND 24 PROTECT CITIZENS, ESPECIALLY CHILDREN, AGAINST EXPLOITATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q46. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ENCOURAGES DEVELOPMENT OF SCIENTIFIC TEMPER?
A. ARTICLE 51A(F)
B. ARTICLE 51A(G)
C. ARTICLE 51A(H)
D. ARTICLE 51A(J)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 51A(H)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(H) ASKS CITIZENS TO DEVELOP SCIENTIFIC TEMPER, HUMANISM, AND SPIRIT OF INQUIRY.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q47. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT INCLUDES FREEDOM TO FORM ASSOCIATIONS OR UNIONS?
A. ARTICLE 18
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 20
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 19
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(C) GUARANTEES FREEDOM TO FORM ASSOCIATIONS OR UNIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2020
SSC CPO 2021
SSC CHSL 2023
Q48. WHICH ARTICLE PROHIBITS TRAFFIC IN HUMAN BEINGS?
A. ARTICLE 21
B. ARTICLE 22
C. ARTICLE 23
D. ARTICLE 24
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 23
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 23 PROHIBITS HUMAN TRAFFICKING, BEGAR, AND FORCED LABOUR.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q49. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS THE INTERESTS OF MINORITIES BY CONSERVING LANGUAGE AND CULTURE?
A. ARTICLE 27
B. ARTICLE 28
C. ARTICLE 29
D. ARTICLE 30
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 29
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 29 PROTECTS THE LANGUAGE, SCRIPT, AND CULTURE OF MINORITIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC CGL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q50. WHICH ARTICLE GRANTS MINORITIES THE RIGHT TO ESTABLISH EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS?
A. ARTICLE 28
B. ARTICLE 29
C. ARTICLE 30
D. ARTICLE 31
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 30
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 30 GIVES MINORITIES THE RIGHT TO ESTABLISH AND ADMINISTER EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q51. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO SAFEGUARD PUBLIC PROPERTY?
A. ARTICLE 51A(F)
B. ARTICLE 51A(G)
C. ARTICLE 51A(I)
D. ARTICLE 51A(J)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 51A(I)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(I) MAKES IT A DUTY TO SAFEGUARD PUBLIC PROPERTY AND AVOID VIOLENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q52. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT INCLUDES FREEDOM TO MOVE FREELY THROUGHOUT INDIA?
A. ARTICLE 18
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 20
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 19
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(D) GUARANTEES FREEDOM TO MOVE FREELY THROUGHOUT THE TERRITORY OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2020
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q53. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH ABOLITION OF TITLES?
A. ARTICLE 16
B. ARTICLE 17
C. ARTICLE 18
D. ARTICLE 19
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 18
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 18 ABOLISHES TITLES EXCEPT MILITARY AND ACADEMIC DISTINCTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q54. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS CITIZENS FROM DOUBLE PUNISHMENT FOR THE SAME OFFENCE?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 20
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 20 PROTECTS AGAINST DOUBLE JEOPARDY.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q55. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT INCLUDES FREEDOM TO RESIDE AND SETTLE IN ANY PART OF INDIA?
A. ARTICLE 18
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 20
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 19
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(E) GUARANTEES FREEDOM TO RESIDE AND SETTLE IN ANY PART OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q56. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS COURTS TO ISSUE WRITS OTHER THAN SUPREME COURT?
A. ARTICLE 32
B. ARTICLE 226
C. ARTICLE 356
D. ARTICLE 368
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 226
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 226 EMPOWERS HIGH COURTS TO ISSUE WRITS FOR ENFORCEMENT OF RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q57. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO PRESERVE RICH HERITAGE AND CULTURE?
A. ARTICLE 51A(E)
B. ARTICLE 51A(F)
C. ARTICLE 51A(G)
D. ARTICLE 51A(H)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(F)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(F) ASKS CITIZENS TO VALUE AND PRESERVE THE RICH HERITAGE OF INDIA’S COMPOSITE CULTURE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q58. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT GUARANTEES FREEDOM TO PRACTICE ANY PROFESSION?
A. ARTICLE 18
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 20
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 19
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(G) GUARANTEES FREEDOM TO PRACTICE ANY PROFESSION OR CARRY ON ANY OCCUPATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q59. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS AGAINST SELF-INCRIMINATION?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 20
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 20(3) PROTECTS A PERSON FROM BEING COMPELLED TO BECOME A WITNESS AGAINST HIMSELF.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q60. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ENCOURAGES STRIVING TOWARDS EXCELLENCE?
A. ARTICLE 51A(H)
B. ARTICLE 51A(I)
C. ARTICLE 51A(J)
D. ARTICLE 51A(K)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 51A(J)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(J) ASKS CITIZENS TO STRIVE TOWARDS EXCELLENCE IN ALL SPHERES OF INDIVIDUAL AND COLLECTIVE ACTIVITY.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q61. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES SIX FREEDOMS TO INDIAN CITIZENS?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 18
C. ARTICLE 19
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 19
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19 GUARANTEES SIX FREEDOMS INCLUDING SPEECH, MOVEMENT, RESIDENCE, PROFESSION, ASSEMBLY, AND ASSOCIATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q62. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT WAS DESCRIBED BY DR. B. R. AMBEDKAR AS THE MOST IMPORTANT RIGHT?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
C. RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES
D. CULTURAL RIGHTS
ANSWER: C. RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES
EXPLANATION:
DR. B. R. AMBEDKAR CALLED ARTICLE 32 THE “HEART AND SOUL” AND MOST IMPORTANT RIGHT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CPO 2020
SSC CHSL 2023
Q63. WHICH ARTICLE PROHIBITS EMPLOYMENT OF CHILDREN BELOW 14 YEARS IN FACTORIES?
A. ARTICLE 21
B. ARTICLE 22
C. ARTICLE 23
D. ARTICLE 24
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 24
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 24 PROHIBITS CHILD LABOUR IN FACTORIES, MINES, AND HAZARDOUS OCCUPATIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2020
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q64. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO DEFEND THE COUNTRY?
A. ARTICLE 51A(C)
B. ARTICLE 51A(D)
C. ARTICLE 51A(E)
D. ARTICLE 51A(F)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(D)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(D) MAKES IT A DUTY TO DEFEND THE COUNTRY AND RENDER NATIONAL SERVICE WHEN CALLED UPON.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q65. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES FREEDOM OF PEACEFUL ASSEMBLY?
A. ARTICLE 18
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 20
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 19
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(B) GUARANTEES THE RIGHT TO ASSEMBLE PEACEFULLY AND WITHOUT ARMS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2020
SSC CPO 2021
SSC CHSL 2023
Q66. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT ENSURES EQUAL PROTECTION OF LAWS?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 15
C. ARTICLE 16
D. ARTICLE 17
ANSWER: A. ARTICLE 14
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 14 GUARANTEES EQUALITY BEFORE LAW AND EQUAL PROTECTION OF LAWS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2023
Q67. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH FREEDOM FROM PAYMENT OF TAXES FOR PROMOTION OF RELIGION?
A. ARTICLE 25
B. ARTICLE 26
C. ARTICLE 27
D. ARTICLE 28
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 27
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 27 PROHIBITS COMPELLING ANY PERSON TO PAY TAXES FOR PROMOTION OF A PARTICULAR RELIGION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q68. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES FREEDOM FROM ATTENDING RELIGIOUS INSTRUCTION IN EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS?
A. ARTICLE 25
B. ARTICLE 26
C. ARTICLE 27
D. ARTICLE 28
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 28
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 28 PROVIDES FREEDOM FROM ATTENDING RELIGIOUS INSTRUCTION IN CERTAIN EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q69. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO UPHOLD SOVEREIGNTY AND INTEGRITY OF INDIA?
A. ARTICLE 51A(A)
B. ARTICLE 51A(B)
C. ARTICLE 51A(C)
D. ARTICLE 51A(D)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 51A(C)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(C) MAKES IT A DUTY TO UPHOLD AND PROTECT SOVEREIGNTY, UNITY, AND INTEGRITY OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q70. WHICH WRIT LITERALLY MEANS “TO HAVE THE BODY”?
A. MANDAMUS
B. CERTIORARI
C. HABEAS CORPUS
D. QUO WARRANTO
ANSWER: C. HABEAS CORPUS
EXPLANATION:
HABEAS CORPUS IS ISSUED TO PRODUCE AN ARRESTED PERSON BEFORE THE COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC CPO 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q71. WHICH ARTICLE PERMITS REASONABLE RESTRICTIONS ON FREEDOM OF SPEECH?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 18
C. ARTICLE 19
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 19
EXPLANATION:
FREEDOM UNDER ARTICLE 19 IS NOT ABSOLUTE AND CAN BE RESTRICTED ON REASONABLE GROUNDS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q72. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT IS AVAILABLE TO BOTH CITIZENS AND FOREIGNERS?
A. ARTICLE 19 RIGHTS
B. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
C. FREEDOM OF PROFESSION
D. RIGHT TO FORM ASSOCIATIONS
ANSWER: B. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
EXPLANATION:
RIGHT TO EQUALITY UNDER ARTICLE 14 IS AVAILABLE TO BOTH CITIZENS AND FOREIGNERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CGL 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q73. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS CITIZENS FROM EX-POST FACTO LAWS?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 20
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 20 PROTECTS INDIVIDUALS AGAINST RETROSPECTIVE CRIMINAL LAWS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q74. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT REMOVED RIGHT TO PROPERTY FROM FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 44TH AMENDMENT
C. 52ND AMENDMENT
D. 61ST AMENDMENT
ANSWER: B. 44TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 44TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1978 REMOVED RIGHT TO PROPERTY FROM FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q75. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY WAS ADDED BY THE 86TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT?
A. PROTECTION OF ENVIRONMENT
B. DEVELOPMENT OF SCIENTIFIC TEMPER
C. EDUCATION OF CHILDREN
D. SAFEGUARDING PUBLIC PROPERTY
ANSWER: C. EDUCATION OF CHILDREN
EXPLANATION:
THE DUTY RELATED TO EDUCATION OF CHILDREN AGED 6–14 YEARS WAS ADDED BY THE 86TH AMENDMENT ACT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q76. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO RESTRICT FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS DURING MARTIAL LAW?
A. ARTICLE 32
B. ARTICLE 33
C. ARTICLE 34
D. ARTICLE 35
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 34
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 34 ALLOWS RESTRICTIONS ON FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS WHILE MARTIAL LAW IS IN FORCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q77. WHICH ARTICLE GIVES PARLIAMENT POWER TO MAKE LAWS REGARDING FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. ARTICLE 32
B. ARTICLE 33
C. ARTICLE 34
D. ARTICLE 35
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 35
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 35 EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO MAKE LAWS REGARDING CERTAIN FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q78. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT PROTECTS FREEDOM OF CONSCIENCE?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
C. RIGHT TO RELIGION
D. CULTURAL RIGHTS
ANSWER: C. RIGHT TO RELIGION
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 25 GUARANTEES FREEDOM OF CONSCIENCE AND RELIGION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q79. WHICH WRIT IS ISSUED BY A HIGHER COURT TO QUASH AN ORDER OF A LOWER COURT?
A. MANDAMUS
B. CERTIORARI
C. HABEAS CORPUS
D. PROHIBITION
ANSWER: B. CERTIORARI
EXPLANATION:
CERTIORARI IS ISSUED TO QUASH THE ORDER OF A LOWER COURT OR TRIBUNAL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q80. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY INSPIRES CITIZENS TO PROTECT NATIONAL HERITAGE?
A. ARTICLE 51A(E)
B. ARTICLE 51A(F)
C. ARTICLE 51A(G)
D. ARTICLE 51A(H)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(F)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(F) DIRECTS CITIZENS TO PRESERVE INDIA’S RICH CULTURAL HERITAGE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q81. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT GUARANTEES FREEDOM TO FORM COOPERATIVE SOCIETIES?
A. ARTICLE 18
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 20
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 19
EXPLANATION:
THE 97TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ADDED THE RIGHT TO FORM COOPERATIVE SOCIETIES UNDER ARTICLE 19(1)(C).
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q82. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES EQUALITY BEFORE LAW?
A. ARTICLE 13
B. ARTICLE 14
C. ARTICLE 15
D. ARTICLE 16
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 14
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 14 GUARANTEES EQUALITY BEFORE LAW AND EQUAL PROTECTION OF LAWS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q83. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT PROTECTS CITIZENS FROM ARBITRARY ARREST?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 22
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 22 PROVIDES SAFEGUARDS AGAINST ARBITRARY ARREST AND DETENTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q84. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO CHERISH IDEALS OF THE FREEDOM STRUGGLE?
A. ARTICLE 51A(A)
B. ARTICLE 51A(B)
C. ARTICLE 51A(C)
D. ARTICLE 51A(D)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(B)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(B) DIRECTS CITIZENS TO CHERISH AND FOLLOW NOBLE IDEALS OF THE NATIONAL FREEDOM STRUGGLE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q85. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES PROTECTION AGAINST DOUBLE JEOPARDY?
A. ARTICLE 18
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 20
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 20
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 20 PROTECTS INDIVIDUALS FROM BEING PUNISHED TWICE FOR THE SAME OFFENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q86. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT INCLUDES FREEDOM OF MOVEMENT?
A. ARTICLE 18
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 19
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(D) PROVIDES FREEDOM TO MOVE FREELY THROUGHOUT INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q87. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS THE SUPREME COURT TO ENFORCE FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. ARTICLE 30
B. ARTICLE 31
C. ARTICLE 32
D. ARTICLE 35
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 32
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 32 EMPOWERS THE SUPREME COURT TO ISSUE WRITS FOR ENFORCEMENT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q88. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT WAS REMOVED BY THE 44TH AMENDMENT?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT TO PROPERTY
C. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
D. RIGHT TO RELIGION
ANSWER: B. RIGHT TO PROPERTY
EXPLANATION:
THE RIGHT TO PROPERTY WAS REMOVED FROM FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS BY THE 44TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q89. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO PROTECT THE ENVIRONMENT?
A. ARTICLE 51A(E)
B. ARTICLE 51A(F)
C. ARTICLE 51A(G)
D. ARTICLE 51A(H)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 51A(G)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(G) DIRECTS CITIZENS TO PROTECT FORESTS, LAKES, RIVERS, AND WILDLIFE.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CGL 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q90. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES FREE AND COMPULSORY EDUCATION?
A. ARTICLE 20A
B. ARTICLE 21A
C. ARTICLE 22A
D. ARTICLE 23A
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 21A
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 21A PROVIDES FREE AND COMPULSORY EDUCATION TO CHILDREN AGED 6 TO 14 YEARS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q91. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT INCLUDES FREEDOM TO RESIDE ANYWHERE IN INDIA?
A. ARTICLE 18
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 20
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 19
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(E) GUARANTEES FREEDOM TO RESIDE AND SETTLE IN ANY PART OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q92. WHICH WRIT IS CALLED A JUDICIAL ORDER COMMANDING PERFORMANCE OF DUTY?
A. HABEAS CORPUS
B. MANDAMUS
C. CERTIORARI
D. QUO WARRANTO
ANSWER: B. MANDAMUS
EXPLANATION:
MANDAMUS IS ISSUED BY A COURT ORDERING A PUBLIC AUTHORITY TO PERFORM ITS LEGAL DUTY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q93. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH CULTURAL AND EDUCATIONAL RIGHTS?
A. ARTICLE 25–28
B. ARTICLE 29–30
C. ARTICLE 31–32
D. ARTICLE 33–35
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 29–30
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLES 29 AND 30 PROTECT THE CULTURAL AND EDUCATIONAL RIGHTS OF MINORITIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q94. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO DEVELOP SCIENTIFIC TEMPER?
A. ARTICLE 51A(G)
B. ARTICLE 51A(H)
C. ARTICLE 51A(I)
D. ARTICLE 51A(J)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(H)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(H) PROMOTES SCIENTIFIC TEMPER AND HUMANISM.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q95. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS AGAINST SELF-INCRIMINATION?
A. ARTICLE 18
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 20
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 20
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 20(3) PROTECTS AN ACCUSED PERSON FROM BEING COMPELLED TO TESTIFY AGAINST HIMSELF.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q96. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT INCLUDES FREEDOM OF PROFESSION?
A. ARTICLE 18
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 20
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 19
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(G) GUARANTEES FREEDOM TO PRACTICE ANY PROFESSION OR OCCUPATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q97. WHICH ARTICLE ABOLISHES UNTOUCHABILITY?
A. ARTICLE 15
B. ARTICLE 16
C. ARTICLE 17
D. ARTICLE 18
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 17
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 17 ABOLISHES UNTOUCHABILITY AND FORBIDS ITS PRACTICE IN ANY FORM.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
SSC MTS 2023
Q98. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO STRIVE TOWARDS EXCELLENCE?
A. ARTICLE 51A(G)
B. ARTICLE 51A(H)
C. ARTICLE 51A(I)
D. ARTICLE 51A(J)
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 51A(J)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(J) DIRECTS CITIZENS TO STRIVE TOWARDS EXCELLENCE IN ALL SPHERES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2021
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q99. WHICH ARTICLE PROHIBITS DISCRIMINATION ON GROUNDS OF RELIGION, RACE, CASTE, SEX, OR PLACE OF BIRTH?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 15
C. ARTICLE 16
D. ARTICLE 17
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 15
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 15 PROHIBITS DISCRIMINATION BY THE STATE ON VARIOUS GROUNDS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CGL 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q100. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT IS RELATED TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES?
A. ARTICLE 29
B. ARTICLE 30
C. ARTICLE 31
D. ARTICLE 32
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 32
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 32 GUARANTEES THE RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES FOR ENFORCEMENT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q101. WHICH ARTICLE OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION DEFINES THE TERM ‘STATE’ FOR FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. ARTICLE 10
B. ARTICLE 11
C. ARTICLE 12
D. ARTICLE 13
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 12
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 12 DEFINES THE TERM ‘STATE’ FOR THE PURPOSE OF ENFORCEMENT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS. IT INCLUDES THE GOVERNMENT, PARLIAMENT, STATE LEGISLATURES, LOCAL AUTHORITIES, AND OTHER AUTHORITIES WITHIN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q102. WHICH ARTICLE DECLARES LAWS INCONSISTENT WITH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS AS VOID?
A. ARTICLE 12
B. ARTICLE 13
C. ARTICLE 14
D. ARTICLE 15
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 13
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 13 DECLARES THAT ANY LAW INCONSISTENT WITH OR VIOLATING FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS SHALL BE VOID.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q103. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT GUARANTEES EQUAL ACCESS TO PUBLIC PLACES?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 15
C. ARTICLE 16
D. ARTICLE 17
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 15
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 15 PROHIBITS DISCRIMINATION AND ENSURES EQUAL ACCESS TO SHOPS, HOTELS, WELLS, TANKS, AND PUBLIC PLACES.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q104. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES FREEDOM TO ACQUIRE, HOLD, AND DISPOSE OF PROPERTY BEFORE ITS REMOVAL?
A. ARTICLE 19(1)(F)
B. ARTICLE 20
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: A. ARTICLE 19(1)(F)
EXPLANATION:
BEFORE THE 44TH AMENDMENT, ARTICLE 19(1)(F) GUARANTEED THE RIGHT TO PROPERTY AS A FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC CGL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q105. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO RESPECT THE NATIONAL ANTHEM?
A. ARTICLE 51A(A)
B. ARTICLE 51A(B)
C. ARTICLE 51A(C)
D. ARTICLE 51A(D)
ANSWER: A. ARTICLE 51A(A)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(A) DIRECTS EVERY CITIZEN TO RESPECT THE CONSTITUTION, NATIONAL FLAG, AND NATIONAL ANTHEM.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q106. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES PROTECTION AGAINST EX-POST FACTO CRIMINAL LAWS?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 20
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 20 PROTECTS CITIZENS AGAINST RETROSPECTIVE CRIMINAL LAWS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q107. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT INCLUDES FREEDOM TO ESTABLISH EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT TO RELIGION
C. CULTURAL AND EDUCATIONAL RIGHTS
D. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
ANSWER: C. CULTURAL AND EDUCATIONAL RIGHTS
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 30 GRANTS MINORITIES THE RIGHT TO ESTABLISH AND ADMINISTER EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q108. WHICH ARTICLE PERMITS THE STATE TO MAKE SPECIAL PROVISIONS FOR SOCIALLY AND EDUCATIONALLY BACKWARD CLASSES?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 15(4)
C. ARTICLE 16(1)
D. ARTICLE 17
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 15(4)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 15(4) ALLOWS SPECIAL PROVISIONS FOR ADVANCEMENT OF SOCIALLY AND EDUCATIONALLY BACKWARD CLASSES.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CGL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q109. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO RENOUNCE PRACTICES DEROGATORY TO WOMEN?
A. ARTICLE 51A(D)
B. ARTICLE 51A(E)
C. ARTICLE 51A(F)
D. ARTICLE 51A(G)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(E)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(E) PROMOTES HARMONY AND ASKS CITIZENS TO RENOUNCE PRACTICES DEROGATORY TO THE DIGNITY OF WOMEN.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q110. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT INCLUDES FREEDOM OF CONSCIENCE?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT TO RELIGION
C. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
D. CULTURAL RIGHTS
ANSWER: B. RIGHT TO RELIGION
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 25 GUARANTEES FREEDOM OF CONSCIENCE AND FREE PROFESSION, PRACTICE, AND PROPAGATION OF RELIGION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q111. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES PROTECTION OF LIFE AND PERSONAL LIBERTY?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 21
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 21 GUARANTEES THAT NO PERSON SHALL BE DEPRIVED OF LIFE OR PERSONAL LIBERTY EXCEPT ACCORDING TO PROCEDURE ESTABLISHED BY LAW.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q113. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES PROTECTION AGAINST ARBITRARY AND EXCESSIVE PUNISHMENT?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 20
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 20 PROVIDES PROTECTION IN RESPECT OF CONVICTION FOR OFFENCES AND PROTECTS CITIZENS AGAINST ARBITRARY PUNISHMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q114. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ENCOURAGES CITIZENS TO PRESERVE INDIA’S COMPOSITE CULTURE?
A. ARTICLE 51A(E)
B. ARTICLE 51A(F)
C. ARTICLE 51A(G)
D. ARTICLE 51A(H)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(F)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(F) DIRECTS CITIZENS TO VALUE AND PRESERVE THE RICH HERITAGE OF INDIA’S COMPOSITE CULTURE.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CGL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q115. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES FREEDOM TO PRACTICE AND PROPAGATE RELIGION?
A. ARTICLE 24
B. ARTICLE 25
C. ARTICLE 26
D. ARTICLE 27
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 25
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 25 GUARANTEES FREEDOM OF CONSCIENCE AND FREE PROFESSION, PRACTICE, AND PROPAGATION OF RELIGION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q116. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT PROTECTS CITIZENS AGAINST HUMAN TRAFFICKING?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION
C. RIGHT TO RELIGION
D. CULTURAL RIGHTS
ANSWER: B. RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 23 UNDER RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION PROHIBITS TRAFFICKING IN HUMAN BEINGS AND FORCED LABOUR.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2021
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q117. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS HIGH COURTS TO ISSUE WRITS?
A. ARTICLE 32
B. ARTICLE 136
C. ARTICLE 226
D. ARTICLE 356
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 226
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 226 EMPOWERS HIGH COURTS TO ISSUE WRITS FOR ENFORCEMENT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS AND OTHER PURPOSES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q118. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO SAFEGUARD PUBLIC PROPERTY?
A. ARTICLE 51A(G)
B. ARTICLE 51A(H)
C. ARTICLE 51A(I)
D. ARTICLE 51A(J)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 51A(I)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(I) DIRECTS CITIZENS TO SAFEGUARD PUBLIC PROPERTY AND ABJURE VIOLENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q119. WHICH ARTICLE ABOLISHES UNTOUCHABILITY IN INDIA?
A. ARTICLE 15
B. ARTICLE 16
C. ARTICLE 17
D. ARTICLE 18
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 17
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 17 ABOLISHES UNTOUCHABILITY AND FORBIDS ITS PRACTICE IN ANY FORM.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CGL 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC MTS 2023
Q120. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT GUARANTEES CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES?
A. ARTICLE 29
B. ARTICLE 30
C. ARTICLE 31
D. ARTICLE 32
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 32
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 32 PROVIDES THE RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES AND ALLOWS CITIZENS TO APPROACH THE SUPREME COURT FOR ENFORCEMENT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC CGL 2023
Q121. WHICH ARTICLE OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION GUARANTEES EQUALITY OF OPPORTUNITY IN MATTERS OF PUBLIC EMPLOYMENT?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 15
C. ARTICLE 16
D. ARTICLE 17
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 16
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 16 GUARANTEES EQUALITY OF OPPORTUNITY FOR ALL CITIZENS IN MATTERS RELATING TO EMPLOYMENT OR APPOINTMENT TO ANY OFFICE UNDER THE STATE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
SSC MTS 2023
Q122. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS MINORITIES’ RIGHT TO CONSERVE THEIR LANGUAGE AND CULTURE?
A. ARTICLE 28
B. ARTICLE 29
C. ARTICLE 30
D. ARTICLE 31
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 29
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 29 PROTECTS THE INTERESTS OF MINORITIES BY ALLOWING THEM TO CONSERVE THEIR LANGUAGE, SCRIPT, AND CULTURE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q123. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO DEFEND THE COUNTRY AND RENDER NATIONAL SERVICE?
A. ARTICLE 51A(C)
B. ARTICLE 51A(D)
C. ARTICLE 51A(E)
D. ARTICLE 51A(F)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(D)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(D) MAKES IT A DUTY OF EVERY CITIZEN TO DEFEND THE COUNTRY AND RENDER NATIONAL SERVICE WHEN CALLED UPON.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q124. WHICH ARTICLE GRANTS MINORITIES THE RIGHT TO ESTABLISH AND ADMINISTER EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS?
A. ARTICLE 28
B. ARTICLE 29
C. ARTICLE 30
D. ARTICLE 32
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 30
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 30 GIVES MINORITIES THE RIGHT TO ESTABLISH AND ADMINISTER EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS OF THEIR CHOICE.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q125. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT IS SUSPENDED AUTOMATICALLY DURING NATIONAL EMERGENCY UNDER ARTICLE 359?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 20
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 19
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19 REMAINS SUSPENDED DURING NATIONAL EMERGENCY DECLARED ON GROUNDS OF WAR OR EXTERNAL AGGRESSION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q126. WHICH WRIT IS ISSUED TO INQUIRE INTO THE LEGALITY OF A PERSON’S CLAIM TO A PUBLIC OFFICE?
A. MANDAMUS
B. CERTIORARI
C. QUO WARRANTO
D. HABEAS CORPUS
ANSWER: C. QUO WARRANTO
EXPLANATION:
QUO WARRANTO MEANS “BY WHAT AUTHORITY” AND IS ISSUED TO PREVENT ILLEGAL OCCUPATION OF PUBLIC OFFICE.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CGL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q127. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH PROTECTION AGAINST ARREST AND DETENTION?
A. ARTICLE 20
B. ARTICLE 21
C. ARTICLE 22
D. ARTICLE 23
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 22
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 22 PROVIDES SAFEGUARDS AGAINST ARBITRARY ARREST AND DETENTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q128. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ENCOURAGES CITIZENS TO DEVELOP SCIENTIFIC TEMPER AND SPIRIT OF INQUIRY?
A. ARTICLE 51A(F)
B. ARTICLE 51A(G)
C. ARTICLE 51A(H)
D. ARTICLE 51A(I)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 51A(H)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(H) DIRECTS CITIZENS TO DEVELOP SCIENTIFIC TEMPER, HUMANISM, AND SPIRIT OF INQUIRY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q129. WHICH ARTICLE PROHIBITS TRAFFIC IN HUMAN BEINGS AND FORCED LABOUR?
A. ARTICLE 22
B. ARTICLE 23
C. ARTICLE 24
D. ARTICLE 25
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 23
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 23 PROHIBITS TRAFFICKING IN HUMAN BEINGS, BEGAR, AND FORCED LABOUR.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q130. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY DIRECTS CITIZENS TO PROTECT AND IMPROVE THE NATURAL ENVIRONMENT?
A. ARTICLE 51A(F)
B. ARTICLE 51A(G)
C. ARTICLE 51A(H)
D. ARTICLE 51A(J)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(G)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(G) ASKS CITIZENS TO PROTECT FORESTS, LAKES, RIVERS, WILDLIFE, AND NATURAL ENVIRONMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q131. WHICH ARTICLE OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION ABOLISHES UNTOUCHABILITY AND FORBIDS ITS PRACTICE IN ANY FORM?
A. ARTICLE 15
B. ARTICLE 16
C. ARTICLE 17
D. ARTICLE 18
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 17
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 17 ABOLISHES UNTOUCHABILITY AND DECLARES ITS PRACTICE IN ANY FORM AS AN OFFENCE PUNISHABLE BY LAW.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
SSC MTS 2023
Q132. WHICH ARTICLE ABOLISHES TITLES EXCEPT MILITARY AND ACADEMIC DISTINCTIONS?
A. ARTICLE 15
B. ARTICLE 16
C. ARTICLE 17
D. ARTICLE 18
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 18
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 18 ABOLISHES TITLES AND PROHIBITS THE STATE FROM CONFERRING TITLES EXCEPT MILITARY AND ACADEMIC DISTINCTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q133. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT INCLUDES FREEDOM TO ASSEMBLE PEACEFULLY WITHOUT ARMS?
A. ARTICLE 18
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 20
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 19
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(B) GUARANTEES CITIZENS THE RIGHT TO ASSEMBLE PEACEFULLY AND WITHOUT ARMS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q134. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS CITIZENS AGAINST SELF-INCRIMINATION?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 20
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 20(3) STATES THAT NO PERSON ACCUSED OF AN OFFENCE SHALL BE COMPELLED TO BE A WITNESS AGAINST HIMSELF.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q135. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO CHERISH THE NOBLE IDEALS OF THE FREEDOM STRUGGLE?
A. ARTICLE 51A(A)
B. ARTICLE 51A(B)
C. ARTICLE 51A(C)
D. ARTICLE 51A(D)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(B)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(B) DIRECTS CITIZENS TO CHERISH AND FOLLOW THE NOBLE IDEALS OF THE NATIONAL FREEDOM MOVEMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q136. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES FREEDOM TO MOVE FREELY THROUGHOUT THE TERRITORY OF INDIA?
A. ARTICLE 19(1)(A)
B. ARTICLE 19(1)(B)
C. ARTICLE 19(1)(D)
D. ARTICLE 19(1)(G)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 19(1)(D)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(D) GUARANTEES FREEDOM TO MOVE FREELY THROUGHOUT INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q137. WHICH ARTICLE PROHIBITS EMPLOYMENT OF CHILDREN BELOW 14 YEARS IN HAZARDOUS OCCUPATIONS?
A. ARTICLE 22
B. ARTICLE 23
C. ARTICLE 24
D. ARTICLE 25
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 24
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 24 PROHIBITS EMPLOYMENT OF CHILDREN BELOW 14 YEARS IN FACTORIES, MINES, AND HAZARDOUS OCCUPATIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q138. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO PRESERVE THE RICH HERITAGE OF INDIAN CULTURE?
A. ARTICLE 51A(E)
B. ARTICLE 51A(F)
C. ARTICLE 51A(G)
D. ARTICLE 51A(H)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(F)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(F) DIRECTS CITIZENS TO PRESERVE THE RICH HERITAGE OF INDIA’S COMPOSITE CULTURE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q139. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO MAKE LAWS REGARDING FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. ARTICLE 32
B. ARTICLE 33
C. ARTICLE 34
D. ARTICLE 35
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 35
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 35 GIVES PARLIAMENT AUTHORITY TO MAKE LAWS ON MATTERS RELATED TO FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q140. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT PROTECTS FREEDOM OF RELIGION?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
C. RIGHT TO RELIGION
D. CULTURAL RIGHTS
ANSWER: C. RIGHT TO RELIGION
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLES 25 TO 28 GUARANTEE FREEDOM OF RELIGION.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q141. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES FREEDOM TO RESIDE AND SETTLE IN ANY PART OF INDIA?
A. ARTICLE 19(1)(C)
B. ARTICLE 19(1)(D)
C. ARTICLE 19(1)(E)
D. ARTICLE 19(1)(G)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 19(1)(E)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(E) GUARANTEES EVERY CITIZEN THE FREEDOM TO RESIDE AND SETTLE IN ANY PART OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q142. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT PROTECTS AGAINST FORCED LABOUR?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION
C. RIGHT TO RELIGION
D. CULTURAL RIGHTS
ANSWER: B. RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 23 UNDER RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION PROHIBITS FORCED LABOUR AND BEGAR.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q143. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES FREEDOM TO PRACTICE ANY PROFESSION OR OCCUPATION?
A. ARTICLE 19(1)(A)
B. ARTICLE 19(1)(C)
C. ARTICLE 19(1)(F)
D. ARTICLE 19(1)(G)
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 19(1)(G)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(G) GUARANTEES FREEDOM TO PRACTICE ANY PROFESSION OR CARRY ON ANY OCCUPATION, TRADE, OR BUSINESS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q144. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO UPHOLD AND PROTECT SOVEREIGNTY, UNITY, AND INTEGRITY OF INDIA?
A. ARTICLE 51A(A)
B. ARTICLE 51A(B)
C. ARTICLE 51A(C)
D. ARTICLE 51A(D)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 51A(C)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(C) DIRECTS CITIZENS TO UPHOLD AND PROTECT THE SOVEREIGNTY, UNITY, AND INTEGRITY OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q145. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES SAFEGUARDS AGAINST ARBITRARY ARREST AND DETENTION?
A. ARTICLE 20
B. ARTICLE 21
C. ARTICLE 22
D. ARTICLE 23
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 22
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 22 PROVIDES PROTECTION AGAINST ARBITRARY ARREST AND DETENTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q146. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES FREEDOM FROM PAYMENT OF TAXES FOR PROMOTION OF ANY RELIGION?
A. ARTICLE 25
B. ARTICLE 26
C. ARTICLE 27
D. ARTICLE 28
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 27
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 27 STATES THAT NO PERSON SHALL BE COMPELLED TO PAY TAXES FOR PROMOTION OF ANY RELIGION.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q147. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY DIRECTS CITIZENS TO PROTECT NATURAL ENVIRONMENT INCLUDING FORESTS AND WILDLIFE?
A. ARTICLE 51A(F)
B. ARTICLE 51A(G)
C. ARTICLE 51A(H)
D. ARTICLE 51A(I)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(G)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(G) MAKES IT A DUTY TO PROTECT AND IMPROVE NATURAL ENVIRONMENT INCLUDING FORESTS, RIVERS, LAKES, AND WILDLIFE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q148. WHICH ARTICLE GRANTS MINORITIES THE RIGHT TO ESTABLISH EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS OF THEIR CHOICE?
A. ARTICLE 28
B. ARTICLE 29
C. ARTICLE 30
D. ARTICLE 31
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 30
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 30 GRANTS MINORITIES THE RIGHT TO ESTABLISH AND ADMINISTER EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q149. WHICH ARTICLE DEFINES THE TERM ‘STATE’ IN RELATION TO FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. ARTICLE 11
B. ARTICLE 12
C. ARTICLE 13
D. ARTICLE 14
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 12
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 12 DEFINES THE TERM ‘STATE’ FOR THE ENFORCEMENT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q150. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT IS CALLED THE “HEART AND SOUL” OF THE CONSTITUTION?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
C. RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES
D. RIGHT TO RELIGION
ANSWER: C. RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES
EXPLANATION:
DR. B. R. AMBEDKAR CALLED ARTICLE 32 THE “HEART AND SOUL” OF THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC MTS 2023
Q151. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES FREEDOM OF SPEECH AND EXPRESSION?
A. ARTICLE 18
B. ARTICLE 19(1)(A)
C. ARTICLE 20
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 19(1)(A)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(A) GUARANTEES FREEDOM OF SPEECH AND EXPRESSION TO ALL CITIZENS OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q152. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY WAS ADDED BY THE 86TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT?
A. TO PROTECT THE ENVIRONMENT
B. TO DEFEND THE COUNTRY
C. TO PROVIDE EDUCATION TO CHILDREN
D. TO PRESERVE CULTURE
ANSWER: C. TO PROVIDE EDUCATION TO CHILDREN
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(K) WAS ADDED BY THE 86TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 2002. IT MAKES IT A DUTY OF PARENTS OR GUARDIANS TO PROVIDE EDUCATION TO CHILDREN BETWEEN 6 AND 14 YEARS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q153. WHICH WRIT IS ISSUED TO RELEASE A PERSON WHO HAS BEEN ILLEGALLY DETAINED?
A. MANDAMUS
B. CERTIORARI
C. HABEAS CORPUS
D. QUO WARRANTO
ANSWER: C. HABEAS CORPUS
EXPLANATION:
HABEAS CORPUS MEANS “TO HAVE THE BODY.” IT IS ISSUED TO PRODUCE A DETAINED PERSON BEFORE THE COURT AND SECURE RELEASE IF DETENTION IS ILLEGAL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC CPO 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q154. WHICH ARTICLE ALLOWS THE STATE TO MAKE RESERVATION FOR BACKWARD CLASSES IN PUBLIC EMPLOYMENT?
A. ARTICLE 15(1)
B. ARTICLE 15(3)
C. ARTICLE 16(4)
D. ARTICLE 17
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 16(4)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 16(4) EMPOWERS THE STATE TO MAKE RESERVATION IN PUBLIC EMPLOYMENT FOR BACKWARD CLASSES NOT ADEQUATELY REPRESENTED.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q155. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT PROTECTS FREEDOM TO MANAGE RELIGIOUS AFFAIRS?
A. ARTICLE 24
B. ARTICLE 25
C. ARTICLE 26
D. ARTICLE 27
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 26
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 26 GRANTS EVERY RELIGIOUS DENOMINATION THE RIGHT TO MANAGE ITS OWN RELIGIOUS AFFAIRS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q156. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH SUSPENSION OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS DURING EMERGENCY?
A. ARTICLE 352
B. ARTICLE 356
C. ARTICLE 358
D. ARTICLE 360
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 358
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 358 PROVIDES FOR AUTOMATIC SUSPENSION OF ARTICLE 19 DURING NATIONAL EMERGENCY DUE TO WAR OR EXTERNAL AGGRESSION.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q157. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY PROMOTES HARMONY AND BROTHERHOOD AMONG CITIZENS?
A. ARTICLE 51A(D)
B. ARTICLE 51A(E)
C. ARTICLE 51A(F)
D. ARTICLE 51A(G)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(E)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(E) DIRECTS CITIZENS TO PROMOTE HARMONY AND THE SPIRIT OF COMMON BROTHERHOOD TRANSCENDING RELIGIOUS, LINGUISTIC, AND REGIONAL DIVERSITIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q158. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS AGAINST EXPLOITATION OF CHILDREN IN HAZARDOUS EMPLOYMENT?
A. ARTICLE 22
B. ARTICLE 23
C. ARTICLE 24
D. ARTICLE 25
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 24
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 24 PROHIBITS EMPLOYMENT OF CHILDREN BELOW 14 YEARS IN FACTORIES, MINES, AND HAZARDOUS OCCUPATIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q159. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT ENSURES EQUAL PROTECTION OF LAWS?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 15
C. ARTICLE 16
D. ARTICLE 17
ANSWER: A. ARTICLE 14
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 14 GUARANTEES EQUALITY BEFORE LAW AND EQUAL PROTECTION OF LAWS WITHIN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q160. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY DIRECTS CITIZENS TO STRIVE TOWARDS EXCELLENCE IN ALL SPHERES?
A. ARTICLE 51A(G)
B. ARTICLE 51A(H)
C. ARTICLE 51A(I)
D. ARTICLE 51A(J)
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 51A(J)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(J) DIRECTS EVERY CITIZEN TO STRIVE TOWARDS EXCELLENCE IN ALL SPHERES OF INDIVIDUAL AND COLLECTIVE ACTIVITY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q161. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS THE SUPREME COURT TO ISSUE WRITS FOR ENFORCEMENT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. ARTICLE 30
B. ARTICLE 31
C. ARTICLE 32
D. ARTICLE 35
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 32
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 32 EMPOWERS THE SUPREME COURT TO ISSUE WRITS SUCH AS HABEAS CORPUS, MANDAMUS, CERTIORARI, PROHIBITION, AND QUO WARRANTO FOR ENFORCEMENT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q162. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT PROTECTS CITIZENS FROM DISCRIMINATION BASED ON RELIGION, RACE, CASTE, SEX, OR PLACE OF BIRTH?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 15
C. ARTICLE 16
D. ARTICLE 17
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 15
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 15 PROHIBITS DISCRIMINATION BY THE STATE ON GROUNDS OF RELIGION, RACE, CASTE, SEX, OR PLACE OF BIRTH.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q163. WHICH WRIT IS ISSUED BY A COURT TO COMMAND A PUBLIC AUTHORITY TO PERFORM ITS DUTY?
A. HABEAS CORPUS
B. MANDAMUS
C. CERTIORARI
D. QUO WARRANTO
ANSWER: B. MANDAMUS
EXPLANATION:
MANDAMUS MEANS “WE COMMAND.” IT IS ISSUED BY A COURT DIRECTING A PUBLIC OFFICIAL OR AUTHORITY TO PERFORM A LEGAL DUTY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC CPO 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q164. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS CITIZENS AGAINST DOUBLE JEOPARDY?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 20
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 20(2) PROVIDES PROTECTION AGAINST DOUBLE JEOPARDY, MEANING NO PERSON CAN BE PUNISHED TWICE FOR THE SAME OFFENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q165. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY DIRECTS CITIZENS TO SAFEGUARD PUBLIC PROPERTY AND ABJURE VIOLENCE?
A. ARTICLE 51A(G)
B. ARTICLE 51A(H)
C. ARTICLE 51A(I)
D. ARTICLE 51A(J)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 51A(I)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(I) MAKES IT THE DUTY OF CITIZENS TO SAFEGUARD PUBLIC PROPERTY AND AVOID VIOLENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q166. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES FREEDOM FROM ATTENDING RELIGIOUS INSTRUCTION IN CERTAIN EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS?
A. ARTICLE 25
B. ARTICLE 26
C. ARTICLE 27
D. ARTICLE 28
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 28
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 28 PROVIDES FREEDOM FROM ATTENDING RELIGIOUS INSTRUCTION IN EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS WHOLLY MAINTAINED BY THE STATE.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q167. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT GUARANTEES FREEDOM TO FORM ASSOCIATIONS OR UNIONS?
A. ARTICLE 19(1)(A)
B. ARTICLE 19(1)(B)
C. ARTICLE 19(1)(C)
D. ARTICLE 19(1)(D)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 19(1)(C)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(C) GUARANTEES CITIZENS THE RIGHT TO FORM ASSOCIATIONS, UNIONS, AND COOPERATIVE SOCIETIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q168. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS FREEDOM OF CONSCIENCE AND FREE PROFESSION OF RELIGION?
A. ARTICLE 24
B. ARTICLE 25
C. ARTICLE 26
D. ARTICLE 27
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 25
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 25 GUARANTEES FREEDOM OF CONSCIENCE AND FREE PROFESSION, PRACTICE, AND PROPAGATION OF RELIGION.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q169. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO RESPECT THE CONSTITUTION, NATIONAL FLAG, AND NATIONAL ANTHEM?
A. ARTICLE 51A(A)
B. ARTICLE 51A(B)
C. ARTICLE 51A(C)
D. ARTICLE 51A(D)
ANSWER: A. ARTICLE 51A(A)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(A) DIRECTS CITIZENS TO ABIDE BY THE CONSTITUTION AND RESPECT NATIONAL SYMBOLS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q170. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES FREE AND COMPULSORY EDUCATION FOR CHILDREN AGED 6 TO 14 YEARS?
A. ARTICLE 20A
B. ARTICLE 21A
C. ARTICLE 22A
D. ARTICLE 23A
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 21A
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 21A PROVIDES FREE AND COMPULSORY EDUCATION TO CHILDREN BETWEEN 6 AND 14 YEARS OF AGE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q171. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES EQUALITY BEFORE LAW AND EQUAL PROTECTION OF LAWS?
A. ARTICLE 13
B. ARTICLE 14
C. ARTICLE 15
D. ARTICLE 16
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 14
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 14 GUARANTEES EQUALITY BEFORE LAW AND EQUAL PROTECTION OF LAWS TO ALL PERSONS WITHIN THE TERRITORY OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q172. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT PROHIBITS HUMAN TRAFFICKING AND FORCED LABOUR?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION
C. RIGHT TO RELIGION
D. CULTURAL RIGHTS
ANSWER: B. RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 23 UNDER THE RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION PROHIBITS TRAFFICKING IN HUMAN BEINGS, BEGAR, AND FORCED LABOUR.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q173. WHICH WRIT IS ISSUED TO PREVENT A LOWER COURT FROM EXCEEDING ITS JURISDICTION?
A. HABEAS CORPUS
B. MANDAMUS
C. PROHIBITION
D. CERTIORARI
ANSWER: C. PROHIBITION
EXPLANATION:
THE WRIT OF PROHIBITION IS ISSUED BY A SUPERIOR COURT TO STOP A LOWER COURT OR TRIBUNAL FROM EXCEEDING ITS JURISDICTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q174. WHICH ARTICLE ABOLISHES UNTOUCHABILITY?
A. ARTICLE 15
B. ARTICLE 16
C. ARTICLE 17
D. ARTICLE 18
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 17
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 17 ABOLISHES UNTOUCHABILITY AND MAKES ITS PRACTICE PUNISHABLE BY LAW.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC MTS 2023
Q175. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO PRESERVE THE RICH HERITAGE OF INDIA’S COMPOSITE CULTURE?
A. ARTICLE 51A(E)
B. ARTICLE 51A(F)
C. ARTICLE 51A(G)
D. ARTICLE 51A(H)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(F)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(F) DIRECTS EVERY CITIZEN TO VALUE AND PRESERVE THE RICH HERITAGE OF INDIA’S COMPOSITE CULTURE.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q176. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES FREEDOM TO MOVE FREELY THROUGHOUT INDIA?
A. ARTICLE 19(1)(A)
B. ARTICLE 19(1)(B)
C. ARTICLE 19(1)(D)
D. ARTICLE 19(1)(G)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 19(1)(D)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(D) GUARANTEES FREEDOM OF MOVEMENT THROUGHOUT THE TERRITORY OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CGL 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q177. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS CITIZENS FROM ARBITRARY ARREST AND DETENTION?
A. ARTICLE 20
B. ARTICLE 21
C. ARTICLE 22
D. ARTICLE 23
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 22
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 22 PROVIDES SAFEGUARDS AGAINST ARBITRARY ARREST AND DETENTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q178. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY DIRECTS CITIZENS TO DEVELOP SCIENTIFIC TEMPER AND HUMANISM?
A. ARTICLE 51A(G)
B. ARTICLE 51A(H)
C. ARTICLE 51A(I)
D. ARTICLE 51A(J)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(H)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(H) DIRECTS CITIZENS TO DEVELOP SCIENTIFIC TEMPER, HUMANISM, AND THE SPIRIT OF INQUIRY AND REFORM.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q179. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES MINORITIES THE RIGHT TO ESTABLISH EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS?
A. ARTICLE 28
B. ARTICLE 29
C. ARTICLE 30
D. ARTICLE 31
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 30
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 30 GRANTS MINORITIES THE RIGHT TO ESTABLISH AND ADMINISTER EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS OF THEIR CHOICE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q180. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT IS KNOWN AS THE “HEART AND SOUL” OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
C. RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES
D. RIGHT TO RELIGION
ANSWER: C. RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES
EXPLANATION:
DR. B. R. AMBEDKAR DESCRIBED ARTICLE 32, THE RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES, AS THE “HEART AND SOUL” OF THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC MTS 2023
Q181. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES FREEDOM OF SPEECH AND EXPRESSION?
A. ARTICLE 18
B. ARTICLE 19(1)(A)
C. ARTICLE 20
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 19(1)(A)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(A) GUARANTEES FREEDOM OF SPEECH AND EXPRESSION TO INDIAN CITIZENS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q182. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT PROTECTS CHILDREN FROM HAZARDOUS EMPLOYMENT?
A. ARTICLE 22
B. ARTICLE 23
C. ARTICLE 24
D. ARTICLE 25
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 24
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 24 PROHIBITS EMPLOYMENT OF CHILDREN BELOW 14 YEARS IN FACTORIES, MINES, AND HAZARDOUS OCCUPATIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q183. WHICH WRIT IS ISSUED TO QUASH THE ORDER OF A LOWER COURT?
A. MANDAMUS
B. CERTIORARI
C. HABEAS CORPUS
D. PROHIBITION
ANSWER: B. CERTIORARI
EXPLANATION:
CERTIORARI IS ISSUED BY A HIGHER COURT TO QUASH THE ORDER OR DECISION OF A LOWER COURT OR TRIBUNAL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q184. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES FREEDOM TO FORM ASSOCIATIONS AND UNIONS?
A. ARTICLE 19(1)(A)
B. ARTICLE 19(1)(B)
C. ARTICLE 19(1)(C)
D. ARTICLE 19(1)(D)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 19(1)(C)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(C) GUARANTEES CITIZENS THE RIGHT TO FORM ASSOCIATIONS, UNIONS, AND COOPERATIVE SOCIETIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q185. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO DEFEND THE COUNTRY?
A. ARTICLE 51A(C)
B. ARTICLE 51A(D)
C. ARTICLE 51A(E)
D. ARTICLE 51A(F)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(D)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(D) MAKES IT THE DUTY OF EVERY CITIZEN TO DEFEND THE COUNTRY AND RENDER NATIONAL SERVICE WHEN CALLED UPON.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q186. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES EQUALITY OF OPPORTUNITY IN PUBLIC EMPLOYMENT?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 15
C. ARTICLE 16
D. ARTICLE 17
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 16
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 16 GUARANTEES EQUALITY OF OPPORTUNITY IN MATTERS OF PUBLIC EMPLOYMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CGL 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q187. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES FREE AND COMPULSORY EDUCATION TO CHILDREN AGED 6–14 YEARS?
A. ARTICLE 20A
B. ARTICLE 21A
C. ARTICLE 22A
D. ARTICLE 23A
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 21A
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 21A GUARANTEES FREE AND COMPULSORY EDUCATION TO CHILDREN BETWEEN 6 AND 14 YEARS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q188. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY DIRECTS CITIZENS TO PROTECT THE NATURAL ENVIRONMENT?
A. ARTICLE 51A(F)
B. ARTICLE 51A(G)
C. ARTICLE 51A(H)
D. ARTICLE 51A(I)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(G)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(G) ASKS CITIZENS TO PROTECT FORESTS, LAKES, RIVERS, WILDLIFE, AND THE ENVIRONMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q189. WHICH ARTICLE GRANTS MINORITIES THE RIGHT TO CONSERVE LANGUAGE AND CULTURE?
A. ARTICLE 28
B. ARTICLE 29
C. ARTICLE 30
D. ARTICLE 31
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 29
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 29 PROTECTS THE LANGUAGE, SCRIPT, AND CULTURE OF MINORITIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q190. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT ALLOWS CITIZENS TO MOVE THE SUPREME COURT DIRECTLY FOR ENFORCEMENT OF RIGHTS?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
C. RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES
D. RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION
ANSWER: C. RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 32 ALLOWS CITIZENS TO DIRECTLY APPROACH THE SUPREME COURT FOR ENFORCEMENT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC MTS 2023
Q191. WHICH ARTICLE PERMITS THE STATE TO MAKE SPECIAL PROVISIONS FOR WOMEN AND CHILDREN?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 15(3)
C. ARTICLE 16
D. ARTICLE 17
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 15(3)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 15(3) EMPOWERS THE STATE TO MAKE SPECIAL PROVISIONS FOR WOMEN AND CHILDREN.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q192. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT GUARANTEES FREEDOM TO ASSEMBLE PEACEFULLY WITHOUT ARMS?
A. ARTICLE 19(1)(A)
B. ARTICLE 19(1)(B)
C. ARTICLE 19(1)(C)
D. ARTICLE 19(1)(D)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 19(1)(B)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(B) GUARANTEES THE RIGHT TO ASSEMBLE PEACEFULLY AND WITHOUT ARMS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q193. WHICH WRIT LITERALLY MEANS “BY WHAT AUTHORITY”?
A. MANDAMUS
B. CERTIORARI
C. QUO WARRANTO
D. HABEAS CORPUS
ANSWER: C. QUO WARRANTO
EXPLANATION:
QUO WARRANTO IS ISSUED TO PREVENT ILLEGAL OCCUPATION OF A PUBLIC OFFICE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q194. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES PROTECTION OF LIFE AND PERSONAL LIBERTY?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 21
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 21 STATES THAT NO PERSON SHALL BE DEPRIVED OF LIFE OR PERSONAL LIBERTY EXCEPT ACCORDING TO PROCEDURE ESTABLISHED BY LAW.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC MTS 2023
Q195. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO PROMOTE HARMONY AND SPIRIT OF COMMON BROTHERHOOD?
A. ARTICLE 51A(D)
B. ARTICLE 51A(E)
C. ARTICLE 51A(F)
D. ARTICLE 51A(G)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(E)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(E) PROMOTES HARMONY AND BROTHERHOOD TRANSCENDING RELIGIOUS, LINGUISTIC, AND REGIONAL DIVERSITIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q196. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS CITIZENS AGAINST RETROSPECTIVE CRIMINAL LAWS?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 20
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 20 PROTECTS CITIZENS FROM EX-POST FACTO LAWS, DOUBLE JEOPARDY, AND SELF-INCRIMINATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q197. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH FREEDOM TO MANAGE RELIGIOUS AFFAIRS?
A. ARTICLE 25
B. ARTICLE 26
C. ARTICLE 27
D. ARTICLE 28
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 26
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 26 GRANTS RELIGIOUS DENOMINATIONS THE FREEDOM TO MANAGE THEIR OWN RELIGIOUS AFFAIRS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q198. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO DEVELOP SCIENTIFIC TEMPER AND SPIRIT OF INQUIRY?
A. ARTICLE 51A(G)
B. ARTICLE 51A(H)
C. ARTICLE 51A(I)
D. ARTICLE 51A(J)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(H)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(H) DIRECTS CITIZENS TO DEVELOP SCIENTIFIC TEMPER, HUMANISM, AND THE SPIRIT OF INQUIRY AND REFORM.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q199. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS THE INTERESTS OF MINORITIES IN EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS?
A. ARTICLE 28
B. ARTICLE 29
C. ARTICLE 30
D. ARTICLE 32
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 30
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 30 GRANTS MINORITIES THE RIGHT TO ESTABLISH AND ADMINISTER EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q200. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT IS ENFORCEABLE THROUGH WRITS ISSUED BY THE SUPREME COURT?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
C. RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES
D. RIGHT TO RELIGION
ANSWER: C. RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 32 PROVIDES CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES THROUGH WRITS FOR ENFORCEMENT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC MTS 2023
Q201. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS THE STATE TO MAKE SPECIAL PROVISIONS FOR SOCIALLY AND EDUCATIONALLY BACKWARD CLASSES?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 15(4)
C. ARTICLE 16(1)
D. ARTICLE 17
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 15(4)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 15(4) ALLOWS THE STATE TO MAKE SPECIAL PROVISIONS FOR THE ADVANCEMENT OF SOCIALLY AND EDUCATIONALLY BACKWARD CLASSES AND SCHEDULED CASTES AND SCHEDULED TRIBES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q202. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES PROTECTION AGAINST CONVICTION UNDER EX-POST FACTO LAWS?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20(1)
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 20(1)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 20(1) PROHIBITS CONVICTION FOR AN ACT THAT WAS NOT AN OFFENCE AT THE TIME IT WAS COMMITTED.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q203. WHICH WRIT IS ISSUED AGAINST A PERSON WHO UNLAWFULLY HOLDS A PUBLIC OFFICE?
A. HABEAS CORPUS
B. MANDAMUS
C. CERTIORARI
D. QUO WARRANTO
ANSWER: D. QUO WARRANTO
EXPLANATION:
QUO WARRANTO IS ISSUED TO CHALLENGE THE LEGALITY OF A PERSON’S CLAIM TO A PUBLIC OFFICE.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CGL 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q204. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS FREEDOM TO PROPAGATE RELIGION?
A. ARTICLE 24
B. ARTICLE 25
C. ARTICLE 26
D. ARTICLE 27
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 25
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 25 GUARANTEES FREEDOM OF CONSCIENCE AND THE RIGHT TO FREELY PROFESS, PRACTICE, AND PROPAGATE RELIGION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q205. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY DIRECTS CITIZENS TO VALUE AND PRESERVE THE RICH HERITAGE OF INDIA?
A. ARTICLE 51A(E)
B. ARTICLE 51A(F)
C. ARTICLE 51A(G)
D. ARTICLE 51A(H)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(F)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(F) ASKS EVERY CITIZEN TO PRESERVE THE RICH HERITAGE OF INDIA’S COMPOSITE CULTURE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q206. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES EQUALITY OF OPPORTUNITY IN PUBLIC EMPLOYMENT?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 15
C. ARTICLE 16
D. ARTICLE 18
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 16
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 16 GUARANTEES EQUAL OPPORTUNITY FOR ALL CITIZENS IN PUBLIC EMPLOYMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q207. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS CHILDREN FROM EMPLOYMENT IN HAZARDOUS INDUSTRIES?
A. ARTICLE 22
B. ARTICLE 23
C. ARTICLE 24
D. ARTICLE 25
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 24
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 24 PROHIBITS THE EMPLOYMENT OF CHILDREN BELOW 14 YEARS IN HAZARDOUS INDUSTRIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q208. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO PROTECT PUBLIC PROPERTY?
A. ARTICLE 51A(G)
B. ARTICLE 51A(H)
C. ARTICLE 51A(I)
D. ARTICLE 51A(J)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 51A(I)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(I) DIRECTS CITIZENS TO SAFEGUARD PUBLIC PROPERTY AND REJECT VIOLENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2021
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q209. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES THE RIGHT OF MINORITIES TO CONSERVE THEIR LANGUAGE AND SCRIPT?
A. ARTICLE 28
B. ARTICLE 29
C. ARTICLE 30
D. ARTICLE 31
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 29
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 29 PROTECTS THE CULTURAL AND EDUCATIONAL RIGHTS OF MINORITIES INCLUDING LANGUAGE AND SCRIPT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q210. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT CAN BE SUSPENDED DURING A NATIONAL EMERGENCY?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 20
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 19
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19 IS AUTOMATICALLY SUSPENDED DURING A NATIONAL EMERGENCY CAUSED BY WAR OR EXTERNAL AGGRESSION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q210. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT CAN BE SUSPENDED DURING A NATIONAL EMERGENCY?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 20
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 19
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19 IS AUTOMATICALLY SUSPENDED DURING A NATIONAL EMERGENCY CAUSED BY WAR OR EXTERNAL AGGRESSION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q211. WHICH ARTICLE PROHIBITS DISCRIMINATION IN ACCESS TO SHOPS, HOTELS, AND PUBLIC PLACES?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 15(2)
C. ARTICLE 16
D. ARTICLE 17
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 15(2)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 15(2) PROHIBITS DISCRIMINATION ON GROUNDS OF RELIGION, RACE, CASTE, SEX, OR PLACE OF BIRTH IN ACCESS TO PUBLIC PLACES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q212. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES THE RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES?
A. ARTICLE 30
B. ARTICLE 31
C. ARTICLE 32
D. ARTICLE 35
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 32
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 32 ALLOWS INDIVIDUALS TO APPROACH THE SUPREME COURT FOR ENFORCEMENT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q213. WHICH WRIT IS ISSUED TO TRANSFER A CASE FROM A LOWER COURT TO A HIGHER COURT FOR REVIEW?
A. HABEAS CORPUS
B. MANDAMUS
C. CERTIORARI
D. QUO WARRANTO
ANSWER: C. CERTIORARI
EXPLANATION:
CERTIORARI IS ISSUED BY A HIGHER COURT TO REVIEW AND QUASH THE ORDER OF A LOWER COURT OR TRIBUNAL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC CGL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q214. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES FREEDOM TO FORM COOPERATIVE SOCIETIES?
A. ARTICLE 19(1)(A)
B. ARTICLE 19(1)(B)
C. ARTICLE 19(1)(C)
D. ARTICLE 19(1)(G)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 19(1)(C)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(C) GUARANTEES THE RIGHT TO FORM ASSOCIATIONS, UNIONS, AND COOPERATIVE SOCIETIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q215. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY WAS ORIGINALLY NOT PART OF THE CONSTITUTION IN 1950?
A. RESPECT THE NATIONAL FLAG
B. PROTECT PUBLIC PROPERTY
C. DEVELOP SCIENTIFIC TEMPER
D. ALL OF THESE
ANSWER: D. ALL OF THESE
EXPLANATION:
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES WERE ADDED LATER BY THE 42ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1976.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q216. WHICH ARTICLE ABOLISHES TITLES SUCH AS RAI BAHADUR AND KHAN BAHADUR?
A. ARTICLE 16
B. ARTICLE 17
C. ARTICLE 18
D. ARTICLE 19
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 18
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 18 ABOLISHES TITLES AND PREVENTS THE STATE FROM CONFERRING HEREDITARY DISTINCTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC CPO 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q217. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT ENSURES PROTECTION AGAINST SELF-INCRIMINATION?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20(3)
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 20(3)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 20(3) STATES THAT NO ACCUSED PERSON SHALL BE COMPELLED TO BE A WITNESS AGAINST HIMSELF.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q218. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES FREEDOM FROM RELIGIOUS INSTRUCTION IN STATE EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS?
A. ARTICLE 25
B. ARTICLE 26
C. ARTICLE 27
D. ARTICLE 28
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 28EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 28 PROHIBITS RELIGIOUS INSTRUCTION IN EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS WHOLLY FUNDED BY THE STATE.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q219. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS PARENTS TO PROVIDE EDUCATION OPPORTUNITIES TO CHILDREN AGED 6–14 YEARS?
A. ARTICLE 51A(I)
B. ARTICLE 51A(J)
C. ARTICLE 51A(K)
D. ARTICLE 51A(H)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 51A(K)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(K) MAKES IT A DUTY OF PARENTS OR GUARDIANS TO PROVIDE EDUCATION TO CHILDREN BETWEEN 6 AND 14 YEARS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q220. WHICH ARTICLE DEFINES LAWS INCONSISTENT WITH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS AS VOID?
A. ARTICLE 11
B. ARTICLE 12
C. ARTICLE 13
D. ARTICLE 14
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 13
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 13 DECLARES THAT LAWS INCONSISTENT WITH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS SHALL BE VOID.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CGL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q220. WHICH ARTICLE DEFINES LAWS INCONSISTENT WITH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS AS VOID?
A. ARTICLE 11
B. ARTICLE 12
C. ARTICLE 13
D. ARTICLE 14
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 13
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 13 DECLARES THAT LAWS INCONSISTENT WITH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS SHALL BE VOID.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CGL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q221. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A REASONABLE RESTRICTION ON FREEDOM OF SPEECH UNDER ARTICLE 19?
A. PUBLIC ORDER
B. SECURITY OF STATE
C. DEFAMATION
D. ALL OF THESE
ANSWER: D. ALL OF THESE
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(2) ALLOWS THE STATE TO IMPOSE REASONABLE RESTRICTIONS ON FREEDOM OF SPEECH IN THE INTERESTS OF PUBLIC ORDER, SECURITY OF STATE, DEFAMATION, MORALITY, AND SOVEREIGNTY OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q222. PREVENTIVE DETENTION IS MAINLY RELATED TO WHICH ARTICLE?
A. ARTICLE 20
B. ARTICLE 21
C. ARTICLE 22
D. ARTICLE 23
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 22
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 22 PROVIDES SAFEGUARDS RELATING TO ARREST AND DETENTION, INCLUDING PREVENTIVE DETENTION LAWS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q223. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO RESTRICT FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS OF ARMED FORCES?
A. ARTICLE 32
B. ARTICLE 33
C. ARTICLE 34
D. ARTICLE 35
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 33
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 33 EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO MODIFY FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS FOR ARMED FORCES, POLICE FORCES, AND INTELLIGENCE AGENCIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CGL 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q224. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH RESTRICTIONS ON FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS DURING MARTIAL LAW?
A. ARTICLE 33
B. ARTICLE 34
C. ARTICLE 35
D. ARTICLE 36
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 34
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 34 PROVIDES FOR RESTRICTIONS ON FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS WHILE MARTIAL LAW IS IN FORCE IN ANY AREA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q225. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT REMOVED RIGHT TO PROPERTY FROM FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 44TH AMENDMENT
C. 52ND AMENDMENT
D. 61ST AMENDMENT
ANSWER: B. 44TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 44TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1978 REMOVED RIGHT TO PROPERTY FROM FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS AND MADE IT A LEGAL RIGHT UNDER ARTICLE 300A.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q226. RIGHT TO PROPERTY IS NOW A:
A. FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT
B. CONSTITUTIONAL RIGHT
C. LEGAL RIGHT
D. NATURAL RIGHT
ANSWER: C. LEGAL RIGHT
EXPLANATION:
AFTER THE 44TH AMENDMENT, RIGHT TO PROPERTY BECAME A LEGAL RIGHT UNDER ARTICLE 300A.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q227. FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES WERE ADDED TO THE CONSTITUTION BY WHICH AMENDMENT?
A. 24TH AMENDMENT
B. 42ND AMENDMENT
C. 44TH AMENDMENT
D. 52ND AMENDMENT
ANSWER: B. 42ND AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 42ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1976 ADDED FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES TO THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CGL 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q228. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT INSERTED ARTICLE 21A?
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 44TH AMENDMENT
C. 86TH AMENDMENT
D. 97TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER: C. 86TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 86TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 2002 INSERTED ARTICLE 21A PROVIDING RIGHT TO EDUCATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q229. WHICH ARTICLE SUSPENDS ARTICLE 19 DURING NATIONAL EMERGENCY?
A. ARTICLE 356
B. ARTICLE 358
C. ARTICLE 359
D. ARTICLE 360
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 358
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 358 PROVIDES AUTOMATIC SUSPENSION OF ARTICLE 19 DURING NATIONAL EMERGENCY CAUSED BY WAR OR EXTERNAL AGGRESSION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q230. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS CANNOT BE SUSPENDED EVEN DURING EMERGENCY?
A. ARTICLE 14 AND 19
B. ARTICLE 19 AND 21
C. ARTICLE 20 AND 21
D. ARTICLE 15 AND 16
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 20 AND 21
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLES 20 AND 21 REMAIN ENFORCEABLE EVEN DURING NATIONAL EMERGENCY.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q231. FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS IN INDIA ARE INSPIRED FROM THE CONSTITUTION OF:
A. UK
B. USA
C. USSR
D. FRANCE
ANSWER: B. USA
EXPLANATION:
THE CONCEPT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS IN INDIA WAS INSPIRED BY THE BILL OF RIGHTS OF THE UNITED STATES CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q232. FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES IN INDIA ARE INSPIRED FROM THE CONSTITUTION OF:
A. USA
B. FRANCE
C. USSR
D. GERMANY
ANSWER: C. USSR
EXPLANATION:
THE IDEA OF FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES WAS BORROWED FROM THE CONSTITUTION OF THE FORMER USSR.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q233. WHICH COMMITTEE RECOMMENDED INCLUSION OF FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES?
A. SARKARIA COMMITTEE
B. SWARAN SINGH COMMITTEE
C. PUNCHHI COMMITTEE
D. BALWANT RAI COMMITTEE
ANSWER: B. SWARAN SINGH COMMITTEE
EXPLANATION:
THE SWARAN SINGH COMMITTEE RECOMMENDED INCLUSION OF FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES IN THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q234. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT IS AVAILABLE ONLY TO CITIZENS?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 20
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 19
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 19
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19 RIGHTS ARE AVAILABLE ONLY TO INDIAN CITIZENS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q235. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT IS AVAILABLE TO BOTH CITIZENS AND FOREIGNERS?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 15
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 16
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 21
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 21 PROTECTS LIFE AND PERSONAL LIBERTY OF BOTH CITIZENS AND FOREIGNERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q236. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS HIGH COURTS TO ISSUE WRITS?
A. ARTICLE 32
B. ARTICLE 136
C. ARTICLE 226
D. ARTICLE 356
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 226
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 226 EMPOWERS HIGH COURTS TO ISSUE WRITS FOR FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS AND OTHER LEGAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q237. WHICH WRIT IS KNOWN AS THE “BULWARK OF PERSONAL LIBERTY”?
A. CERTIORARI
B. HABEAS CORPUS
C. MANDAMUS
D. QUO WARRANTO
ANSWER: B. HABEAS CORPUS
EXPLANATION:
HABEAS CORPUS PROTECTS INDIVIDUAL LIBERTY AGAINST UNLAWFUL DETENTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q238. WHICH AMENDMENT ADDED COOPERATIVE SOCIETIES UNDER ARTICLE 19(1)(C)?
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 44TH AMENDMENT
C. 86TH AMENDMENT
D. 97TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER: D. 97TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 97TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ADDED COOPERATIVE SOCIETIES UNDER ARTICLE 19(1)(C).
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q239. PREVENTIVE DETENTION LAWS ARE MAINLY INTENDED TO:
A. PUNISH CRIMINALS
B. PREVENT FUTURE OFFENCES
C. RECOVER FINES
D. ENFORCE CONTRACTS
ANSWER: B. PREVENT FUTURE OFFENCES
EXPLANATION:
PREVENTIVE DETENTION AIMS TO PREVENT INDIVIDUALS FROM COMMITTING FUTURE HARMFUL ACTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q240. WHICH ARTICLE ALLOWS PARLIAMENT TO MAKE LAWS FOR IMPLEMENTATION OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. ARTICLE 32
B. ARTICLE 33
C. ARTICLE 34
D. ARTICLE 35
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 35
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 35 EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO MAKE LAWS REGARDING CERTAIN FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS PROVISIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q241. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS THE PRESIDENT TO SUSPEND THE RIGHT TO MOVE COURTS FOR ENFORCEMENT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. ARTICLE 356
B. ARTICLE 358
C. ARTICLE 359
D. ARTICLE 360
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 359
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 359 EMPOWERS THE PRESIDENT TO SUSPEND THE RIGHT TO MOVE ANY COURT FOR ENFORCEMENT OF SPECIFIED FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS DURING A NATIONAL EMERGENCY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q242. UNDER PREVENTIVE DETENTION, THE DETAINED PERSON MUST BE INFORMED ABOUT GROUNDS OF DETENTION:
A. IMMEDIATELY
B. WITHIN 24 HOURS
C. AS SOON AS POSSIBLE
D. AFTER TRIAL
ANSWER: C. AS SOON AS POSSIBLE
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 22 PROVIDES THAT A PERSON DETAINED UNDER PREVENTIVE DETENTION LAWS MUST BE INFORMED OF THE GROUNDS OF DETENTION AS SOON AS POSSIBLE.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q243. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT IS CALLED THE FOUNDATION OF DEMOCRATIC GOVERNANCE?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
C. RIGHT AGAINST EXPLOITATION
D. RIGHT TO RELIGION
ANSWER: B. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
EXPLANATION:
THE RIGHT TO FREEDOM UNDER ARTICLES 19–22 ENSURES CIVIL LIBERTIES ESSENTIAL FOR DEMOCRATIC GOVERNANCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CGL 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q244. WHICH WRIT IS ISSUED BY A SUPERIOR COURT TO STOP PROCEEDINGS IN A LOWER COURT?
A. CERTIORARI
B. HABEAS CORPUS
C. PROHIBITION
D. MANDAMUS
ANSWER: C. PROHIBITION
EXPLANATION:
THE WRIT OF PROHIBITION IS ISSUED TO PREVENT AN INFERIOR COURT OR TRIBUNAL FROM EXCEEDING ITS JURISDICTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q245. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT IS KNOWN AS THE “MINI CONSTITUTION”?
A. 24TH AMENDMENT
B. 42ND AMENDMENT
C. 44TH AMENDMENT
D. 52ND AMENDMENT
ANSWER: B. 42ND AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 42ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1976 IS KNOWN AS THE “MINI CONSTITUTION” BECAUSE OF ITS WIDE-RANGING CHANGES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q246. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES FREEDOM TO PRACTICE ANY TRADE OR BUSINESS?
A. ARTICLE 19(1)(D)
B. ARTICLE 19(1)(E)
C. ARTICLE 19(1)(F)
D. ARTICLE 19(1)(G)
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 19(1)(G)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(G) GRANTS FREEDOM TO PRACTICE ANY PROFESSION OR CARRY ON ANY OCCUPATION, TRADE, OR BUSINESS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q247. WHICH BODY REVIEWS PREVENTIVE DETENTION CASES BEYOND THREE MONTHS?
A. SUPREME COURT
B. PARLIAMENT
C. ADVISORY BOARD
D. ELECTION COMMISSION
ANSWER: C. ADVISORY BOARD
EXPLANATION:
UNDER ARTICLE 22, DETENTION BEYOND THREE MONTHS REQUIRES APPROVAL OF AN ADVISORY BOARD.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q248. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY PROMOTES EXCELLENCE IN ALL SPHERES OF ACTIVITY?
A. ARTICLE 51A(H)
B. ARTICLE 51A(I)
C. ARTICLE 51A(J)
D. ARTICLE 51A(K)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 51A(J)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(J) DIRECTS CITIZENS TO STRIVE TOWARDS EXCELLENCE IN ALL SPHERES OF INDIVIDUAL AND COLLECTIVE ACTIVITY.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q249. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT IS AVAILABLE AGAINST PRIVATE INDIVIDUALS ALSO?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 15
C. ARTICLE 17
D. ARTICLE 19
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 17
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 17 ABOLISHING UNTOUCHABILITY IS ENFORCEABLE AGAINST BOTH STATE AND PRIVATE INDIVIDUALS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q250. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT PROTECTS AGAINST EXPLOITATION OF CHILDREN IN FACTORIES?
A. ARTICLE 22
B. ARTICLE 23
C. ARTICLE 24
D. ARTICLE 25
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 24
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 24 PROHIBITS CHILD LABOUR IN FACTORIES, MINES, AND HAZARDOUS OCCUPATIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q251. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT CANNOT BE SUSPENDED EVEN DURING NATIONAL EMERGENCY?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 20
D. ARTICLE 16
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 20
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 20, WHICH PROVIDES PROTECTION IN RESPECT OF CONVICTION FOR OFFENCES, CANNOT BE SUSPENDED EVEN DURING A NATIONAL EMERGENCY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q252. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES PROTECTION AGAINST DOUBLE JEOPARDY?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20(1)
C. ARTICLE 20(2)
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 20(2)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 20(2) STATES THAT NO PERSON SHALL BE PROSECUTED AND PUNISHED FOR THE SAME OFFENCE MORE THAN ONCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q253. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS THE FREEDOM OF RELIGIOUS DENOMINATIONS TO MANAGE INSTITUTIONS?
A. ARTICLE 25
B. ARTICLE 26
C. ARTICLE 27
D. ARTICLE 28
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 26
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 26 GIVES RELIGIOUS DENOMINATIONS THE RIGHT TO ESTABLISH AND MANAGE RELIGIOUS INSTITUTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CGL 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q254. WHICH ARTICLE PROHIBITS COMPULSORY PAYMENT OF TAXES FOR PROMOTION OF RELIGION?
A. ARTICLE 25
B. ARTICLE 26
C. ARTICLE 27
D. ARTICLE 28
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 27
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 27 STATES THAT NO PERSON SHALL BE COMPELLED TO PAY TAXES FOR PROMOTION OF ANY RELIGION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q255. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY DIRECTS CITIZENS TO UPHOLD SOVEREIGNTY AND INTEGRITY OF INDIA?
A. ARTICLE 51A(A)
B. ARTICLE 51A(B)
C. ARTICLE 51A(C)
D. ARTICLE 51A(D)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 51A(C)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(C) MAKES IT A DUTY TO UPHOLD AND PROTECT THE SOVEREIGNTY, UNITY, AND INTEGRITY OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q256. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES FREEDOM FROM ATTENDING RELIGIOUS INSTRUCTION IN STATE INSTITUTIONS?
A. ARTICLE 25
B. ARTICLE 26
C. ARTICLE 27
D. ARTICLE 28
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 28
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 28 PROHIBITS COMPULSORY RELIGIOUS INSTRUCTION IN EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS WHOLLY MAINTAINED BY THE STATE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q257. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT IS AVAILABLE TO BOTH CITIZENS AND NON-CITIZENS?
A. ARTICLE 15
B. ARTICLE 16
C. ARTICLE 19
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 21
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 21 GUARANTEES PROTECTION OF LIFE AND PERSONAL LIBERTY TO ALL PERSONS INCLUDING FOREIGNERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q258. WHICH WRIT DIRECTS A PUBLIC AUTHORITY TO PERFORM LEGAL DUTIES?
A. CERTIORARI
B. HABEAS CORPUS
C. MANDAMUS
D. QUO WARRANTO
ANSWER: C. MANDAMUS
EXPLANATION:
MANDAMUS IS ISSUED BY A COURT ORDERING A PUBLIC AUTHORITY TO PERFORM ITS LEGAL DUTY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q259. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ADDED FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES TO THE CONSTITUTION?
A. 24TH AMENDMENT
B. 42ND AMENDMENT
C. 44TH AMENDMENT
D. 86TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER: B. 42ND AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 42ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1976 INSERTED FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES INTO PART IVA OF THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q260. WHICH ARTICLE ABOLISHES UNTOUCHABILITY?
A. ARTICLE 15
B. ARTICLE 16
C. ARTICLE 17
D. ARTICLE 18
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 17
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 17 ABOLISHES UNTOUCHABILITY AND MAKES ITS PRACTICE PUNISHABLE BY LAW.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
SSC MTS 2023
Q260. WHICH ARTICLE ABOLISHES UNTOUCHABILITY?
A. ARTICLE 15
B. ARTICLE 16
C. ARTICLE 17
D. ARTICLE 18
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 17
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 17 ABOLISHES UNTOUCHABILITY AND MAKES ITS PRACTICE PUNISHABLE BY LAW.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
SSC MTS 2023
Q261. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES THE RIGHT TO RESIDE AND SETTLE IN ANY PART OF INDIA?
A. ARTICLE 19(1)(D)
B. ARTICLE 19(1)(E)
C. ARTICLE 19(1)(F)
D. ARTICLE 19(1)(G)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 19(1)(E)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(E) GUARANTEES EVERY CITIZEN THE RIGHT TO RESIDE AND SETTLE IN ANY PART OF THE TERRITORY OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q262. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT PROTECTS AGAINST FORCED LABOUR?
A. ARTICLE 21
B. ARTICLE 22
C. ARTICLE 23
D. ARTICLE 24
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 23
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 23 PROHIBITS TRAFFICKING IN HUMAN BEINGS, BEGAR, AND FORCED LABOUR.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q263. WHICH WRIT IS ISSUED TO PRODUCE A DETAINED PERSON BEFORE THE COURT?
A. MANDAMUS
B. CERTIORARI
C. HABEAS CORPUS
D. PROHIBITION
ANSWER: C. HABEAS CORPUS
EXPLANATION:
HABEAS CORPUS IS ISSUED TO PROTECT PERSONAL LIBERTY AND DIRECTS AUTHORITIES TO PRODUCE THE DETAINED PERSON BEFORE THE COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q264. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS THE STATE TO PROVIDE RESERVATION FOR BACKWARD CLASSES IN PUBLIC EMPLOYMENT?
A. ARTICLE 15(1)
B. ARTICLE 15(4)
C. ARTICLE 16(4)
D. ARTICLE 17
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 16(4)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 16(4) PERMITS RESERVATION IN APPOINTMENTS FOR BACKWARD CLASSES NOT ADEQUATELY REPRESENTED IN STATE SERVICES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q265. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO PRESERVE COMPOSITE CULTURE?
A. ARTICLE 51A(E)
B. ARTICLE 51A(F)
C. ARTICLE 51A(G)
D. ARTICLE 51A(H)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(F)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(F) DIRECTS CITIZENS TO VALUE AND PRESERVE THE RICH HERITAGE OF INDIA’S COMPOSITE CULTURE.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q266. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS AGAINST ARBITRARY DEPRIVATION OF LIFE AND LIBERTY?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 21
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 21 GUARANTEES THAT NO PERSON SHALL BE DEPRIVED OF LIFE OR PERSONAL LIBERTY EXCEPT ACCORDING TO PROCEDURE ESTABLISHED BY LAW.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q267. WHICH ARTICLE ALLOWS THE STATE TO REGULATE ECONOMIC, FINANCIAL, POLITICAL, OR SECULAR ACTIVITIES RELATED TO RELIGION?
A. ARTICLE 25(2)
B. ARTICLE 26
C. ARTICLE 27
D. ARTICLE 28
ANSWER: A. ARTICLE 25(2)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 25(2) PERMITS THE STATE TO REGULATE SECULAR ACTIVITIES ASSOCIATED WITH RELIGIOUS PRACTICE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q268. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY PROMOTES SCIENTIFIC TEMPER AND HUMANISM?
A. ARTICLE 51A(G)
B. ARTICLE 51A(H)
C. ARTICLE 51A(I)
D. ARTICLE 51A(J)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(H)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(H) ENCOURAGES CITIZENS TO DEVELOP SCIENTIFIC TEMPER, HUMANISM, AND SPIRIT OF INQUIRY.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q269. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES PROTECTION AGAINST SELF-INCRIMINATION?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20(3)
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 20(3)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 20(3) STATES THAT NO ACCUSED PERSON SHALL BE COMPELLED TO BE A WITNESS AGAINST HIMSELF.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q270. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT IS KNOWN AS THE GUARDIAN OF ALL OTHER FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
C. RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES
D. RIGHT TO RELIGION
ANSWER: C. RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES
EXPLANATION:
RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES UNDER ARTICLE 32 PROTECTS AND ENFORCES ALL FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q271. WHICH ARTICLE DEFINES THE TERM “STATE” FOR FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. ARTICLE 10
B. ARTICLE 11
C. ARTICLE 12
D. ARTICLE 13
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 12
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 12 DEFINES THE TERM “STATE” TO INCLUDE GOVERNMENT, PARLIAMENT, STATE LEGISLATURES, LOCAL AUTHORITIES, AND OTHER AUTHORITIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q272. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT ABOLISHES SOCIAL DISTINCTIONS BASED ON UNTOUCHABILITY?
A. ARTICLE 15
B. ARTICLE 16
C. ARTICLE 17
D. ARTICLE 18
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 17
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 17 ABOLISHES UNTOUCHABILITY AND FORBIDS ITS PRACTICE IN ANY FORM.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q273. WHICH WRIT IS ISSUED TO INQUIRE INTO THE LEGALITY OF A PERSON HOLDING PUBLIC OFFICE?
A. MANDAMUS
B. CERTIORARI
C. HABEAS CORPUS
D. QUO WARRANTO
ANSWER: D. QUO WARRANTO
EXPLANATION:
QUO WARRANTO PREVENTS ILLEGAL OCCUPATION OF A PUBLIC OFFICE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q274. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES PROTECTION FROM ARBITRARY ARREST?
A. ARTICLE 20
B. ARTICLE 21
C. ARTICLE 22
D. ARTICLE 23
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 22
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 22 PROVIDES SAFEGUARDS AGAINST ARBITRARY ARREST AND DETENTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q275. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO SAFEGUARD PUBLIC PROPERTY?
A. ARTICLE 51A(G)
B. ARTICLE 51A(H)
C. ARTICLE 51A(I)
D. ARTICLE 51A(J)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 51A(I)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(I) DIRECTS CITIZENS TO SAFEGUARD PUBLIC PROPERTY AND RENOUNCE VIOLENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q276. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES EQUALITY BEFORE LAW?
A. ARTICLE 13
B. ARTICLE 14
C. ARTICLE 15
D. ARTICLE 16
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 14
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 14 GUARANTEES EQUALITY BEFORE LAW AND EQUAL PROTECTION OF LAWS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q277. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ADDED THE DUTY OF PARENTS TO EDUCATE CHILDREN?
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 44TH AMENDMENT
C. 86TH AMENDMENT
D. 97TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER: C. 86TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 86TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT INSERTED ARTICLE 51A(K) REGARDING EDUCATION DUTY OF PARENTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q278. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS FREEDOM OF CONSCIENCE?
A. ARTICLE 24
B. ARTICLE 25
C. ARTICLE 26
D. ARTICLE 27
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 25
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 25 GUARANTEES FREEDOM OF CONSCIENCE AND FREE PROFESSION OF RELIGION.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CPO 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q279. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT PROHIBITS TRAFFICKING IN HUMAN BEINGS?
A. ARTICLE 21
B. ARTICLE 22
C. ARTICLE 23
D. ARTICLE 24
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 23
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 23 PROHIBITS HUMAN TRAFFICKING AND FORCED LABOUR.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q280. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY DIRECTS CITIZENS TO PROTECT NATURAL ENVIRONMENT?
A. ARTICLE 51A(F)
B. ARTICLE 51A(G)
C. ARTICLE 51A(H)
D. ARTICLE 51A(I)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(G)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(G) DIRECTS CITIZENS TO PROTECT FORESTS, RIVERS, LAKES, AND WILDLIFE.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q281. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO MODIFY FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS FOR ARMED FORCES?
A. ARTICLE 32
B. ARTICLE 33
C. ARTICLE 34
D. ARTICLE 35
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 33
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 33 EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO RESTRICT FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS OF ARMED FORCES AND POLICE PERSONNEL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q282. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH SUSPENSION OF ARTICLE 19 DURING EMERGENCY?
A. ARTICLE 356
B. ARTICLE 358
C. ARTICLE 359
D. ARTICLE 360
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 358
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 358 PROVIDES SUSPENSION OF ARTICLE 19 DURING NATIONAL EMERGENCY DUE TO WAR OR EXTERNAL AGGRESSION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q283. WHICH ARTICLE GRANTS MINORITIES THE RIGHT TO ESTABLISH EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS?
A. ARTICLE 28
B. ARTICLE 29
C. ARTICLE 30
D. ARTICLE 31
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 30
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 30 GRANTS MINORITIES THE RIGHT TO ESTABLISH AND ADMINISTER EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q284. WHICH WRIT IS ISSUED TO COMMAND A LOWER COURT OR AUTHORITY TO PERFORM DUTY?
A. HABEAS CORPUS
B. MANDAMUS
C. PROHIBITION
D. CERTIORARI
ANSWER: B. MANDAMUS
EXPLANATION:
MANDAMUS COMMANDS A PUBLIC AUTHORITY TO PERFORM ITS LEGAL DUTY.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q285. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES FREEDOM TO MOVE FREELY THROUGHOUT INDIA?
A. ARTICLE 19(1)(B)
B. ARTICLE 19(1)(C)
C. ARTICLE 19(1)(D)
D. ARTICLE 19(1)(G)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 19(1)(D)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(D) GUARANTEES FREEDOM OF MOVEMENT THROUGHOUT INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q286. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT REMOVED RIGHT TO PROPERTY FROM FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 44TH AMENDMENT
C. 52ND AMENDMENT
D. 61ST AMENDMENT
ANSWER: B. 44TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 44TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT MADE RIGHT TO PROPERTY A LEGAL RIGHT UNDER ARTICLE 300A.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q287. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS AGAINST SELF-INCRIMINATION?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20(3)
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 20(3)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 20(3) PROTECTS ACCUSED PERSONS FROM BEING COMPELLED TO TESTIFY AGAINST THEMSELVES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q288. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY PROMOTES SPIRIT OF INQUIRY AND REFORM?
A. ARTICLE 51A(G)
B. ARTICLE 51A(H)
C. ARTICLE 51A(I)
D. ARTICLE 51A(J)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(H)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(H) PROMOTES SCIENTIFIC TEMPER, INQUIRY, AND REFORM.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q289. WHICH ARTICLE ABOLISHES TITLES EXCEPT MILITARY AND ACADEMIC DISTINCTIONS?
A. ARTICLE 16
B. ARTICLE 17
C. ARTICLE 18
D. ARTICLE 19
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 18
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 18 ABOLISHES TITLES AND PROHIBITS HEREDITARY DISTINCTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q290. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT PROTECTS CULTURAL INTERESTS OF MINORITIES?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
C. CULTURAL AND EDUCATIONAL RIGHTS
D. RIGHT TO RELIGION
ANSWER: C. CULTURAL AND EDUCATIONAL RIGHTS
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLES 29 AND 30 PROTECT LANGUAGE, CULTURE, AND EDUCATIONAL RIGHTS OF MINORITIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q291. WHICH ARTICLE ALLOWS SPECIAL PROVISIONS FOR BACKWARD CLASSES?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 15(4)
C. ARTICLE 16(1)
D. ARTICLE 17
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 15(4)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 15(4) PERMITS SPECIAL PROVISIONS FOR SOCIALLY AND EDUCATIONALLY BACKWARD CLASSES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q292. WHICH WRIT IS ISSUED TO RELEASE A PERSON FROM UNLAWFUL DETENTION?
A. CERTIORARI
B. HABEAS CORPUS
C. MANDAMUS
D. PROHIBITION
ANSWER: B. HABEAS CORPUS
EXPLANATION:
HABEAS CORPUS SAFEGUARDS INDIVIDUAL LIBERTY FROM ILLEGAL DETENTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q293. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS HIGH COURTS TO ISSUE WRITS?
A. ARTICLE 32
B. ARTICLE 136
C. ARTICLE 226
D. ARTICLE 356
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 226
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 226 EMPOWERS HIGH COURTS TO ISSUE WRITS FOR FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS AND OTHER LEGAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q294. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO DEFEND THE COUNTRY?
A. ARTICLE 51A(C)
B. ARTICLE 51A(D)
C. ARTICLE 51A(E)
D. ARTICLE 51A(F)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(D)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(D) DIRECTS CITIZENS TO DEFEND THE COUNTRY AND RENDER NATIONAL SERVICE WHEN NEEDED.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q295. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT GUARANTEES FREEDOM OF PROFESSION?
A. ARTICLE 19(1)(C)
B. ARTICLE 19(1)(D)
C. ARTICLE 19(1)(F)
D. ARTICLE 19(1)(G)
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 19(1)(G)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(G) GUARANTEES FREEDOM TO PRACTICE ANY PROFESSION OR TRADE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q296. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES RIGHT TO EDUCATION?
A. ARTICLE 20A
B. ARTICLE 21A
C. ARTICLE 22A
D. ARTICLE 23A
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 21A
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 21A GUARANTEES FREE AND COMPULSORY EDUCATION FOR CHILDREN AGED 6 TO 14 YEARS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q297. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT INSERTED FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES?
A. 24TH AMENDMENT
B. 42ND AMENDMENT
C. 44TH AMENDMENT
D. 86TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER: B. 42ND AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 42ND AMENDMENT ACT, 1976 INSERTED FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES INTO THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q298. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT PROTECTS FREEDOM OF SPEECH AND EXPRESSION?
A. ARTICLE 19(1)(A)
B. ARTICLE 19(1)(B)
C. ARTICLE 19(1)(C)
D. ARTICLE 19(1)(D)
ANSWER: A. ARTICLE 19(1)(A)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 19(1)(A) GUARANTEES FREEDOM OF SPEECH AND EXPRESSION.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q299. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS THE SUPREME COURT TO ISSUE WRITS?
A. ARTICLE 30
B. ARTICLE 31
C. ARTICLE 32
D. ARTICLE 35
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 32
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 32 EMPOWERS THE SUPREME COURT TO ISSUE WRITS FOR ENFORCEMENT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q300. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT IS KNOWN AS THE “HEART AND SOUL” OF THE CONSTITUTION?
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
C. RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES
D. RIGHT TO RELIGION
ANSWER: C. RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES
EXPLANATION:
DR. B. R. AMBEDKAR CALLED THE RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES THE “HEART AND SOUL” OF THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
SSC MTS 2023
Q301. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS AGAINST EX-POST FACTO LAWS?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20(1)
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 20(1)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 20(1) PROHIBITS CONVICTION UNDER RETROSPECTIVE CRIMINAL LAWS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q302. WHICH ARTICLE PROHIBITS TRAFFIC IN HUMAN BEINGS?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 23
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 23 BANS TRAFFICKING AND FORCED LABOUR.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q303. WHICH ARTICLE ABOLISHES UNTOUCHABILITY?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 17
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 17 ABOLISHES UNTOUCHABILITY IN ALL FORMS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q304. WHICH WRIT MEANS “TO HAVE THE BODY”?
ANSWER: HABEAS CORPUS
EXPLANATION:
IT SAFEGUARDS PERSONAL LIBERTY AGAINST ILLEGAL DETENTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC CPO 2023
Q305. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES EQUALITY OF OPPORTUNITY IN PUBLIC EMPLOYMENT?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 16
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 16 ENSURES EQUAL PUBLIC EMPLOYMENT OPPORTUNITY.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q306. WHICH ARTICLE GRANTS FREEDOM OF SPEECH?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 19(1)(A)
EXPLANATION:
IT GUARANTEES FREEDOM OF SPEECH AND EXPRESSION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2023
Q307. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY PROTECTS THE ENVIRONMENT?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 51A(G)
EXPLANATION:
CITIZENS MUST PROTECT FORESTS, RIVERS, LAKES, AND WILDLIFE.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q308. WHICH AMENDMENT ADDED FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES?
ANSWER: 42ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
IT INSERTED PART IVA INTO THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q309. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES FREE LEGAL AID UNDER JUDICIAL INTERPRETATION?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 21
EXPLANATION:
RIGHT TO FREE LEGAL AID IS PART OF RIGHT TO LIFE.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q310. WHICH ARTICLE ALLOWS RESERVATION FOR BACKWARD CLASSES?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 15(4)
EXPLANATION:
IT PERMITS SPECIAL PROVISIONS FOR BACKWARD CLASSES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q311. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS MINORITY EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 30
EXPLANATION:
MINORITIES CAN ESTABLISH AND ADMINISTER EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q312. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES RIGHT TO EDUCATION?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 21A
EXPLANATION:
CHILDREN AGED 6–14 YEARS HAVE FREE AND COMPULSORY EDUCATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q313. WHICH WRIT COMMANDS PUBLIC AUTHORITIES TO PERFORM DUTIES?
ANSWER: MANDAMUS
EXPLANATION:
MANDAMUS DIRECTS PERFORMANCE OF LEGAL DUTY.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q314. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS LIFE AND PERSONAL LIBERTY?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 21
EXPLANATION:
NO PERSON CAN BE DEPRIVED OF LIFE EXCEPT BY PROCEDURE ESTABLISHED BY LAW.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q315. WHICH ARTICLE DEFINES “STATE”?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 12
EXPLANATION:
IT DEFINES AUTHORITIES AGAINST WHOM FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS ARE ENFORCEABLE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q316. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS AGAINST CHILD LABOUR IN HAZARDOUS JOBS?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 24
EXPLANATION:
CHILDREN BELOW 14 CANNOT WORK IN HAZARDOUS INDUSTRIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q317. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY PROMOTES SCIENTIFIC TEMPER?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 51A(H)
EXPLANATION:
CITIZENS SHOULD DEVELOP INQUIRY AND REFORM SPIRIT.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q318. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS SUPREME COURT TO ISSUE WRITS?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 32
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 32 IS THE GUARDIAN OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q319. WHICH ARTICLE ABOLISHES TITLES?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 18
EXPLANATION:
MILITARY AND ACADEMIC DISTINCTIONS ARE EXCEPTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q320. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES SAFEGUARDS AGAINST ARREST?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 22
EXPLANATION:
IT INCLUDES RIGHTS OF ARRESTED PERSONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q321. WHICH RIGHT IS SUSPENDED AUTOMATICALLY DURING EMERGENCY?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 19
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 358 SUSPENDS ARTICLE 19 DURING EMERGENCY CAUSED BY WAR/EXTERNAL AGGRESSION.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q322. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT PROTECTS CULTURAL IDENTITY?
ANSWER: CULTURAL AND EDUCATIONAL RIGHTS
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLES 29–30 PROTECT MINORITY CULTURE AND LANGUAGE.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q323. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS HIGH COURTS TO ISSUE WRITS?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 226
EXPLANATION:
HIGH COURTS CAN ISSUE WRITS FOR FR AND LEGAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q324. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO DEFEND THE NATION?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 51A(D)
EXPLANATION:
CITIZENS SHOULD DEFEND INDIA AND RENDER NATIONAL SERVICE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q325. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS AGAINST SELF-INCRIMINATION?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 20(3)
EXPLANATION:
NO ACCUSED PERSON CAN BE COMPELLED TO TESTIFY AGAINST HIMSELF.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q326. WHICH ARTICLE ENSURES FREEDOM OF RELIGION?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 25
EXPLANATION:
CITIZENS MAY PROFESS, PRACTICE, AND PROPAGATE RELIGION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q327. WHICH AMENDMENT REMOVED RIGHT TO PROPERTY?
ANSWER: 44TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
RIGHT TO PROPERTY BECAME A LEGAL RIGHT UNDER ARTICLE 300A.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q328. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY RESPECTS NATIONAL FLAG AND ANTHEM?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 51A(A)
EXPLANATION:
CITIZENS MUST RESPECT CONSTITUTIONAL IDEALS AND NATIONAL SYMBOLS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q329. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES RESERVATION IN PROMOTION FOR SC/ST?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 16(4A)
EXPLANATION:
IT ENABLES RESERVATION IN PROMOTIONS FOR SC/ST EMPLOYEES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q330. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH PREVENTIVE DETENTION?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 22
EXPLANATION:
IT LAYS SAFEGUARDS AND LIMITS PREVENTIVE DETENTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q331. WHICH ARTICLE ALLOWS SPECIAL PROVISIONS FOR WOMEN AND CHILDREN?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 15(3)
EXPLANATION:
STATE CAN FRAME WELFARE MEASURES FOR WOMEN AND CHILDREN.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q332. WHICH WRIT STOPS LOWER COURTS FROM EXCEEDING JURISDICTION?
ANSWER: PROHIBITION
EXPLANATION:
IT PREVENTS INFERIOR COURTS FROM ACTING BEYOND AUTHORITY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q333. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS MINORITIES’ LANGUAGE AND SCRIPT?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 29
EXPLANATION:
MINORITIES CAN CONSERVE DISTINCT LANGUAGE AND CULTURE.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q334. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY PROMOTES HARMONY?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 51A(E)
EXPLANATION:
CITIZENS MUST PROMOTE COMMON BROTHERHOOD.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q335. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES FREEDOM TO FORM ASSOCIATIONS?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 19(1)(C)
EXPLANATION:
CITIZENS CAN FORM UNIONS AND ASSOCIATIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q336. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS AGAINST DOUBLE JEOPARDY?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 20(2)
EXPLANATION:
NO PERSON CAN BE PUNISHED TWICE FOR SAME OFFENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q337. WHICH ARTICLE PERMITS STATE REGULATION OF SECULAR RELIGIOUS ACTIVITIES?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 25(2)
EXPLANATION:
STATE MAY REGULATE SECULAR ASPECTS LINKED TO RELIGION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q338. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS EQUALITY BEFORE LAW?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 14
EXPLANATION:
ALL PERSONS ARE EQUAL BEFORE LAW.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q339. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS PARENTS TO EDUCATE CHILDREN?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 51A(K)
EXPLANATION:
PARENTS MUST PROVIDE EDUCATION TO CHILDREN AGED 6–14.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q340. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO RESTRICT FR OF ARMED FORCES?
ANSWER: ARTICLE 33
EXPLANATION:
PARLIAMENT MAY RESTRICT FR FOR DISCIPLINED FORCES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q341. WHICH ARTICLE DECLARES LAWS INCONSISTENT WITH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS AS VOID?
A. ARTICLE 11
B. ARTICLE 12
C. ARTICLE 13
D. ARTICLE 14
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 13
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 13 DECLARES THAT LAWS VIOLATING FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS ARE VOID TO THE EXTENT OF INCONSISTENCY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q342. WHICH ARTICLE RELATES TO SUSPENSION OF ARTICLE 19 DURING EMERGENCY?
A. ARTICLE 356
B. ARTICLE 357
C. ARTICLE 358
D. ARTICLE 359
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 358
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 358 PROVIDES AUTOMATIC SUSPENSION OF ARTICLE 19 DURING EMERGENCY CAUSED BY WAR OR EXTERNAL AGGRESSION.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q343. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS THE PRESIDENT TO SUSPEND ENFORCEMENT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. ARTICLE 358
B. ARTICLE 359
C. ARTICLE 360
D. ARTICLE 361
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 359
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 359 EMPOWERS THE PRESIDENT TO SUSPEND THE RIGHT TO MOVE COURTS FOR ENFORCEMENT OF SPECIFIED FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q344. RIGHT TO PROPERTY IS NOW PROVIDED UNDER WHICH ARTICLE?
A. ARTICLE 31
B. ARTICLE 300
C. ARTICLE 300A
D. ARTICLE 301
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 300A
EXPLANATION:
AFTER THE 44TH AMENDMENT, RIGHT TO PROPERTY BECAME A LEGAL RIGHT UNDER ARTICLE 300A.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q345. WHICH WRIT CHALLENGES ILLEGAL OCCUPATION OF PUBLIC OFFICE?
A. MANDAMUS
B. PROHIBITION
C. HABEAS CORPUS
D. QUO WARRANTO
ANSWER: D. QUO WARRANTO
EXPLANATION:
QUO WARRANTO IS ISSUED TO CHALLENGE A PERSON’S RIGHT TO HOLD A PUBLIC OFFICE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q346. WHICH WRIT QUASHES THE ORDER OF A LOWER COURT?
A. MANDAMUS
B. CERTIORARI
C. HABEAS CORPUS
D. QUO WARRANTO
ANSWER: B. CERTIORARI
EXPLANATION:
CERTIORARI IS ISSUED BY A SUPERIOR COURT TO QUASH ORDERS OF LOWER COURTS OR TRIBUNALS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q347. WHICH ARTICLE PROHIBITS TAXATION FOR PROMOTION OF ANY RELIGION?
A. ARTICLE 25
B. ARTICLE 26
C. ARTICLE 27
D. ARTICLE 28
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 27
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 27 STATES THAT NO PERSON CAN BE COMPELLED TO PAY TAXES FOR PROMOTION OF ANY RELIGION.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q348. WHICH ARTICLE PROHIBITS COMPULSORY RELIGIOUS INSTRUCTION IN STATE INSTITUTIONS?
A. ARTICLE 25
B. ARTICLE 26
C. ARTICLE 27
D. ARTICLE 28
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 28
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 28 PROHIBITS COMPULSORY RELIGIOUS INSTRUCTION IN INSTITUTIONS WHOLLY FUNDED BY THE STATE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q349. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY PROMOTES EXCELLENCE IN ALL SPHERES?
A. ARTICLE 51A(G)
B. ARTICLE 51A(H)
C. ARTICLE 51A(I)
D. ARTICLE 51A(J)
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 51A(J)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(J) ENCOURAGES CITIZENS TO STRIVE FOR EXCELLENCE IN ALL SPHERES OF ACTIVITY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q350. WHICH ARTICLE ENABLES RESERVATION IN PUBLIC SERVICES FOR BACKWARD CLASSES?
A. ARTICLE 15(4)
B. ARTICLE 16(1)
C. ARTICLE 16(4)
D. ARTICLE 17
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 16(4)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 16(4) ALLOWS RESERVATION IN APPOINTMENTS FOR BACKWARD CLASSES INADEQUATELY REPRESENTED IN SERVICES.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q351. FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS ARE CONTAINED IN WHICH PART OF THE CONSTITUTION?
A. PART II
B. PART III
C. PART IV
D. PART IVA
ANSWER: B. PART III
EXPLANATION:
PART III OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION CONTAINS FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q352. FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES ARE INCLUDED IN WHICH PART OF THE CONSTITUTION?
A. PART III
B. PART IV
C. PART IVA
D. PART V
ANSWER: C. PART IVA
EXPLANATION:
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES ARE LISTED UNDER PART IVA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q353. DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY ARE CONTAINED IN:
A. PART II
B. PART III
C. PART IV
D. PART IVA
ANSWER: C. PART IV
EXPLANATION:
DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES ARE MENTIONED UNDER PART IV OF THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q354. FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS ARE:
A. NON-JUSTICIABLE
B. ENFORCEABLE BY COURTS
C. TEMPORARY RIGHTS
D. MORAL DUTIES
ANSWER: B. ENFORCEABLE BY COURTS
EXPLANATION:
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS ARE JUSTICIABLE AND ENFORCEABLE THROUGH COURTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q355. DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY ARE:
A. JUSTICIABLE
B. ENFORCEABLE BY COURTS
C. NON-JUSTICIABLE
D. FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
ANSWER: C. NON-JUSTICIABLE
EXPLANATION:
DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES ARE NON-ENFORCEABLE GUIDELINES FOR GOVERNANCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q356. WHO CALLED ARTICLE 32 THE “HEART AND SOUL” OF THE CONSTITUTION?
A. MAHATMA GANDHI
B. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
C. B. R. AMBEDKAR
D. RAJENDRA PRASAD
ANSWER: C. B. R. AMBEDKAR
EXPLANATION:
DR. B. R. AMBEDKAR DESCRIBED ARTICLE 32 AS THE “HEART AND SOUL” OF THE CONSTITUTION BECAUSE IT GUARANTEES ENFORCEMENT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q357. FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS IN INDIA ARE INSPIRED FROM THE CONSTITUTION OF:
A. UK
B. USA
C. USSR
D. FRANCE
ANSWER: B. USA
EXPLANATION:
THE FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS IN THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION WERE INSPIRED BY THE BILL OF RIGHTS OF THE UNITED STATES.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q358. FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES IN INDIA ARE INSPIRED FROM THE CONSTITUTION OF:
A. USA
B. FRANCE
C. USSR
D. GERMANY
ANSWER: C. USSR
EXPLANATION:
THE CONCEPT OF FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES WAS BORROWED FROM THE CONSTITUTION OF THE FORMER USSR.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q359. WHICH COMMITTEE RECOMMENDED INCLUSION OF FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES?
A. SARKARIA COMMITTEE
B. SWARAN SINGH COMMITTEE
C. PUNCHHI COMMITTEE
D. BALWANT RAI COMMITTEE
ANSWER: B. SWARAN SINGH COMMITTEE
EXPLANATION:
THE SWARAN SINGH COMMITTEE RECOMMENDED THE INCLUSION OF FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES IN THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q360. RIGHT TO PRIVACY IS INCLUDED UNDER:
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 21
EXPLANATION:
THE SUPREME COURT DECLARED RIGHT TO PRIVACY AS PART OF RIGHT TO LIFE AND PERSONAL LIBERTY UNDER ARTICLE 21.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q361. RIGHT TO CLEAN ENVIRONMENT IS DERIVED FROM:
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 32
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 21
EXPLANATION:
THE JUDICIARY EXPANDED ARTICLE 21 TO INCLUDE THE RIGHT TO CLEAN ENVIRONMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q362. RIGHT TO SHELTER IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
A. ARTICLE 18
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 20
D. ARTICLE 21
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 21
EXPLANATION:
THE SUPREME COURT INTERPRETED RIGHT TO SHELTER AS PART OF ARTICLE 21.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q363. RIGHT TO LIVELIHOOD IS PROTECTED UNDER:
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 21
EXPLANATION:
RIGHT TO LIVELIHOOD HAS BEEN INTERPRETED AS A PART OF RIGHT TO LIFE UNDER ARTICLE 21.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q364. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS ARE AVAILABLE ONLY TO CITIZENS?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 20
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 19
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 19
EXPLANATION:
THE FREEDOMS UNDER ARTICLE 19 ARE AVAILABLE ONLY TO INDIAN CITIZENS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q365. WHICH ARTICLE APPLIES TO BOTH CITIZENS AND FOREIGNERS?
A. ARTICLE 15
B. ARTICLE 16
C. ARTICLE 19
D. ARTICLE 14
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 14
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 14 GUARANTEES EQUALITY BEFORE LAW TO ALL PERSONS INCLUDING FOREIGNERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q366. FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS CAN BE SUSPENDED DURING:
A. FINANCIAL EMERGENCY
B. STATE EMERGENCY
C. NATIONAL EMERGENCY
D. CONSTITUTIONAL BREAKDOWN
ANSWER: C. NATIONAL EMERGENCY
EXPLANATION:
CERTAIN FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS MAY BE SUSPENDED DURING A NATIONAL EMERGENCY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q367. WHICH ARTICLES REMAIN ENFORCEABLE EVEN DURING EMERGENCY?
A. ARTICLES 14 AND 19
B. ARTICLES 19 AND 21
C. ARTICLES 20 AND 21
D. ARTICLES 15 AND 16
ANSWER: C. ARTICLES 20 AND 21
EXPLANATION:
THE 44TH AMENDMENT ENSURED ARTICLES 20 AND 21 REMAIN ENFORCEABLE EVEN DURING EMERGENCY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q368. WHICH ARTICLE PROHIBITS CHILD LABOUR IN HAZARDOUS INDUSTRIES?
A. ARTICLE 22
B. ARTICLE 23
C. ARTICLE 24
D. ARTICLE 25
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 24
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 24 PROHIBITS EMPLOYMENT OF CHILDREN BELOW 14 YEARS IN HAZARDOUS OCCUPATIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q369. WHICH ARTICLE PROHIBITS BEGAR?
A. ARTICLE 21
B. ARTICLE 22
C. ARTICLE 23
D. ARTICLE 24
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 23
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 23 PROHIBITS BEGAR AND ALL FORMS OF FORCED LABOUR.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q370. WHICH ARTICLE ABOLISHES HEREDITARY TITLES?
A. ARTICLE 15
B. ARTICLE 16
C. ARTICLE 17
D. ARTICLE 18
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 18
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 18 ABOLISHES TITLES EXCEPT MILITARY AND ACADEMIC DISTINCTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q371. WHICH ARTICLE GUARANTEES FREEDOM OF RELIGION?
A. ARTICLE 24
B. ARTICLE 25
C. ARTICLE 26
D. ARTICLE 27
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 25
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 25 GUARANTEES FREEDOM OF CONSCIENCE AND FREE PROFESSION, PRACTICE, AND PROPAGATION OF RELIGION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q372. RELIGIOUS DENOMINATIONS ARE PROTECTED UNDER:
A. ARTICLE 25
B. ARTICLE 26
C. ARTICLE 27
D. ARTICLE 28
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 26
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 26 GRANTS RELIGIOUS DENOMINATIONS THE RIGHT TO MANAGE RELIGIOUS AFFAIRS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q373. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS MINORITY CULTURE AND LANGUAGE?
A. ARTICLE 28
B. ARTICLE 29
C. ARTICLE 30
D. ARTICLE 31
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 29
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 29 PROTECTS CULTURAL AND EDUCATIONAL INTERESTS OF MINORITIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q374. WHICH ARTICLE PROTECTS MINORITY EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS?
A. ARTICLE 29
B. ARTICLE 30
C. ARTICLE 31
D. ARTICLE 32
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 30
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 30 GIVES MINORITIES THE RIGHT TO ESTABLISH AND ADMINISTER EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q375. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS THE SUPREME COURT TO ISSUE WRITS?
A. ARTICLE 30
B. ARTICLE 31
C. ARTICLE 32
D. ARTICLE 33
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 32
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 32 EMPOWERS THE SUPREME COURT TO ISSUE WRITS FOR ENFORCEMENT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q376. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS HIGH COURTS TO ISSUE WRITS?
A. ARTICLE 136
B. ARTICLE 226
C. ARTICLE 356
D. ARTICLE 360
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 226
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 226 EMPOWERS HIGH COURTS TO ISSUE WRITS FOR FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS AND LEGAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q377. WHICH WRIT PROTECTS PERSONAL LIBERTY?
A. MANDAMUS
B. PROHIBITION
C. HABEAS CORPUS
D. CERTIORARI
ANSWER: C. HABEAS CORPUS
EXPLANATION:
HABEAS CORPUS SAFEGUARDS INDIVIDUALS FROM UNLAWFUL DETENTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q378. THE TERM “MANDAMUS” MEANS:
A. TO PROHIBIT
B. WE COMMAND
C. BY WHAT AUTHORITY
D. TO CERTIFY
ANSWER: B. WE COMMAND
EXPLANATION:
MANDAMUS IS A WRIT DIRECTING PUBLIC AUTHORITIES TO PERFORM LEGAL DUTIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q379. WHICH WRIT PREVENTS INFERIOR COURTS FROM EXCEEDING JURISDICTION?
A. HABEAS CORPUS
B. MANDAMUS
C. PROHIBITION
D. QUO WARRANTO
ANSWER: C. PROHIBITION
EXPLANATION:
THE WRIT OF PROHIBITION STOPS LOWER COURTS FROM ACTING BEYOND JURISDICTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q380. WHICH WRIT QUASHES LOWER COURT PROCEEDINGS?
A. CERTIORARI
B. HABEAS CORPUS
C. MANDAMUS
D. PROHIBITION
ANSWER: A. CERTIORARI
EXPLANATION:
CERTIORARI TRANSFERS AND QUASHES CASES OF SUBORDINATE COURTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q381. “QUO WARRANTO” MEANS:
A. WE COMMAND
B. TO PROHIBIT
C. BY WHAT AUTHORITY
D. PRODUCE THE BODY
ANSWER: C. BY WHAT AUTHORITY
EXPLANATION:
QUO WARRANTO QUESTIONS LEGALITY OF PUBLIC OFFICE HOLDING.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q382. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY ASKS CITIZENS TO RESPECT THE CONSTITUTION AND NATIONAL FLAG?
A. ARTICLE 51A(A)
B. ARTICLE 51A(B)
C. ARTICLE 51A(C)
D. ARTICLE 51A(D)
ANSWER: A. ARTICLE 51A(A)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(A) DIRECTS CITIZENS TO RESPECT CONSTITUTIONAL IDEALS AND NATIONAL SYMBOLS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q383. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY PROTECTS SOVEREIGNTY AND INTEGRITY OF INDIA?
A. ARTICLE 51A(A)
B. ARTICLE 51A(B)
C. ARTICLE 51A(C)
D. ARTICLE 51A(D)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 51A(C)
EXPLANATION:
CITIZENS MUST UPHOLD AND PROTECT SOVEREIGNTY, UNITY, AND INTEGRITY OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q384. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY RELATES TO ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION?
A. ARTICLE 51A(F)
B. ARTICLE 51A(G)
C. ARTICLE 51A(H)
D. ARTICLE 51A(I)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(G)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(G) ASKS CITIZENS TO PROTECT AND IMPROVE THE NATURAL ENVIRONMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q385. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY PROMOTES SCIENTIFIC TEMPER?
A. ARTICLE 51A(G)
B. ARTICLE 51A(H)
C. ARTICLE 51A(I)
D. ARTICLE 51A(J)
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A(H)
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A(H) PROMOTES SCIENTIFIC TEMPER, INQUIRY, AND REFORM.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q386. WHICH FUNDAMENTAL DUTY SAFEGUARDS PUBLIC PROPERTY?
A. ARTICLE 51A(G)
B. ARTICLE 51A(H)
C. ARTICLE 51A(I)
D. ARTICLE 51A(J)
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 51A(I)
EXPLANATION:
CITIZENS MUST SAFEGUARD PUBLIC PROPERTY AND RENOUNCE VIOLENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q387. ARTICLE 51A(K) WAS ADDED BY WHICH AMENDMENT?
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 44TH AMENDMENT
C. 86TH AMENDMENT
D. 97TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER: C. 86TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 86TH AMENDMENT INSERTED THE DUTY OF PARENTS TO PROVIDE EDUCATION TO CHILDREN.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q388. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT IS CALLED THE “MINI CONSTITUTION”?
A. 24TH AMENDMENT
B. 42ND AMENDMENT
C. 44TH AMENDMENT
D. 52ND AMENDMENT
ANSWER: B. 42ND AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 42ND AMENDMENT MADE WIDE-RANGING CONSTITUTIONAL CHANGES AND IS CALLED THE “MINI CONSTITUTION.”
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q389. WHICH AMENDMENT REMOVED RIGHT TO PROPERTY FROM FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. 24TH AMENDMENT
B. 42ND AMENDMENT
C. 44TH AMENDMENT
D. 86TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER: C. 44TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 44TH AMENDMENT MADE RIGHT TO PROPERTY A LEGAL RIGHT.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q390. ARTICLE 21A WAS INSERTED BY WHICH AMENDMENT?
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 44TH AMENDMENT
C. 86TH AMENDMENT
D. 97TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER: C. 86TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 86TH AMENDMENT INSERTED RIGHT TO EDUCATION UNDER ARTICLE 21A.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q391. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ADDED COOPERATIVE SOCIETIES UNDER ARTICLE 19(1)(C)?
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 44TH AMENDMENT
C. 86TH AMENDMENT
D. 97TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER: D. 97TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 97TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT ADDED COOPERATIVE SOCIETIES UNDER ARTICLE 19(1)(C) AND INSERTED PART IXB IN THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q392. EQUALITY BEFORE LAW IN THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION IS BORROWED FROM:
A. USA
B. UK
C. USSR
D. FRANCE
ANSWER: B. UK
EXPLANATION:
THE CONCEPT OF “EQUALITY BEFORE LAW” HAS BEEN BORROWED FROM THE BRITISH CONSTITUTION AND IS INCLUDED IN ARTICLE 14.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q393. JUDICIAL REVIEW IN INDIA IS MAINLY BASED ON WHICH ARTICLE?
A. ARTICLE 12
B. ARTICLE 13
C. ARTICLE 14
D. ARTICLE 15
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 13
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 13 PROVIDES THE BASIS OF JUDICIAL REVIEW BY DECLARING LAWS VIOLATING FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS AS VOID.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q394. WHICH ARTICLE IS RELATED TO MARTIAL LAW?
A. ARTICLE 32
B. ARTICLE 33
C. ARTICLE 34
D. ARTICLE 35
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 34
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 34 DEALS WITH RESTRICTIONS ON FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS WHILE MARTIAL LAW IS IN FORCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q395. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO MAKE LAWS REGARDING FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. ARTICLE 32
B. ARTICLE 33
C. ARTICLE 34
D. ARTICLE 35
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 35
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 35 GIVES PARLIAMENT AUTHORITY TO MAKE LAWS ON CERTAIN MATTERS RELATED TO FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q396. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS INCLUDED WITHIN THE DEFINITION OF “STATE” UNDER ARTICLE 12?
A. LOCAL AUTHORITIES
B. PARLIAMENT
C. GOVERNMENT DEPARTMENTS
D. ALL OF THESE
ANSWER: D. ALL OF THESE
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 12 INCLUDES GOVERNMENT, PARLIAMENT, STATE LEGISLATURES, LOCAL AUTHORITIES, AND OTHER AUTHORITIES WITHIN THE DEFINITION OF “STATE.”
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q397. PREVENTIVE DETENTION AIMS TO:
A. PUNISH PAST CRIMES
B. PREVENT FUTURE OFFENCES
C. RECOVER FINES
D. PROVIDE COMPENSATION
ANSWER: B. PREVENT FUTURE OFFENCES
EXPLANATION:
PREVENTIVE DETENTION IS USED TO PREVENT A PERSON FROM COMMITTING FUTURE HARMFUL ACTS AGAINST PUBLIC ORDER OR NATIONAL SECURITY.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q398. WHICH BODY REVIEWS PREVENTIVE DETENTION CASES BEYOND THREE MONTHS?
A. SUPREME COURT
B. PARLIAMENT
C. ADVISORY BOARD
D. ELECTION COMMISSION
ANSWER: C. ADVISORY BOARD
EXPLANATION:
UNDER ARTICLE 22, PREVENTIVE DETENTION BEYOND THREE MONTHS REQUIRES REVIEW BY AN ADVISORY BOARD.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q399. FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS MAINLY PROMOTE:
A. ECONOMIC DEMOCRACY
B. POLITICAL DEMOCRACY
C. RELIGIOUS DICTATORSHIP
D. MONARCHY
ANSWER: B. POLITICAL DEMOCRACY
EXPLANATION:
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS ENSURE LIBERTY, EQUALITY, AND FREEDOM NECESSARY FOR POLITICAL DEMOCRACY IN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q400. FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES MAINLY PROMOTE:
A. JUDICIAL SUPREMACY
B. EXECUTIVE POWERS
C. CIVIC RESPONSIBILITY
D. EMERGENCY POWERS
ANSWER: C. CIVIC RESPONSIBILITY
EXPLANATION:
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES ENCOURAGE CITIZENS TO FULFILL MORAL AND CIVIC OBLIGATIONS TOWARDS THE NATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC ALL EXAMS GK: PARLIAMENT & JUDICIARY
PARLIAMENT & JUDICIARY FOR SSC EXAMS – COMPLETE GK NOTES
THE TOPICS PARLIAMENT AND JUDICIARY ARE AMONG THE MOST IMPORTANT SECTIONS OF INDIAN POLITY FOR SSC EXAMINATIONS SUCH AS:
SSC CGL
SSC CHSL
SSC MTS
SSC CPO
SSC GD
SSC STENOGRAPHER
SSC JE
SSC SELECTION POST
EVERY YEAR SSC ASKS DIRECT MCQS FROM:
ARTICLES OF THE CONSTITUTION
STRUCTURE OF PARLIAMENT
LOK SABHA AND RAJYA SABHA
POWERS OF THE PRESIDENT
MONEY BILL AND ORDINARY BILL
SUPREME COURT
HIGH COURT
JUDICIAL REVIEW
WRITS
APPOINTMENT AND REMOVAL OF JUDGES
CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENTS
MANY QUESTIONS ARE REPEATED IN SSC EXAMS AFTER 2–5 YEARS WITH SLIGHT WORDING CHANGES. THEREFORE, PRACTICING PREVIOUS YEAR MCQS IS EXTREMELY IMPORTANT.
PARLIAMENT – IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
WHAT IS PARLIAMENT?
THE PARLIAMENT OF INDIA IS THE SUPREME LEGISLATIVE BODY OF THE COUNTRY. ACCORDING TO ARTICLE 79 OF THE CONSTITUTION, THE PARLIAMENT CONSISTS OF:
- PRESIDENT OF INDIA
- LOK SABHA (HOUSE OF THE PEOPLE)
- RAJYA SABHA (COUNCIL OF STATES)
IMPORTANT FACTS ABOUT PARLIAMENT
ARTICLE 79 – PARLIAMENT OF INDIA
ARTICLE 80 – COMPOSITION OF RAJYA SABHA
ARTICLE 81 – COMPOSITION OF LOK SABHA
MAXIMUM STRENGTH OF LOK SABHA – 552
MAXIMUM STRENGTH OF RAJYA SABHA – 250
RAJYA SABHA IS A PERMANENT HOUSE
LOK SABHA HAS A TENURE OF 5 YEARS
VICE PRESIDENT IS THE EX-OFFICIO CHAIRMAN OF RAJYA SABHA
SPEAKER PRESIDES OVER LOK SABHA
MONEY BILL CAN BE INTRODUCED ONLY IN LOK SABHA
JOINT SITTING IS MENTIONED IN ARTICLE 108
FREQUENTLY ASKED SSC AREAS
SSC REPEATEDLY ASKS QUESTIONS FROM:
MONEY BILL
JOINT SITTING
SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA
TENURE OF RAJYA SABHA MEMBERS
CONSTITUTIONAL ARTICLES
QUORUM OF PARLIAMENT
FIRST LOK SABHA
PARLIAMENTARY COMMITTEES
PARLIAMENT MCQ QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION
Q1. WHICH ARTICLE OF THE CONSTITUTION DEALS WITH THE PARLIAMENT OF INDIA?
A. ARTICLE 74
B. ARTICLE 75
C. ARTICLE 79
D. ARTICLE 80
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 79
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 79 STATES THAT THERE SHALL BE A PARLIAMENT FOR THE UNION CONSISTING OF THE PRESIDENT, RAJYA SABHA, AND LOK SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
Q2. WHO IS THE EX-OFFICIO CHAIRMAN OF THE RAJYA SABHA?
A. PRESIDENT
B. PRIME MINISTER
C. VICE PRESIDENT
D. SPEAKER
ANSWER: C. VICE PRESIDENT
EXPLANATION:
THE VICE PRESIDENT OF INDIA ACTS AS THE EX-OFFICIO CHAIRMAN OF THE RAJYA SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q3. WHICH HOUSE OF PARLIAMENT IS KNOWN AS THE PERMANENT HOUSE?
A. LOK SABHA
B. RAJYA SABHA
C. VIDHAN SABHA
D. LEGISLATIVE COUNCIL
ANSWER: B. RAJYA SABHA
EXPLANATION:
RAJYA SABHA IS A PERMANENT HOUSE BECAUSE IT IS NEVER DISSOLVED. ONE-THIRD OF ITS MEMBERS RETIRE EVERY TWO YEARS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2018
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2024
Q4. WHAT IS THE NORMAL TENURE OF LOK SABHA?
A. 4 YEARS
B. 5 YEARS
C. 6 YEARS
D. 7 YEARS
ANSWER: B. 5 YEARS
EXPLANATION:
THE NORMAL TENURE OF LOK SABHA IS 5 YEARS UNLESS DISSOLVED EARLIER BY THE PRESIDENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
Q5. MONEY BILL CAN BE INTRODUCED IN WHICH HOUSE?
A. RAJYA SABHA
B. EITHER HOUSE
C. LOK SABHA ONLY
D. JOINT SESSION
ANSWER: C. LOK SABHA ONLY
EXPLANATION:
ACCORDING TO ARTICLE 110, A MONEY BILL CAN ONLY BE INTRODUCED IN THE LOK SABHA WITH PRIOR RECOMMENDATION OF THE PRESIDENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC CPO 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q6. WHO DECIDES WHETHER A BILL IS A MONEY BILL OR NOT?
A. PRESIDENT
B. PRIME MINISTER
C. SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA
D. CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA
ANSWER: C. SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA
EXPLANATION:
THE DECISION OF THE SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA REGARDING MONEY BILL IS FINAL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q7. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM STRENGTH OF LOK SABHA?
A. 545
B. 552
C. 550
D. 560
ANSWER: B. 552
EXPLANATION:
THE CONSTITUTION PROVIDES MAXIMUM STRENGTH OF LOK SABHA AS 552.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2023
Q8. WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM STRENGTH OF RAJYA SABHA?
A. 238
B. 245
C. 250
D. 260
ANSWER: C. 250
EXPLANATION:
THE MAXIMUM STRENGTH OF RAJYA SABHA IS 250 MEMBERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC MTS 2020
SSC GD 2022
Q9. JOINT SITTING OF PARLIAMENT IS MENTIONED IN WHICH ARTICLE?
A. ARTICLE 105
B. ARTICLE 108
C. ARTICLE 110
D. ARTICLE 112
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 108
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 108 DEALS WITH THE JOINT SITTING OF BOTH HOUSES OF PARLIAMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC CPO 2023
Q10. WHO PRESIDES OVER THE JOINT SITTING OF PARLIAMENT?
A. PRESIDENT
B. VICE PRESIDENT
C. SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA
D. CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA
ANSWER: C. SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA
EXPLANATION:
THE SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA PRESIDES OVER THE JOINT SITTING OF PARLIAMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2024
Q11. WHICH HOUSE HAS MORE POWERS REGARDING MONEY BILL?
A. RAJYA SABHA
B. LOK SABHA
C. BOTH EQUAL
D. PRESIDENT
ANSWER: B. LOK SABHA
EXPLANATION:
RAJYA SABHA CAN ONLY RECOMMEND CHANGES IN A MONEY BILL AND MUST RETURN IT WITHIN 14 DAYS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC CPO 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q12. THE QUORUM OF PARLIAMENT IS:
A. ONE-THIRD
B. ONE-FOURTH
C. ONE-TENTH
D. HALF
ANSWER: C. ONE-TENTH
EXPLANATION:
QUORUM MEANS MINIMUM NUMBER OF MEMBERS REQUIRED TO CONDUCT A MEETING. IT IS ONE-TENTH OF TOTAL MEMBERSHIP.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2018
SSC MTS 2022
Q13. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT REDUCED VOTING AGE FROM 21 TO 18 YEARS?
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 44TH AMENDMENT
C. 52ND AMENDMENT
D. 61ST AMENDMENT
ANSWER: D. 61ST AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 61ST CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1988 REDUCED THE VOTING AGE FROM 21 YEARS TO 18 YEARS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q14. WHICH HOUSE CANNOT BE DISSOLVED?
A. LOK SABHA
B. RAJYA SABHA
C. BOTH HOUSES
D. STATE ASSEMBLY
ANSWER: B. RAJYA SABHA
EXPLANATION:
RAJYA SABHA IS A PERMANENT HOUSE AND THEREFORE CANNOT BE DISSOLVED.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2024
Q15. THE SPEAKER SUBMITS RESIGNATION TO WHOM?
A. PRESIDENT
B. PRIME MINISTER
C. DEPUTY SPEAKER
D. CHIEF JUSTICE
ANSWER: C. DEPUTY SPEAKER
EXPLANATION:
THE SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA SUBMITS RESIGNATION TO THE DEPUTY SPEAKER.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC CHSL 2022
JUDICIARY – IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
WHAT IS JUDICIARY?
JUDICIARY IS THE SYSTEM OF COURTS THAT INTERPRETS AND APPLIES LAW IN INDIA. IT PROTECTS THE CONSTITUTION AND FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS OF CITIZENS.
THE INDIAN JUDICIARY IS INDEPENDENT FROM THE EXECUTIVE AND LEGISLATURE.
STRUCTURE OF INDIAN JUDICIARY
- SUPREME COURT
- HIGH COURTS
- DISTRICT AND SUBORDINATE COURTS
IMPORTANT CONSTITUTIONAL ARTICLES
ARTICLE 124 – SUPREME COURT
ARTICLE 214 – HIGH COURT
ARTICLE 32 – RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES
ARTICLE 136 – SPECIAL LEAVE PETITION
ARTICLE 141 – LAW DECLARED BY SUPREME COURT
ARTICLE 143 – ADVISORY JURISDICTION
IMPORTANT SSC FOCUS AREAS
SSC REPEATEDLY ASKS QUESTIONS FROM:
APPOINTMENT OF JUDGES
RETIREMENT AGE
WRITS
JUDICIAL REVIEW
PIL
ARTICLES RELATED TO JUDICIARY
SUPREME COURT POWERS
HIGH COURT POWERS
JUDICIARY MCQ QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION
Q1. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH THE ESTABLISHMENT OF SUPREME COURT?
A. ARTICLE 120
B. ARTICLE 124
C. ARTICLE 130
D. ARTICLE 131
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 124
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 124 PROVIDES FOR THE ESTABLISHMENT AND CONSTITUTION OF THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
Q2. WHO APPOINTS THE CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA?
A. PRIME MINISTER
B. PARLIAMENT
C. PRESIDENT
D. VICE PRESIDENT
ANSWER: C. PRESIDENT
EXPLANATION:
THE CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA IS APPOINTED BY THE PRESIDENT OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q3. WHAT IS THE RETIREMENT AGE OF SUPREME COURT JUDGES?
A. 60 YEARS
B. 62 YEARS
C. 65 YEARS
D. 68 YEARS
ANSWER: C. 65 YEARS
EXPLANATION:
JUDGES OF THE SUPREME COURT RETIRE AT THE AGE OF 65 YEARS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
SSC GD 2024
Q4. WHAT IS THE RETIREMENT AGE OF HIGH COURT JUDGES?
A. 60 YEARS
B. 62 YEARS
C. 65 YEARS
D. 70 YEARS
ANSWER: B. 62 YEARS
EXPLANATION:
HIGH COURT JUDGES RETIRE AT THE AGE OF 62 YEARS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q5. WHICH WRIT IS ISSUED TO PRODUCE A PERSON BEFORE THE COURT?
A. MANDAMUS
B. CERTIORARI
C. HABEAS CORPUS
D. QUO WARRANTO
ANSWER: C. HABEAS CORPUS
EXPLANATION:
HABEAS CORPUS MEANS “TO PRODUCE THE BODY.” IT PROTECTS INDIVIDUAL LIBERTY AGAINST UNLAWFUL DETENTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2018
SSC CPO 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q6. WHICH WRIT MEANS “WE COMMAND”?
A. MANDAMUS
B. HABEAS CORPUS
C. PROHIBITION
D. CERTIORARI
ANSWER: A. MANDAMUS
EXPLANATION:
MANDAMUS IS ISSUED BY A COURT TO ORDER A PUBLIC AUTHORITY TO PERFORM ITS DUTY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q7. JUDICIAL REVIEW IN INDIA IS ADOPTED FROM WHICH COUNTRY?
A. UK
B. USA
C. CANADA
D. AUSTRALIA
ANSWER: B. USA
EXPLANATION:
THE CONCEPT OF JUDICIAL REVIEW WAS BORROWED FROM THE UNITED STATES OF AMERICA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC MTS 2024
Q8. WHICH ARTICLE IS KNOWN AS THE “HEART AND SOUL” OF THE CONSTITUTION?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 32
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 32
EXPLANATION:
DR. B.R. AMBEDKAR CALLED ARTICLE 32 THE “HEART AND SOUL” OF THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2015
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
SSC CPO 2023
Q9. WHO CAN REMOVE THE JUDGES OF SUPREME COURT?
A. PRESIDENT ALONE
B. PARLIAMENT
C. PRIME MINISTER
D. CHIEF JUSTICE
ANSWER: B. PARLIAMENT
EXPLANATION:
JUDGES OF SUPREME COURT CAN BE REMOVED THROUGH IMPEACHMENT BY PARLIAMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC MTS 2022
Q10. WHICH COURT IS THE HIGHEST COURT IN INDIA?
A. HIGH COURT
B. DISTRICT COURT
C. SUPREME COURT
D. FEDERAL COURT
ANSWER: C. SUPREME COURT
EXPLANATION:
THE SUPREME COURT IS THE APEX JUDICIAL AUTHORITY IN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q11. PUBLIC INTEREST LITIGATION (PIL) IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
A. LEGISLATURE
B. EXECUTIVE
C. JUDICIARY
D. ELECTION COMMISSION
ANSWER: C. JUDICIARY
EXPLANATION:
PIL ALLOWS ANY PUBLIC-SPIRITED PERSON TO APPROACH THE COURT FOR PUBLIC WELFARE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2019
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2024
Q12. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS SUPREME COURT TO ISSUE WRITS?
A. ARTICLE 30
B. ARTICLE 31
C. ARTICLE 32
D. ARTICLE 35
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 32
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 32 GIVES THE SUPREME COURT POWER TO ISSUE WRITS FOR ENFORCEMENT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC CPO 2022
Q13. WHICH WRIT IS ISSUED TO PREVENT A LOWER COURT FROM EXCEEDING JURISDICTION?
A. PROHIBITION
B. MANDAMUS
C. HABEAS CORPUS
D. QUO WARRANTO
ANSWER: A. PROHIBITION
EXPLANATION:
THE WRIT OF PROHIBITION IS ISSUED BY A HIGHER COURT TO STOP LOWER COURTS FROM ACTING BEYOND JURISDICTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q14. THE LAW DECLARED BY SUPREME COURT IS BINDING ON ALL COURTS UNDER:
A. ARTICLE 136
B. ARTICLE 141
C. ARTICLE 143
D. ARTICLE 144
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 141
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 141 STATES THAT THE LAW DECLARED BY THE SUPREME COURT SHALL BE BINDING ON ALL COURTS WITHIN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2020
SSC CHSL 2022
Q15. ADVISORY JURISDICTION OF SUPREME COURT IS MENTIONED IN:
A. ARTICLE 136
B. ARTICLE 139
C. ARTICLE 143
D. ARTICLE 145
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 143
EXPLANATION:
UNDER ARTICLE 143, THE PRESIDENT MAY SEEK THE ADVISORY OPINION OF THE SUPREME COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC MTS 2023
IMPORTANT ONE-LINER REVISION FOR SSC EXAMS
PARLIAMENT ONE-LINERS
PARLIAMENT CONSISTS OF PRESIDENT + RAJYA SABHA + LOK SABHA.
RAJYA SABHA IS A PERMANENT HOUSE.
MONEY BILL IS INTRODUCED ONLY IN LOK SABHA.
SPEAKER DECIDES MONEY BILL.
VICE PRESIDENT IS CHAIRMAN OF RAJYA SABHA.
JOINT SITTING IS UNDER ARTICLE 108.
QUORUM IS ONE-TENTH.
MAXIMUM STRENGTH OF LOK SABHA = 552.
MAXIMUM STRENGTH OF RAJYA SABHA = 250.
JUDICIARY ONE-LINERS
ARTICLE 124 DEALS WITH SUPREME COURT.
RETIREMENT AGE OF SC JUDGES = 65 YEARS.
RETIREMENT AGE OF HC JUDGES = 62 YEARS.
ARTICLE 32 IS HEART AND SOUL.
JUDICIAL REVIEW BORROWED FROM USA.
HABEAS CORPUS PROTECTS PERSONAL LIBERTY.
SUPREME COURT IS APEX COURT OF INDIA.
ARTICLE 141 MAKES SUPREME COURT JUDGMENTS BINDING.
Q16. WHICH HOUSE OF PARLIAMENT REPRESENTS THE STATES OF INDIA?
A. LOK SABHA
B. RAJYA SABHA
C. VIDHAN SABHA
D. LEGISLATIVE ASSEMBLY
ANSWER: B. RAJYA SABHA
EXPLANATION:
RAJYA SABHA IS CALLED THE COUNCIL OF STATES BECAUSE IT REPRESENTS THE STATES AND UNION TERRITORIES OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC CHSL 2024
Q17. WHO SUMMONS THE SESSIONS OF PARLIAMENT?
A. PRIME MINISTER
B. SPEAKER
C. PRESIDENT
D. CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA
ANSWER: C. PRESIDENT
EXPLANATION:
THE PRESIDENT SUMMONS EACH HOUSE OF PARLIAMENT FROM TIME TO TIME.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q18. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH THE SPEAKER AND DEPUTY SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA?
A. ARTICLE 90
B. ARTICLE 91
C. ARTICLE 93
D. ARTICLE 95
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 93
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 93 PROVIDES FOR THE SPEAKER AND DEPUTY SPEAKER OF THE HOUSE OF THE PEOPLE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2022
SSC MTS 2024
Q19. HOW MANY MEMBERS OF RAJYA SABHA RETIRE AFTER EVERY TWO YEARS?
A. ONE-HALF
B. ONE-THIRD
C. ONE-FOURTH
D. TWO-THIRDS
ANSWER: B. ONE-THIRD
EXPLANATION:
RAJYA SABHA IS A PERMANENT BODY AND ONE-THIRD OF ITS MEMBERS RETIRE EVERY SECOND YEAR.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC GD 2024
Q20. WHICH TYPE OF BILL CANNOT BE INTRODUCED IN RAJYA SABHA?
A. CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT BILL
B. ORDINARY BILL
C. MONEY BILL
D. FINANCE BILL
ANSWER: C. MONEY BILL
EXPLANATION:
A MONEY BILL CAN ONLY BE INTRODUCED IN LOK SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC CPO 2023
Q21. THE FIRST HOUR OF PARLIAMENT PROCEEDINGS IS KNOWN AS:
A. ZERO HOUR
B. CALLING ATTENTION HOUR
C. QUESTION HOUR
D. MOTION HOUR
ANSWER: C. QUESTION HOUR
EXPLANATION:
QUESTION HOUR IS THE FIRST HOUR OF A PARLIAMENTARY SITTING DURING WHICH MINISTERS ANSWER QUESTIONS ASKED BY MEMBERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q22. WHICH HOUSE HAS THE EXCLUSIVE POWER TO INTRODUCE A NO-CONFIDENCE MOTION?
A. RAJYA SABHA
B. LOK SABHA
C. BOTH HOUSES
D. STATE LEGISLATURE
ANSWER: B. LOK SABHA
EXPLANATION:
THE COUNCIL OF MINISTERS IS COLLECTIVELY RESPONSIBLE TO LOK SABHA ONLY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2023
SSC GD 2024
Q23. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM AGE TO BECOME A MEMBER OF LOK SABHA?
A. 21 YEARS
B. 25 YEARS
C. 30 YEARS
D. 35 YEARS
ANSWER: B. 25 YEARS
EXPLANATION:
A PERSON MUST BE AT LEAST 25 YEARS OLD TO BECOME A MEMBER OF LOK SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC MTS 2024
Q24. WHAT IS THE MINIMUM AGE TO BECOME A MEMBER OF RAJYA SABHA?
A. 25 YEARS
B. 28 YEARS
C. 30 YEARS
D. 35 YEARS
ANSWER: C. 30 YEARS
EXPLANATION:
THE MINIMUM AGE PRESCRIBED FOR RAJYA SABHA MEMBERSHIP IS 30 YEARS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q25. WHO ADMINISTERS OATH TO THE MEMBERS OF LOK SABHA?
A. PRESIDENT
B. PRIME MINISTER
C. SPEAKER PRO TEM
D. CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA
ANSWER: C. SPEAKER PRO TEM
EXPLANATION:
THE PRESIDENT APPOINTS A SPEAKER PRO TEM WHO ADMINISTERS OATH TO NEWLY ELECTED LOK SABHA MEMBERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC CPO 2024
JUDICIARY MCQ QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION (CONTINUED)
Q16. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH HIGH COURTS IN STATES?
A. ARTICLE 210
B. ARTICLE 214
C. ARTICLE 220
D. ARTICLE 226
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 214
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 214 STATES THAT THERE SHALL BE A HIGH COURT FOR EACH STATE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2023
Q17. WHICH WRIT MEANS “BY WHAT AUTHORITY”?
A. HABEAS CORPUS
B. MANDAMUS
C. QUO WARRANTO
D. CERTIORARI
ANSWER: C. QUO WARRANTO
EXPLANATION:
QUO WARRANTO IS ISSUED TO QUESTION THE LEGALITY OF A PERSON’S CLAIM TO A PUBLIC OFFICE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC GD 2024
Q18. WHICH WRIT IS ISSUED TO TRANSFER A CASE FROM A LOWER COURT TO A HIGHER COURT?
A. CERTIORARI
B. PROHIBITION
C. MANDAMUS
D. HABEAS CORPUS
ANSWER: A. CERTIORARI
EXPLANATION:
CERTIORARI IS ISSUED BY A SUPERIOR COURT TO QUASH THE ORDER OF A LOWER COURT OR TRIBUNAL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2023
SSC CPO 2024
Q19. THE POWER OF JUDICIAL REVIEW MEANS:
A. REVIEW OF ELECTIONS
B. REVIEW OF MILITARY ACTIONS
C. REVIEW OF CONSTITUTIONALITY OF LAWS
D. REVIEW OF BUDGET
ANSWER: C. REVIEW OF CONSTITUTIONALITY OF LAWS
EXPLANATION:
JUDICIAL REVIEW ALLOWS COURTS TO EXAMINE LAWS AND EXECUTIVE ACTIONS TO DETERMINE WHETHER THEY VIOLATE THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q20. WHICH COURT IS KNOWN AS THE GUARDIAN OF THE CONSTITUTION?
A. PARLIAMENT
B. ELECTION COMMISSION
C. SUPREME COURT
D. HIGH COURT
ANSWER: C. SUPREME COURT
EXPLANATION:
THE SUPREME COURT PROTECTS AND INTERPRETS THE CONSTITUTION AND IS THEREFORE CALLED THE GUARDIAN OF THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2022
SSC MTS 2024
Q21. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS HIGH COURTS TO ISSUE WRITS?
A. ARTICLE 226
B. ARTICLE 227
C. ARTICLE 228
D. ARTICLE 229
ANSWER: A. ARTICLE 226
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 226 GIVES HIGH COURTS POWER TO ISSUE WRITS FOR ENFORCEMENT OF RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC GD 2024
Q22. WHO ADMINISTERS OATH TO THE CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA?
A. PRIME MINISTER
B. PRESIDENT
C. VICE PRESIDENT
D. SPEAKER
ANSWER: B. PRESIDENT
EXPLANATION:
THE PRESIDENT ADMINISTERS OATH TO THE CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2021
SSC CPO 2023
Q23. THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA WAS ESTABLISHED IN:
A. 1947
B. 1948
C. 1950
D. 1952
ANSWER: C. 1950
EXPLANATION:
THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA CAME INTO EXISTENCE ON 28 JANUARY 1950.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2022
SSC MTS 2024
Q24. HOW MANY TYPES OF WRITS ARE THERE IN THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
ANSWER: C. 5
EXPLANATION:
THE CONSTITUTION PROVIDES FIVE WRITS: HABEAS CORPUS, MANDAMUS, PROHIBITION, CERTIORARI, AND QUO WARRANTO.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2023
SSC GD 2024
Q25. WHICH BODY INTERPRETS THE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA?
A. PARLIAMENT
B. PRESIDENT
C. SUPREME COURT
D. ELECTION COMMISSION
ANSWER: C. SUPREME COURT
EXPLANATION:
THE SUPREME COURT IS THE FINAL INTERPRETER AND PROTECTOR OF THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC MTS 2023
JUDICIARY MCQ QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION (CONTINUED)
Q26. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES FOR THE APPOINTMENT OF SUPREME COURT JUDGES?
A. ARTICLE 120
B. ARTICLE 124
C. ARTICLE 126
D. ARTICLE 130
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 124
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 124 DEALS WITH APPOINTMENT AND CONDITIONS OF SUPREME COURT JUDGES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2024
SSC CHSL 2025
Q27. WHICH COURT HAS THE POWER OF JUDICIAL REVIEW?
A. SUPREME COURT ONLY
B. HIGH COURT ONLY
C. BOTH SUPREME COURT AND HIGH COURTS
D. PARLIAMENT
ANSWER: C. BOTH SUPREME COURT AND HIGH COURTS
EXPLANATION:
BOTH SUPREME COURT AND HIGH COURTS EXERCISE THE POWER OF JUDICIAL REVIEW.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2024
SSC MTS 2025
Q28. WHICH WRIT IS ISSUED AGAINST ILLEGAL OCCUPATION OF PUBLIC OFFICE?
A. MANDAMUS
B. CERTIORARI
C. QUO WARRANTO
D. HABEAS CORPUS
ANSWER: C. QUO WARRANTO
EXPLANATION:
QUO WARRANTO RESTRAINS A PERSON FROM HOLDING A PUBLIC OFFICE UNLAWFULLY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2024
SSC CPO 2025
Q29. WHICH ARTICLE GIVES ADVISORY JURISDICTION TO THE SUPREME COURT?
A. ARTICLE 136
B. ARTICLE 141
C. ARTICLE 143
D. ARTICLE 145
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 143
EXPLANATION:
UNDER ARTICLE 143, THE PRESIDENT CAN SEEK LEGAL ADVICE FROM THE SUPREME COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2025
SSC GD 2025
Q30. WHO APPOINTS HIGH COURT JUDGES?
A. PRIME MINISTER
B. GOVERNOR
C. PRESIDENT
D. CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA
ANSWER: C. PRESIDENT
EXPLANATION:
HIGH COURT JUDGES ARE APPOINTED BY THE PRESIDENT OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2024
SSC MTS 2025
Q31. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH WRIT JURISDICTION OF HIGH COURTS?
A. ARTICLE 224
B. ARTICLE 225
C. ARTICLE 226
D. ARTICLE 227
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 226
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 226 EMPOWERS HIGH COURTS TO ISSUE WRITS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2024
SSC CPO 2025
Q32. THE SUPREME COURT FUNCTIONS FROM:
A. MUMBAI
B. CHENNAI
C. KOLKATA
D. NEW DELHI
ANSWER: D. NEW DELHI
EXPLANATION:
THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA IS LOCATED IN NEW DELHI.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2024
SSC CHSL 2025
Q33. WHICH TYPE OF JUDICIARY IS FOLLOWED IN INDIA?
A. DUAL JUDICIARY
B. SINGLE INTEGRATED JUDICIARY
C. MILITARY JUDICIARY
D. PARLIAMENTARY JUDICIARY
ANSWER: B. SINGLE INTEGRATED JUDICIARY
EXPLANATION:
INDIA FOLLOWS A SINGLE INTEGRATED JUDICIAL SYSTEM WITH SUPREME COURT AT THE TOP.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2024
SSC MTS 2025
Q34. THE IMPEACHMENT OF SUPREME COURT JUDGES REQUIRES:
A. SIMPLE MAJORITY
B. SPECIAL MAJORITY
C. TWO-THIRDS MAJORITY ONLY IN LOK SABHA
D. APPROVAL OF PRESIDENT ONLY
ANSWER: B. SPECIAL MAJORITY
EXPLANATION:
REMOVAL OF SUPREME COURT JUDGES REQUIRES A SPECIAL MAJORITY IN PARLIAMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2024
SSC CPO 2025
Q35. WHICH COURT IS CALLED THE APEX COURT OF INDIA?
A. HIGH COURT
B. DISTRICT COURT
C. SUPREME COURT
D. SESSIONS COURT
ANSWER: C. SUPREME COURT
EXPLANATION:
THE SUPREME COURT IS THE HIGHEST JUDICIAL AUTHORITY IN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2025
SSC GD 2025
Q36. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH THE TRANSFER OF JUDGES FROM ONE HIGH COURT TO ANOTHER?
A. ARTICLE 220
B. ARTICLE 221
C. ARTICLE 222
D. ARTICLE 223
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 222
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 222 EMPOWERS THE PRESIDENT TO TRANSFER JUDGES FROM ONE HIGH COURT TO ANOTHER.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2025
SSC CHSL 2026
Q37. WHICH AUTHORITY CAN ESTABLISH A COMMON HIGH COURT FOR TWO OR MORE STATES?
A. PRESIDENT
B. PARLIAMENT
C. SUPREME COURT
D. GOVERNOR
ANSWER: B. PARLIAMENT
EXPLANATION:
PARLIAMENT MAY ESTABLISH A COMMON HIGH COURT FOR TWO OR MORE STATES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2025
SSC MTS 2026
Q38. WHICH ARTICLE STATES THAT SUPREME COURT SHALL BE A COURT OF RECORD?
A. ARTICLE 127
B. ARTICLE 128
C. ARTICLE 129
D. ARTICLE 130
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 129
EXPLANATION:
UNDER ARTICLE 129, THE SUPREME COURT IS DECLARED A COURT OF RECORD.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2026
SSC CPO 2026
Q39. WHICH ARTICLE GRANTS SPECIAL LEAVE TO APPEAL BY SUPREME COURT?
A. ARTICLE 134
B. ARTICLE 135
C. ARTICLE 136
D. ARTICLE 137
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 136
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 136 EMPOWERS THE SUPREME COURT TO GRANT SPECIAL LEAVE TO APPEAL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2025
SSC GD 2026
Q40. WHICH ARTICLE GIVES SUPREME COURT POWER TO REVIEW ITS OWN JUDGMENTS?
A. ARTICLE 137
B. ARTICLE 138
C. ARTICLE 139
D. ARTICLE 140
ANSWER: A. ARTICLE 137
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 137 EMPOWERS THE SUPREME COURT TO REVIEW ITS JUDGMENTS OR ORDERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2025
SSC CGL 2026
Q41. WHICH ARTICLE STATES THAT ALL AUTHORITIES SHALL ACT IN AID OF SUPREME COURT?
A. ARTICLE 141
B. ARTICLE 142
C. ARTICLE 143
D. ARTICLE 144
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 144
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 144 REQUIRES ALL CIVIL AND JUDICIAL AUTHORITIES TO ACT IN AID OF THE SUPREME COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2026
SSC CPO 2026
Q42. WHICH COURT CAN PUNISH FOR CONTEMPT OF ITSELF?
A. SUPREME COURT ONLY
B. HIGH COURT ONLY
C. BOTH SUPREME COURT AND HIGH COURTS
D. DISTRICT COURT ONLY
ANSWER: C. BOTH SUPREME COURT AND HIGH COURTS
EXPLANATION:
BOTH SUPREME COURT AND HIGH COURTS HAVE POWER TO PUNISH FOR CONTEMPT OF COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2025
SSC MTS 2026
Q43. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH THE SALARIES OF HIGH COURT JUDGES?
A. ARTICLE 220
B. ARTICLE 221
C. ARTICLE 222
D. ARTICLE 223
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 221
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 221 DEALS WITH SALARIES AND ALLOWANCES OF HIGH COURT JUDGES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2026
SSC CHSL 2026
Q44. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH ACTING CHIEF JUSTICE OF HIGH COURT?
A. ARTICLE 223
B. ARTICLE 224
C. ARTICLE 225
D. ARTICLE 226
ANSWER: A. ARTICLE 223
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 223 PROVIDES FOR APPOINTMENT OF ACTING CHIEF JUSTICE OF A HIGH COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2025
SSC CPO 2026
Q45. THE CONCEPT OF PUBLIC INTEREST LITIGATION WAS DEVELOPED IN:
A. USA
B. UK
C. INDIA
D. FRANCE
ANSWER: C. INDIA
EXPLANATION:
PUBLIC INTEREST LITIGATION GAINED PROMINENCE IN INDIA THROUGH JUDICIAL ACTIVISM.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2025
SSC MTS 2026
Q46. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO ENLARGE THE JURISDICTION OF SUPREME COURT?
A. ARTICLE 138
B. ARTICLE 139
C. ARTICLE 140
D. ARTICLE 141
ANSWER: A. ARTICLE 138
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 138 ALLOWS PARLIAMENT TO ENLARGE THE JURISDICTION OF THE SUPREME COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2026
SSC CHSL 2027
Q47. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS SUPREME COURT TO ISSUE CERTAIN WRITS?
A. ARTICLE 139
B. ARTICLE 140
C. ARTICLE 141
D. ARTICLE 142
ANSWER: A. ARTICLE 139
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 139 EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO CONFER WRIT JURISDICTION ON THE SUPREME COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2026
SSC MTS 2027
Q48. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH ENFORCEMENT OF DECREES AND ORDERS OF SUPREME COURT?
A. ARTICLE 141
B. ARTICLE 142
C. ARTICLE 143
D. ARTICLE 144
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 142
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 142 EMPOWERS THE SUPREME COURT TO PASS ORDERS NECESSARY FOR COMPLETE JUSTICE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2027
SSC CPO 2027
Q49. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS HIGH COURTS TO SUPERVISE SUBORDINATE COURTS?
A. ARTICLE 226
B. ARTICLE 227
C. ARTICLE 228
D. ARTICLE 229
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 227
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 227 GRANTS HIGH COURTS SUPERVISORY JURISDICTION OVER SUBORDINATE COURTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2026
SSC GD 2027
Q50. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH APPOINTMENT OF DISTRICT JUDGES?
A. ARTICLE 232
B. ARTICLE 233
C. ARTICLE 234
D. ARTICLE 235
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 233
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 233 DEALS WITH APPOINTMENT OF DISTRICT JUDGES BY THE GOVERNOR.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2026
SSC CGL 2027
Q51. WHICH COURT HEARS DISPUTES BETWEEN STATES AND THE UNION?
A. HIGH COURT
B. DISTRICT COURT
C. SUPREME COURT
D. SESSIONS COURT
ANSWER: C. SUPREME COURT
EXPLANATION:
THE SUPREME COURT EXERCISES ORIGINAL JURISDICTION IN DISPUTES INVOLVING UNION AND STATES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2027
SSC CPO 2027
Q52. WHICH JURISDICTION ALLOWS SUPREME COURT TO HEAR APPEALS?
A. ORIGINAL JURISDICTION
B. ADVISORY JURISDICTION
C. APPELLATE JURISDICTION
D. WRIT JURISDICTION
ANSWER: C. APPELLATE JURISDICTION
EXPLANATION:
UNDER APPELLATE JURISDICTION, SUPREME COURT HEARS APPEALS FROM LOWER COURTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2026
SSC MTS 2027
Q53. WHICH AUTHORITY ADMINISTERS OATH TO HIGH COURT JUDGES?
A. PRESIDENT
B. GOVERNOR
C. CHIEF MINISTER
D. CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA
ANSWER: B. GOVERNOR
EXPLANATION:
THE GOVERNOR ADMINISTERS OATH TO HIGH COURT JUDGES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2027
SSC CHSL 2027
Q54. WHICH COURT IS DIRECTLY BELOW THE SUPREME COURT IN INDIA?
A. DISTRICT COURT
B. SESSIONS COURT
C. HIGH COURT
D. CIVIL COURT
ANSWER: C. HIGH COURT
EXPLANATION:
HIGH COURTS FUNCTION DIRECTLY BELOW THE SUPREME COURT IN THE JUDICIAL HIERARCHY.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2026
SSC CPO 2027
Q55. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH ADMINISTRATIVE EXPENSES OF HIGH COURTS?
A. ARTICLE 228
B. ARTICLE 229
C. ARTICLE 230
D. ARTICLE 231
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 229
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 229 DEALS WITH OFFICERS, SERVANTS, AND EXPENSES OF HIGH COURTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2026
SSC MTS 2027
JUDICIARY MCQ QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION (CONTINUED)
Q56. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH CONTROL OF HIGH COURTS OVER SUBORDINATE COURTS?
A. ARTICLE 233
B. ARTICLE 234
C. ARTICLE 235
D. ARTICLE 236
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 235
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 235 VESTS CONTROL OVER SUBORDINATE COURTS IN THE HIGH COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2027
SSC CHSL 2028
Q57. WHICH ARTICLE DEFINES DISTRICT JUDGE?
A. ARTICLE 235
B. ARTICLE 236
C. ARTICLE 237
D. ARTICLE 238
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 236
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 236 DEFINES THE TERM DISTRICT JUDGE IN THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2027
SSC MTS 2028
Q58. WHICH ARTICLE ALLOWS APPLICATION OF JUDICIAL PROVISIONS TO CERTAIN MAGISTRATES?
A. ARTICLE 236
B. ARTICLE 237
C. ARTICLE 238
D. ARTICLE 239
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 237
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 237 ENABLES APPLICATION OF PROVISIONS RELATING TO SUBORDINATE COURTS TO MAGISTRATES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2028
SSC CPO 2028
Q59. WHICH JURISDICTION ALLOWS CITIZENS TO DIRECTLY APPROACH SUPREME COURT FOR FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. ADVISORY JURISDICTION
B. ORIGINAL JURISDICTION
C. WRIT JURISDICTION
D. APPELLATE JURISDICTION
ANSWER: C. WRIT JURISDICTION
EXPLANATION:
CITIZENS CAN DIRECTLY APPROACH SUPREME COURT UNDER ARTICLE 32 FOR ENFORCEMENT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2027
SSC GD 2028
Q60. WHICH ARTICLE MAKES SUPREME COURT JUDGMENTS BINDING ACROSS INDIA?
A. ARTICLE 140
B. ARTICLE 141
C. ARTICLE 142
D. ARTICLE 143
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 141
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 141 STATES THAT SUPREME COURT JUDGMENTS ARE BINDING ON ALL COURTS IN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2027
SSC CGL 2028
Q61. WHICH JURISDICTION ENABLES SUPREME COURT TO HEAR FEDERAL DISPUTES?
A. APPELLATE JURISDICTION
B. ADVISORY JURISDICTION
C. ORIGINAL JURISDICTION
D. REVIEW JURISDICTION
ANSWER: C. ORIGINAL JURISDICTION
EXPLANATION:
ORIGINAL JURISDICTION APPLIES TO DISPUTES BETWEEN UNION AND STATES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2028
SSC CPO 2028
Q62. WHICH ARTICLE ALLOWS PARLIAMENT TO ESTABLISH ADDITIONAL COURTS?
A. ARTICLE 247
B. ARTICLE 248
C. ARTICLE 249
D. ARTICLE 250
ANSWER: A. ARTICLE 247
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 247 EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO ESTABLISH ADDITIONAL COURTS FOR BETTER ADMINISTRATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2027
SSC MTS 2028
Q63. WHICH BODY CONDUCTS IMPEACHMENT PROCEEDINGS AGAINST JUDGES?
A. SUPREME COURT
B. PARLIAMENT
C. PRESIDENT
D. ELECTION COMMISSION
ANSWER: B. PARLIAMENT
EXPLANATION:
JUDGES OF SUPREME COURT AND HIGH COURTS ARE REMOVED THROUGH IMPEACHMENT BY PARLIAMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2028
SSC CHSL 2028
Q64. WHICH COURT HAS THE FINAL AUTHORITY IN CONSTITUTIONAL INTERPRETATION?
A. HIGH COURT
B. PARLIAMENT
C. SUPREME COURT
D. PRESIDENT
ANSWER: C. SUPREME COURT
EXPLANATION:
THE SUPREME COURT IS THE FINAL INTERPRETER OF THE CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2027
SSC CPO 2028
Q65. WHICH JUDICIAL CONCEPT ENSURES INDEPENDENCE OF JUDICIARY?
A. COLLECTIVE RESPONSIBILITY
B. JUDICIAL REVIEW
C. SEPARATION OF POWERS
D. UNIVERSAL ADULT FRANCHISE
ANSWER: C. SEPARATION OF POWERS
EXPLANATION:
SEPARATION OF POWERS PREVENTS INTERFERENCE AMONG ORGANS OF GOVERNMENT AND PROTECTS JUDICIAL INDEPENDENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2027
SSC MTS 2028
Q66. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH ESTABLISHMENT OF ADMINISTRATIVE TRIBUNALS?
A. ARTICLE 323A
B. ARTICLE 323B
C. ARTICLE 324
D. ARTICLE 325
ANSWER: A. ARTICLE 323A
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 323A PROVIDES FOR ESTABLISHMENT OF ADMINISTRATIVE TRIBUNALS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2028
SSC CHSL 2029
Q67. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH TRIBUNALS FOR OTHER MATTERS?
A. ARTICLE 323A
B. ARTICLE 323B
C. ARTICLE 324
D. ARTICLE 325
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 323B
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 323B DEALS WITH TRIBUNALS FOR TAXATION, LABOR DISPUTES, AND OTHER MATTERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2028
SSC MTS 2029
Q68. WHICH COURT HAS THE POWER TO PUNISH FOR CONTEMPT UNDER ARTICLE 129?
A. HIGH COURT
B. DISTRICT COURT
C. SUPREME COURT
D. SESSIONS COURT
ANSWER: C. SUPREME COURT
EXPLANATION:
THE SUPREME COURT, BEING A COURT OF RECORD, CAN PUNISH FOR CONTEMPT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2029
SSC CPO 2029
Q69. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES SUPREME COURT WITH ADVISORY JURISDICTION?
A. ARTICLE 141
B. ARTICLE 142
C. ARTICLE 143
D. ARTICLE 144
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 143
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 143 AUTHORIZES THE PRESIDENT TO SEEK ADVICE FROM THE SUPREME COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2028
SSC GD 2029
Q70. WHICH ARTICLE STATES THAT CIVIL AUTHORITIES MUST AID THE SUPREME COURT?
A. ARTICLE 142
B. ARTICLE 143
C. ARTICLE 144
D. ARTICLE 145
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 144
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 144 DIRECTS ALL AUTHORITIES TO ACT IN AID OF THE SUPREME COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2028
SSC CGL 2029
Q71. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS SUPREME COURT TO FRAME ITS OWN RULES?
A. ARTICLE 144
B. ARTICLE 145
C. ARTICLE 146
D. ARTICLE 147
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 145
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 145 EMPOWERS THE SUPREME COURT TO MAKE RULES REGARDING ITS PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2029
SSC CPO 2029
Q72. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH OFFICERS AND SERVANTS OF SUPREME COURT?
A. ARTICLE 145
B. ARTICLE 146
C. ARTICLE 147
D. ARTICLE 148
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 146
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 146 DEALS WITH APPOINTMENT OF OFFICERS AND SERVANTS OF THE SUPREME COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2028
SSC MTS 2029
Q73. WHICH ARTICLE DEFINES INTERPRETATION PROVISIONS RELATED TO SUPREME COURT?
A. ARTICLE 146
B. ARTICLE 147
C. ARTICLE 148
D. ARTICLE 149
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 147
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 147 CONTAINS INTERPRETATION CLAUSES RELATED TO SUPREME COURT PROVISIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2029
SSC CHSL 2029
Q74. WHICH JURISDICTION ENABLES SUPREME COURT TO HEAR APPEALS IN CONSTITUTIONAL CASES?
A. ADVISORY JURISDICTION
B. ORIGINAL JURISDICTION
C. CONSTITUTIONAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION
D. WRIT JURISDICTION
ANSWER: C. CONSTITUTIONAL APPELLATE JURISDICTION
EXPLANATION:
THE SUPREME COURT HEARS APPEALS IN CONSTITUTIONAL MATTERS UNDER APPELLATE JURISDICTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2028
SSC CPO 2029
Q75. WHICH FEATURE PROTECTS JUDGES FROM POLITICAL PRESSURE?
A. JUDICIAL REVIEW
B. FIXED TENURE AND SALARY SECURITY
C. PARLIAMENTARY PRIVILEGES
D. FEDERALISM
ANSWER: B. FIXED TENURE AND SALARY SECURITY
EXPLANATION:
SECURITY OF TENURE AND SALARIES ENSURES INDEPENDENCE OF JUDICIARY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2028
SSC MTS 2029
Q76. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH COMPTROLLER AND AUDITOR GENERAL OF INDIA?
A. ARTICLE 146
B. ARTICLE 147
C. ARTICLE 148
D. ARTICLE 149
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 148
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 148 PROVIDES FOR THE OFFICE OF COMPTROLLER AND AUDITOR GENERAL OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2029
SSC CHSL 2030
Q77. WHICH AUTHORITY AUDITS THE ACCOUNTS OF SUPREME COURT AND HIGH COURTS?
A. FINANCE COMMISSION
B. ATTORNEY GENERAL
C. COMPTROLLER AND AUDITOR GENERAL
D. PARLIAMENT
ANSWER: C. COMPTROLLER AND AUDITOR GENERAL
EXPLANATION:
CAG AUDITS ACCOUNTS OF VARIOUS CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2029
SSC MTS 2030
Q78. WHICH ARTICLE DEFINES DUTIES AND POWERS OF THE CAG?
A. ARTICLE 148
B. ARTICLE 149
C. ARTICLE 150
D. ARTICLE 151
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 149
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 149 SPECIFIES DUTIES AND POWERS OF COMPTROLLER AND AUDITOR GENERAL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2030
SSC CPO 2030
Q79. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH ACCOUNTS OF UNION AND STATES?
A. ARTICLE 149
B. ARTICLE 150
C. ARTICLE 151
D. ARTICLE 152
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 150
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 150 DEALS WITH FORM OF ACCOUNTS OF UNION AND STATES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2029
SSC GD 2030
Q80. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH AUDIT REPORTS OF CAG?
A. ARTICLE 150
B. ARTICLE 151
C. ARTICLE 152
D. ARTICLE 153
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 151
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 151 DEALS WITH SUBMISSION OF AUDIT REPORTS BY THE CAG.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2029
SSC CGL 2030
Q81. WHICH WRIT COMMANDS A PUBLIC AUTHORITY TO PERFORM DUTY?
A. CERTIORARI
B. HABEAS CORPUS
C. MANDAMUS
D. QUO WARRANTO
ANSWER: C. MANDAMUS
EXPLANATION:
MANDAMUS IS ISSUED TO COMPEL PUBLIC AUTHORITIES TO PERFORM LEGAL DUTIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2030
SSC CPO 2030
Q82. WHICH WRIT PROHIBITS LOWER COURTS FROM EXCEEDING JURISDICTION?
A. PROHIBITION
B. CERTIORARI
C. HABEAS CORPUS
D. MANDAMUS
ANSWER: A. PROHIBITION
EXPLANATION:
PROHIBITION PREVENTS LOWER COURTS FROM ACTING BEYOND JURISDICTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2029
SSC MTS 2030
Q83. WHICH WRIT LITERALLY MEANS “TO BE CERTIFIED”?
A. MANDAMUS
B. CERTIORARI
C. QUO WARRANTO
D. HABEAS CORPUS
ANSWER: B. CERTIORARI
EXPLANATION:
CERTIORARI IS ISSUED TO QUASH ORDERS OF SUBORDINATE COURTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2030
SSC CHSL 2030
Q84. WHICH WRIT PROTECTS INDIVIDUAL FREEDOM AGAINST UNLAWFUL DETENTION?
A. MANDAMUS
B. PROHIBITION
C. HABEAS CORPUS
D. CERTIORARI
ANSWER: C. HABEAS CORPUS
EXPLANATION:
HABEAS CORPUS SAFEGUARDS PERSONAL LIBERTY.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2029
SSC CPO 2030
Q85. WHICH WRIT QUESTIONS LEGALITY OF HOLDING PUBLIC OFFICE?
A. QUO WARRANTO
B. HABEAS CORPUS
C. MANDAMUS
D. PROHIBITION
ANSWER: A. QUO WARRANTO
EXPLANATION:
QUO WARRANTO CHALLENGES UNLAWFUL OCCUPATION OF PUBLIC OFFICE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2029
SSC MTS 2030
JUDICIARY MCQ QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION (CONTINUED)
Q86. WHICH BODY APPOINTS DISTRICT JUDGES IN CONSULTATION WITH HIGH COURT?
A. PRESIDENT
B. GOVERNOR
C. PARLIAMENT
D. SUPREME COURT
ANSWER: B. GOVERNOR
EXPLANATION:
DISTRICT JUDGES ARE APPOINTED BY THE GOVERNOR IN CONSULTATION WITH HIGH COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2030
SSC CHSL 2031
Q87. WHICH JURISDICTION OF SUPREME COURT DEALS WITH DISPUTES BETWEEN CENTRE AND STATES?
A. ADVISORY JURISDICTION
B. APPELLATE JURISDICTION
C. ORIGINAL JURISDICTION
D. REVIEW JURISDICTION
ANSWER: C. ORIGINAL JURISDICTION
EXPLANATION:
ORIGINAL JURISDICTION APPLIES TO FEDERAL DISPUTES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2030
SSC MTS 2031
Q88. WHICH AUTHORITY CAN REMOVE HIGH COURT JUDGES?
A. GOVERNOR
B. PRESIDENT AFTER PARLIAMENT IMPEACHMENT
C. CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA
D. PRIME MINISTER
ANSWER: B. PRESIDENT AFTER PARLIAMENT IMPEACHMENT
EXPLANATION:
HIGH COURT JUDGES ARE REMOVED BY THE PRESIDENT AFTER IMPEACHMENT BY PARLIAMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2031
SSC CPO 2031
Q89. WHICH COURT SUPERVISES SUBORDINATE COURTS IN A STATE?
A. SUPREME COURT
B. HIGH COURT
C. DISTRICT COURT
D. SESSIONS COURT
ANSWER: B. HIGH COURT
EXPLANATION:
HIGH COURTS SUPERVISE SUBORDINATE COURTS UNDER ARTICLE 227.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2030
SSC GD 2031
Q90. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO ESTABLISH ADDITIONAL COURTS?
A. ARTICLE 246
B. ARTICLE 247
C. ARTICLE 248
D. ARTICLE 249
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 247
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 247 EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO ESTABLISH ADDITIONAL COURTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2030
SSC CGL 2031
Q91. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH RESIDUARY POWERS OF LEGISLATION?
A. ARTICLE 247
B. ARTICLE 248
C. ARTICLE 249
D. ARTICLE 250
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 248
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 248 GRANTS RESIDUARY LEGISLATIVE POWERS TO PARLIAMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2031
SSC CPO 2031
Q92. WHICH JURISDICTION ALLOWS SUPREME COURT TO HEAR APPEALS FROM HIGH COURTS?
A. ADVISORY JURISDICTION
B. ORIGINAL JURISDICTION
C. APPELLATE JURISDICTION
D. WRIT JURISDICTION
ANSWER: C. APPELLATE JURISDICTION
EXPLANATION:
UNDER APPELLATE JURISDICTION, SUPREME COURT HEARS APPEALS FROM HIGH COURTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2030
SSC MTS 2031
Q93. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL BODY PROTECTS FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. PARLIAMENT
B. ELECTION COMMISSION
C. JUDICIARY
D. FINANCE COMMISSION
ANSWER: C. JUDICIARY
EXPLANATION:
THE JUDICIARY SAFEGUARDS FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS THROUGH JUDICIAL REVIEW AND WRITS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2031
SSC CHSL 2031
Q94. WHICH CONCEPT MEANS COURTS CAN DECLARE LAWS UNCONSTITUTIONAL?
A. FEDERALISM
B. JUDICIAL REVIEW
C. SEPARATION OF POWERS
D. RULE OF LAW
ANSWER: B. JUDICIAL REVIEW
EXPLANATION:
JUDICIAL REVIEW EMPOWERS COURTS TO INVALIDATE UNCONSTITUTIONAL LAWS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2030
SSC CPO 2031
Q95. WHICH ORGAN OF GOVERNMENT INTERPRETS LAWS?
A. LEGISLATURE
B. EXECUTIVE
C. JUDICIARY
D. ELECTION COMMISSION
ANSWER: C. JUDICIARY
EXPLANATION:
THE JUDICIARY INTERPRETS LAWS AND RESOLVES LEGAL DISPUTES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2030
SSC MTS 2031
JUDICIARY MCQ QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION (CONTINUED)
Q96. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH TRANSFER OF CERTAIN CASES TO HIGH COURT?
A. ARTICLE 227
B. ARTICLE 228
C. ARTICLE 229
D. ARTICLE 230
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 228
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 228 EMPOWERS HIGH COURTS TO WITHDRAW CASES INVOLVING CONSTITUTIONAL INTERPRETATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2031
SSC CHSL 2032
Q97. WHICH ARTICLE EXTENDS JURISDICTION OF HIGH COURTS TO UNION TERRITORIES?
A. ARTICLE 229
B. ARTICLE 230
C. ARTICLE 231
D. ARTICLE 232
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 230
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 230 ALLOWS EXTENSION OF HIGH COURT JURISDICTION TO UNION TERRITORIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2031
SSC MTS 2032
Q98. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES FOR COMMON HIGH COURT FOR TWO OR MORE STATES?
A. ARTICLE 230
B. ARTICLE 231
C. ARTICLE 232
D. ARTICLE 233
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 231
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 231 PROVIDES FOR ESTABLISHMENT OF COMMON HIGH COURTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2032
SSC CPO 2032
Q99. WHICH JURISDICTION ALLOWS SUPREME COURT TO ADVISE THE PRESIDENT?
A. ORIGINAL JURISDICTION
B. ADVISORY JURISDICTION
C. APPELLATE JURISDICTION
D. WRIT JURISDICTION
ANSWER: B. ADVISORY JURISDICTION
EXPLANATION:
UNDER ARTICLE 143, SUPREME COURT ADVISES THE PRESIDENT ON LEGAL MATTERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2031
SSC GD 2032
Q100. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS HIGH COURTS TO ISSUE WRITS?
A. ARTICLE 224
B. ARTICLE 225
C. ARTICLE 226
D. ARTICLE 227
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 226
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 226 EMPOWERS HIGH COURTS TO ISSUE WRITS FOR LEGAL AND FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2031
SSC CGL 2032
Q101. WHICH JUDICIAL BODY IS KNOWN AS THE GUARDIAN OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. PARLIAMENT
B. SUPREME COURT
C. ELECTION COMMISSION
D. FINANCE COMMISSION
ANSWER: B. SUPREME COURT
EXPLANATION:
THE SUPREME COURT PROTECTS FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS THROUGH CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2032
SSC CPO 2032
Q102. WHICH DOCTRINE MEANS SIMILAR CASES SHOULD BE DECIDED SIMILARLY?
A. RULE OF LAW
B. JUDICIAL ACTIVISM
C. DOCTRINE OF PRECEDENT
D. BASIC STRUCTURE DOCTRINE
ANSWER: C. DOCTRINE OF PRECEDENT
EXPLANATION:
UNDER PRECEDENT, LOWER COURTS FOLLOW JUDGMENTS OF HIGHER COURTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2031
SSC MTS 2032
Q103. WHICH CASE ESTABLISHED THE BASIC STRUCTURE DOCTRINE?
A. GOLAKNATH CASE
B. KESAVANANDA BHARATI CASE
C. MINERVA MILLS CASE
D. BERUBARI CASE
ANSWER: B. KESAVANANDA BHARATI CASE
EXPLANATION:
THE SUPREME COURT ESTABLISHED THE BASIC STRUCTURE DOCTRINE IN 1973.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2032
SSC CHSL 2032
Q104. WHICH CASE IS ASSOCIATED WITH JUDICIAL REVIEW AND AMENDMENT POWERS?
A. SHANKARI PRASAD CASE
B. KESAVANANDA BHARATI CASE
C. INDRA SAWHNEY CASE
D. SR BOMMAI CASE
ANSWER: B. KESAVANANDA BHARATI CASE
EXPLANATION:
THE CASE LIMITED PARLIAMENT’S AMENDING POWER UNDER THE BASIC STRUCTURE DOCTRINE.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2031
SSC CPO 2032
Q105. WHICH PRINCIPLE ENSURES NO PERSON IS ABOVE LAW?
A. FEDERALISM
B. JUDICIAL ACTIVISM
C. RULE OF LAW
D. SEPARATION OF POWERS
ANSWER: C. RULE OF LAW
EXPLANATION:
RULE OF LAW ENSURES EQUALITY BEFORE LAW AND SUPREMACY OF LEGAL PRINCIPLES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2031
SSC MTS 2032
JUDICIARY MCQ QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION (CONTINUED)
Q106. WHICH CASE DECLARED RIGHT TO PRIVACY A FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT?
A. GOLAKNATH CASE
B. KESAVANANDA BHARATI CASE
C. PUTTASWAMY CASE
D. MINERVA MILLS CASE
ANSWER: C. PUTTASWAMY CASE
EXPLANATION:
THE SUPREME COURT DECLARED RIGHT TO PRIVACY A FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT IN THE JUSTICE K.S. PUTTASWAMY CASE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2032
SSC CHSL 2033
Q107. WHICH CASE IS RELATED TO RESERVATION AND CREAMY LAYER CONCEPT?
A. INDRA SAWHNEY CASE
B. SR BOMMAI CASE
C. BERUBARI CASE
D. GOLAKNATH CASE
ANSWER: A. INDRA SAWHNEY CASE
EXPLANATION:
THE INDRA SAWHNEY JUDGMENT INTRODUCED THE CREAMY LAYER PRINCIPLE IN OBC RESERVATIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2032
SSC MTS 2033
Q108. WHICH CASE IS RELATED TO SECULARISM AND ARTICLE 356 MISUSE?
A. KESAVANANDA BHARATI CASE
B. SR BOMMAI CASE
C. MINERVA MILLS CASE
D. SHANKARI PRASAD CASE
ANSWER: B. SR BOMMAI CASE
EXPLANATION:
THE SR BOMMAI CASE RESTRICTED ARBITRARY USE OF PRESIDENT’S RULE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2033
SSC CPO 2033
Q109. WHICH COURT IS THE HIGHEST APPELLATE COURT IN INDIA?
A. HIGH COURT
B. DISTRICT COURT
C. SUPREME COURT
D. SESSIONS COURT
ANSWER: C. SUPREME COURT
EXPLANATION:
THE SUPREME COURT IS THE APEX APPELLATE AUTHORITY IN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2032
SSC GD 2033
Q110. WHICH DOCTRINE LIMITS PARLIAMENT’S POWER TO AMEND CONSTITUTION?
A. DOCTRINE OF ECLIPSE
B. DOCTRINE OF LAPSE
C. BASIC STRUCTURE DOCTRINE
D. DOCTRINE OF SEVERABILITY
ANSWER: C. BASIC STRUCTURE DOCTRINE
EXPLANATION:
THE BASIC STRUCTURE DOCTRINE PREVENTS PARLIAMENT FROM DESTROYING CORE CONSTITUTIONAL FEATURES.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2032
SSC CGL 2033
Q111. WHICH ARTICLE IS KNOWN AS THE HEART AND SOUL OF THE CONSTITUTION ACCORDING TO DR. B.R. AMBEDKAR?
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 32
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 32
EXPLANATION:
DR. AMBEDKAR CALLED ARTICLE 32 THE HEART AND SOUL OF THE CONSTITUTION BECAUSE IT GUARANTEES CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2033
SSC CPO 2033
Q112. WHICH JUDICIAL CONCEPT ALLOWS COURTS TO EXAMINE CONSTITUTIONAL VALIDITY OF LAWS?
A. JUDICIAL ACTIVISM
B. JUDICIAL REVIEW
C. PUBLIC INTEREST LITIGATION
D. RULE OF LAW
ANSWER: B. JUDICIAL REVIEW
EXPLANATION:
JUDICIAL REVIEW EMPOWERS COURTS TO TEST CONSTITUTIONALITY OF LAWS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2032
SSC MTS 2033
Q113. WHICH CASE ESTABLISHED THAT PARLIAMENT CANNOT AMEND FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS WITHOUT LIMITATION?
A. GOLAKNATH CASE
B. BERUBARI CASE
C. SR BOMMAI CASE
D. INDRA SAWHNEY CASE
ANSWER: A. GOLAKNATH CASE
EXPLANATION:
THE GOLAKNATH JUDGMENT RESTRICTED PARLIAMENT’S POWER TO AMEND FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2033
SSC CHSL 2033
Q114. WHICH DOCTRINE MEANS UNCONSTITUTIONAL PART OF LAW CAN BE SEPARATED?
A. DOCTRINE OF ECLIPSE
B. DOCTRINE OF WAIVER
C. DOCTRINE OF SEVERABILITY
D. DOCTRINE OF COLOURABLE LEGISLATION
ANSWER: C. DOCTRINE OF SEVERABILITY
EXPLANATION:
UNDER SEVERABILITY, ONLY UNCONSTITUTIONAL PORTIONS OF A LAW ARE INVALIDATED.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2032
SSC CPO 2033
Q115. WHICH DOCTRINE STATES LEGISLATURE CANNOT INDIRECTLY DO WHAT IT CANNOT DIRECTLY DO?
A. DOCTRINE OF ECLIPSE
B. DOCTRINE OF COLOURABLE LEGISLATION
C. DOCTRINE OF LAPSE
D. DOCTRINE OF PITH AND SUBSTANCE
ANSWER: B. DOCTRINE OF COLOURABLE LEGISLATION
EXPLANATION:
THE DOCTRINE OF COLOURABLE LEGISLATION PREVENTS MISUSE OF LEGISLATIVE POWERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2032
SSC MTS 2033
Q116. WHICH LAW WAS ADDED TO THE CONSTITUTION THROUGH THE 52ND AMENDMENT ACT?
A. RIGHT TO EDUCATION
B. ANTI-DEFECTION LAW
C. GST LAW
D. RTI ACT
ANSWER: B. ANTI-DEFECTION LAW
EXPLANATION:
THE ANTI-DEFECTION LAW WAS ADDED THROUGH THE 52ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1985.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2033
SSC CHSL 2034
Q117. WHICH SCHEDULE OF THE CONSTITUTION CONTAINS ANTI-DEFECTION PROVISIONS?
A. NINTH SCHEDULE
B. TENTH SCHEDULE
C. ELEVENTH SCHEDULE
D. TWELFTH SCHEDULE
ANSWER: B. TENTH SCHEDULE
EXPLANATION:
THE TENTH SCHEDULE CONTAINS PROVISIONS RELATED TO DISQUALIFICATION ON GROUNDS OF DEFECTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2033
SSC MTS 2034
Q118. WHICH VETO POWER ALLOWS THE PRESIDENT TO KEEP A BILL PENDING INDEFINITELY?
A. ABSOLUTE VETO
B. QUALIFIED VETO
C. POCKET VETO
D. SUSPENSIVE VETO
ANSWER: C. POCKET VETO
EXPLANATION:
UNDER POCKET VETO, THE PRESIDENT NEITHER SIGNS NOR REJECTS THE BILL FOR AN INDEFINITE PERIOD.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2034
SSC CPO 2034
Q119. WHICH VETO POWER ALLOWS THE PRESIDENT TO RETURN A BILL FOR RECONSIDERATION?
A. ABSOLUTE VETO
B. POCKET VETO
C. QUALIFIED VETO
D. SUSPENSIVE VETO
ANSWER: D. SUSPENSIVE VETO
EXPLANATION:
UNDER SUSPENSIVE VETO, THE PRESIDENT RETURNS A BILL TO PARLIAMENT FOR RECONSIDERATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2033
SSC GD 2034
Q120. WHICH TYPE OF BILL CAN BE INTRODUCED BY A MINISTER WHO IS NOT A PRIVATE MEMBER?
A. PRIVATE MEMBER BILL
B. GOVERNMENT BILL
C. MONEY BILL
D. ORDINANCE BILL
ANSWER: B. GOVERNMENT BILL
EXPLANATION:
A GOVERNMENT BILL IS INTRODUCED BY A MINISTER ON BEHALF OF THE GOVERNMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2033
SSC CGL 2034
Q121. WHICH BILL IS INTRODUCED BY A MEMBER WHO IS NOT A MINISTER?
A. GOVERNMENT BILL
B. APPROPRIATION BILL
C. PRIVATE MEMBER BILL
D. FINANCE BILL
ANSWER: C. PRIVATE MEMBER BILL
EXPLANATION:
A PRIVATE MEMBER BILL IS INTRODUCED BY MPS WHO ARE NOT MINISTERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2034
SSC CPO 2034
Q122. WHICH FUND OF INDIA IS USED FOR UNFORESEEN EXPENDITURES?
A. PUBLIC ACCOUNT
B. CONSOLIDATED FUND
C. CONTINGENCY FUND
D. FINANCE FUND
ANSWER: C. CONTINGENCY FUND
EXPLANATION:
THE CONTINGENCY FUND OF INDIA IS USED FOR URGENT AND UNFORESEEN EXPENDITURES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2033
SSC MTS 2034
Q123. WHICH FUND RECEIVES ALL GOVERNMENT REVENUES AND LOANS?
A. CONTINGENCY FUND
B. PUBLIC ACCOUNT
C. CONSOLIDATED FUND OF INDIA
D. EMERGENCY FUND
ANSWER: C. CONSOLIDATED FUND OF INDIA
EXPLANATION:
ALL REVENUES AND LOANS RAISED BY THE GOVERNMENT ARE CREDITED TO THE CONSOLIDATED FUND.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2034
SSC CHSL 2034
Q124. WHICH PARLIAMENTARY TERM REFERS TO THE MINIMUM MEMBERS REQUIRED FOR PROCEEDINGS?
A. WHIP
B. QUORUM
C. GUILLOTINE
D. VETO
ANSWER: B. QUORUM
EXPLANATION:
QUORUM IS THE MINIMUM NUMBER OF MEMBERS REQUIRED TO CONDUCT PROCEEDINGS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2033
SSC CPO 2034
Q125. WHICH PARLIAMENTARY DEVICE CLOSES DISCUSSION ON DEMANDS FOR GRANTS?
A. GUILLOTINE
B. ADJOURNMENT MOTION
C. PRIVILEGE MOTION
D. CENSURE MOTION
ANSWER: A. GUILLOTINE
EXPLANATION:
UNDER GUILLOTINE, UNDISCUSSED DEMANDS FOR GRANTS ARE PUT TO VOTE TOGETHER.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2033
SSC MTS 2034
JUDICIARY MCQ QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION (CONTINUED)
Q116. WHICH CASE EXPANDED THE SCOPE OF ARTICLE 21?
A. BERUBARI CASE
B. MANEKA GANDHI CASE
C. GOLAKNATH CASE
D. SR BOMMAI CASE
ANSWER: B. MANEKA GANDHI CASE
EXPLANATION:
THE MANEKA GANDHI CASE EXPANDED INTERPRETATION OF RIGHT TO LIFE AND PERSONAL LIBERTY UNDER ARTICLE 21.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2033
SSC CHSL 2034
Q117. WHICH CASE LED TO GUIDELINES AGAINST WORKPLACE HARASSMENT OF WOMEN?
A. VISHAKA CASE
B. KESAVANANDA BHARATI CASE
C. MINERVA MILLS CASE
D. INDRA SAWHNEY CASE
ANSWER: A. VISHAKA CASE
EXPLANATION:
THE VISHAKA JUDGMENT LAID DOWN GUIDELINES AGAINST SEXUAL HARASSMENT AT WORKPLACE.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2033
SSC MTS 2034
Q118. WHICH CASE IS RELATED TO THE HABEAS CORPUS ISSUE DURING EMERGENCY?
A. ADM JABALPUR CASE
B. GOLAKNATH CASE
C. BERUBARI CASE
D. PUTTASWAMY CASE
ANSWER: A. ADM JABALPUR CASE
EXPLANATION:
THE ADM JABALPUR CASE DEALT WITH SUSPENSION OF HABEAS CORPUS DURING EMERGENCY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2034
SSC CPO 2034
Q119. WHICH CASE STRUCK DOWN THE NATIONAL JUDICIAL APPOINTMENTS COMMISSION?
A. VISHAKA CASE
B. NJAC CASE
C. MINERVA MILLS CASE
D. SHANKARI PRASAD CASE
ANSWER: B. NJAC CASE
EXPLANATION:
THE SUPREME COURT INVALIDATED NJAC TO PRESERVE JUDICIAL INDEPENDENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2033
SSC GD 2034
Q120. WHICH DOCTRINE STATES THAT A LAW VIOLATING FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS BECOMES INACTIVE?
A. DOCTRINE OF ECLIPSE
B. DOCTRINE OF WAIVER
C. DOCTRINE OF LAPSE
D. DOCTRINE OF COLOURABLE LEGISLATION
ANSWER: A. DOCTRINE OF ECLIPSE
EXPLANATION:
UNDER THE DOCTRINE OF ECLIPSE, UNCONSTITUTIONAL LAWS REMAIN DORMANT UNTIL INCONSISTENCY IS REMOVED.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2033
SSC CGL 2034
Q121. WHICH DOCTRINE MEANS CONSTITUTIONAL PROVISIONS SHOULD BE INTERPRETED HARMONIOUSLY?
A. DOCTRINE OF WAIVER
B. DOCTRINE OF HARMONIOUS CONSTRUCTION
C. DOCTRINE OF ECLIPSE
D. DOCTRINE OF LAPSE
ANSWER: B. DOCTRINE OF HARMONIOUS CONSTRUCTION
EXPLANATION:
THIS DOCTRINE SEEKS HARMONIOUS INTERPRETATION OF CONFLICTING CONSTITUTIONAL PROVISIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2034
SSC CPO 2034
Q122. WHICH DOCTRINE DETERMINES TRUE NATURE OF LEGISLATION IN FEDERAL DISPUTES?
A. DOCTRINE OF WAIVER
B. DOCTRINE OF PITH AND SUBSTANCE
C. DOCTRINE OF ECLIPSE
D. DOCTRINE OF LAPSE
ANSWER: B. DOCTRINE OF PITH AND SUBSTANCE
EXPLANATION:
THE DOCTRINE OF PITH AND SUBSTANCE DETERMINES THE REAL SUBJECT MATTER OF LEGISLATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2033
SSC MTS 2034
Q123. WHICH JUDICIAL BODY PROVIDES FREE AND SPEEDY JUSTICE THROUGH COMPROMISE?
A. SESSIONS COURT
B. LOK ADALAT
C. FAMILY COURT
D. TRIBUNAL
ANSWER: B. LOK ADALAT
EXPLANATION:
LOK ADALATS SETTLE DISPUTES THROUGH CONCILIATION AND COMPROMISE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2034
SSC CHSL 2034
Q124. WHICH COURT DEALS SPECIFICALLY WITH FAMILY DISPUTES?
A. CONSUMER COURT
B. FAST TRACK COURT
C. FAMILY COURT
D. GRAM NYAYALAYA
ANSWER: C. FAMILY COURT
EXPLANATION:
FAMILY COURTS HANDLE MATRIMONIAL AND FAMILY-RELATED DISPUTES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2033
SSC CPO 2034
Q125. WHICH JUDICIAL CONCEPT REFERS TO ACTIVE ROLE PLAYED BY JUDICIARY IN PUBLIC MATTERS?
A. JUDICIAL REVIEW
B. JUDICIAL ACTIVISM
C. JUDICIAL RESTRAINT
D. RULE OF LAW
ANSWER: B. JUDICIAL ACTIVISM
EXPLANATION:
JUDICIAL ACTIVISM REFERS TO PROACTIVE INTERPRETATION OF LAWS BY COURTS FOR PUBLIC WELFARE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2033
SSC MTS 2034
Q126. WHICH JUDICIAL PRINCIPLE MEANS NOBODY CAN BE PUNISHED WITHOUT LEGAL AUTHORITY?
A. RULE OF LAW
B. JUDICIAL REVIEW
C. PIL
D. FEDERALISM
ANSWER: A. RULE OF LAW
EXPLANATION:
RULE OF LAW ENSURES THAT PUNISHMENT CAN OCCUR ONLY ACCORDING TO LAW.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2034
SSC CHSL 2035
Q127. WHICH DOCTRINE MEANS FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS CANNOT GENERALLY BE WAIVED?
A. DOCTRINE OF WAIVER
B. DOCTRINE OF ECLIPSE
C. DOCTRINE OF SEVERABILITY
D. DOCTRINE OF PITH AND SUBSTANCE
ANSWER: A. DOCTRINE OF WAIVER
EXPLANATION:
THE DOCTRINE OF WAIVER STATES THAT FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS CANNOT ORDINARILY BE WAIVED BY INDIVIDUALS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2034
SSC MTS 2035
Q128. WHICH COURT DEALS WITH CONSUMER DISPUTES?
A. FAMILY COURT
B. CONSUMER COURT
C. GRAM NYAYALAYA
D. SESSIONS COURT
ANSWER: B. CONSUMER COURT
EXPLANATION:
CONSUMER COURTS PROVIDE REDRESSAL FOR CONSUMER GRIEVANCES AND UNFAIR TRADE PRACTICES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2035
SSC CPO 2035
Q129. WHICH JUDICIAL BODY WAS ESTABLISHED FOR SPEEDY TRIAL OF SPECIFIC CASES?
A. LOK ADALAT
B. FAMILY COURT
C. FAST TRACK COURT
D. TRIBUNAL
ANSWER: C. FAST TRACK COURT
EXPLANATION:
FAST TRACK COURTS ARE ESTABLISHED TO DISPOSE PENDING CASES QUICKLY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2034
SSC GD 2035
Q130. WHICH VILLAGE-LEVEL COURT SYSTEM WAS ESTABLISHED UNDER GRAM NYAYALAYAS ACT?
A. SESSIONS COURT
B. CONSUMER COURT
C. GRAM NYAYALAYA
D. FAMILY COURT
ANSWER: C. GRAM NYAYALAYA
EXPLANATION:
GRAM NYAYALAYAS PROVIDE INEXPENSIVE AND SPEEDY JUSTICE AT GRASSROOTS LEVEL.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2034
SSC CGL 2035
Q131. WHICH CASE IS RELATED TO AMENDMENT POWER OF PARLIAMENT BEFORE BASIC STRUCTURE DOCTRINE?
A. GOLAKNATH CASE
B. SHANKARI PRASAD CASE
C. VISHAKA CASE
D. SR BOMMAI CASE
ANSWER: B. SHANKARI PRASAD CASE
EXPLANATION:
THE SHANKARI PRASAD JUDGMENT UPHELD PARLIAMENT’S POWER TO AMEND FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2035
SSC CPO 2035
Q132. WHICH CASE DEALT WITH CESSION OF INDIAN TERRITORY TO ANOTHER COUNTRY?
A. BERUBARI CASE
B. MINERVA MILLS CASE
C. GOLAKNATH CASE
D. ADM JABALPUR CASE
ANSWER: A. BERUBARI CASE
EXPLANATION:
THE BERUBARI UNION CASE DEALT WITH TRANSFER OF INDIAN TERRITORY TO PAKISTAN.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2034
SSC MTS 2035
Q133. WHICH CASE REINFORCED BALANCE BETWEEN FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS AND DPSPS?
A. VISHAKA CASE
B. MINERVA MILLS CASE
C. SR BOMMAI CASE
D. PUTTASWAMY CASE
ANSWER: B. MINERVA MILLS CASE
EXPLANATION:
THE MINERVA MILLS CASE EMPHASIZED HARMONY BETWEEN FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS AND DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2035
SSC CHSL 2035
Q134. WHICH PETITION IS FILED AFTER DISMISSAL OF REVIEW PETITION IN SUPREME COURT?
A. CURATIVE PETITION
B. WRIT PETITION
C. PIL
D. APPEAL PETITION
ANSWER: A. CURATIVE PETITION
EXPLANATION:
CURATIVE PETITION IS THE FINAL REMEDY AVAILABLE AFTER DISMISSAL OF REVIEW PETITION.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2034
SSC CPO 2035
Q135. WHICH JUDICIAL PHILOSOPHY FAVORS LIMITED INTERFERENCE BY COURTS?
A. JUDICIAL ACTIVISM
B. JUDICIAL REVIEW
C. JUDICIAL RESTRAINT
D. RULE OF LAW
ANSWER: C. JUDICIAL RESTRAINT
EXPLANATION:
JUDICIAL RESTRAINT EMPHASIZES LIMITED JUDICIAL INTERFERENCE IN POLICY MATTERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2034
SSC MTS 2035
Q136. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS SUPREME COURT TO ISSUE WRITS FOR FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. ARTICLE 21
B. ARTICLE 32
C. ARTICLE 50
D. ARTICLE 226
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 32
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 32 EMPOWERS CITIZENS TO DIRECTLY APPROACH THE SUPREME COURT FOR ENFORCEMENT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2035
SSC CHSL 2036
Q137. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS HIGH COURTS TO ISSUE WRITS BEYOND FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS?
A. ARTICLE 32
B. ARTICLE 50
C. ARTICLE 136
D. ARTICLE 226
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 226
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 226 EMPOWERS HIGH COURTS TO ISSUE WRITS FOR FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS AND OTHER LEGAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2035
SSC MTS 2036
Q138. WHICH ARTICLE DIRECTS SEPARATION OF JUDICIARY FROM EXECUTIVE?
A. ARTICLE 32
B. ARTICLE 44
C. ARTICLE 50
D. ARTICLE 51
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 50
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 50 DIRECTS THE STATE TO SEPARATE JUDICIARY FROM EXECUTIVE IN PUBLIC SERVICES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2036
SSC CPO 2036
Q139. WHICH WRIT IS ISSUED TO PRODUCE A DETAINED PERSON BEFORE THE COURT?
A. MANDAMUS
B. CERTIORARI
C. HABEAS CORPUS
D. QUO WARRANTO
ANSWER: C. HABEAS CORPUS
EXPLANATION:
HABEAS CORPUS PROTECTS PERSONAL LIBERTY AGAINST UNLAWFUL DETENTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2035
SSC GD 2036
Q140. WHICH DOCTRINE STATES PARLIAMENT CANNOT DESTROY THE CONSTITUTION’S CORE FEATURES?
A. DOCTRINE OF ECLIPSE
B. BASIC STRUCTURE DOCTRINE
C. DOCTRINE OF WAIVER
D. DOCTRINE OF LAPSE
ANSWER: B. BASIC STRUCTURE DOCTRINE
EXPLANATION:
THE BASIC STRUCTURE DOCTRINE LIMITS PARLIAMENT’S AMENDING POWERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2035
SSC CGL 2036
Q141. WHICH JUDICIAL BODY SETTLES DISPUTES THROUGH COMPROMISE OUTSIDE REGULAR COURTS?
A. GRAM NYAYALAYA
B. LOK ADALAT
C. SESSIONS COURT
D. FAMILY COURT
ANSWER: B. LOK ADALAT
EXPLANATION:
LOK ADALAT PROMOTES SPEEDY AND INEXPENSIVE SETTLEMENT OF DISPUTES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2036
SSC CPO 2036
Q142. WHICH COURT PRIMARILY HANDLES CRIMINAL APPEALS IN DISTRICTS?
A. FAMILY COURT
B. CONSUMER COURT
C. SESSIONS COURT
D. GRAM NYAYALAYA
ANSWER: C. SESSIONS COURT
EXPLANATION:
SESSIONS COURTS DEAL WITH SERIOUS CRIMINAL CASES AND APPEALS AT DISTRICT LEVEL.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2035
SSC MTS 2036
Q143. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDY IS ITSELF A FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 21
C. ARTICLE 32
D. ARTICLE 44
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 32
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 32 GUARANTEES THE RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2036
SSC CHSL 2036
Q144. WHICH COURT ACTS AS A COURT OF RECORD AT THE STATE LEVEL?
A. DISTRICT COURT
B. HIGH COURT
C. FAMILY COURT
D. CONSUMER COURT
ANSWER: B. HIGH COURT
EXPLANATION:
HIGH COURTS ARE COURTS OF RECORD WITH POWER TO PUNISH FOR CONTEMPT.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2035
SSC CPO 2036
Q145. WHICH PRINCIPLE ENSURES EQUALITY BEFORE LAW?
A. JUDICIAL ACTIVISM
B. RULE OF LAW
C. PIL
D. FEDERALISM
ANSWER: B. RULE OF LAW
EXPLANATION:
RULE OF LAW ENSURES THAT ALL PERSONS ARE EQUAL BEFORE THE LAW.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2035
SSC MTS 2036
JUDICIARY MCQ QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION (CONTINUED)
Q146. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH ESTABLISHMENT OF SUPREME COURT?
A. ARTICLE 123
B. ARTICLE 124
C. ARTICLE 125
D. ARTICLE 126
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 124
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 124 PROVIDES FOR THE ESTABLISHMENT AND CONSTITUTION OF THE SUPREME COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2036
SSC CHSL 2037
Q147. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH SALARIES OF SUPREME COURT JUDGES?
A. ARTICLE 124
B. ARTICLE 125
C. ARTICLE 126
D. ARTICLE 127
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 125
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 125 PROVIDES SALARIES AND ALLOWANCES OF SUPREME COURT JUDGES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2036
SSC MTS 2037
Q148. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES APPOINTMENT OF ACTING CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA?
A. ARTICLE 125
B. ARTICLE 126
C. ARTICLE 127
D. ARTICLE 128
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 126
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 126 PROVIDES FOR APPOINTMENT OF ACTING CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2037
SSC CPO 2037
Q149. WHICH ARTICLE PERMITS APPOINTMENT OF AD HOC JUDGES IN SUPREME COURT?
A. ARTICLE 126
B. ARTICLE 127
C. ARTICLE 128
D. ARTICLE 129
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 127
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 127 ALLOWS APPOINTMENT OF AD HOC JUDGES IN SUPREME COURT WHEN QUORUM IS LACKING.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2036
SSC GD 2037
Q150. WHICH ARTICLE DECLARES SUPREME COURT A COURT OF RECORD?
A. ARTICLE 128
B. ARTICLE 129
C. ARTICLE 130
D. ARTICLE 131
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 129
EXPLANATION:
UNDER ARTICLE 129, SUPREME COURT IS A COURT OF RECORD WITH CONTEMPT POWERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2036
SSC CGL 2037
Q151. WHICH ARTICLE DETERMINES SEAT OF SUPREME COURT?
A. ARTICLE 129
B. ARTICLE 130
C. ARTICLE 131
D. ARTICLE 132
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 130
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 130 STATES THAT SUPREME COURT SHALL SIT IN DELHI OR OTHER PLACES DECIDED BY CJI WITH PRESIDENTIAL APPROVAL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2037
SSC CPO 2037
Q152. WHICH JURISDICTION OF SUPREME COURT COVERS CENTRE-STATE DISPUTES?
A. APPELLATE JURISDICTION
B. ADVISORY JURISDICTION
C. ORIGINAL JURISDICTION
D. WRIT JURISDICTION
ANSWER: C. ORIGINAL JURISDICTION
EXPLANATION:
ORIGINAL JURISDICTION ALLOWS SUPREME COURT TO DECIDE DISPUTES BETWEEN CENTRE AND STATES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2036
SSC MTS 2037
Q153. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH ORIGINAL JURISDICTION OF SUPREME COURT?
A. ARTICLE 130
B. ARTICLE 131
C. ARTICLE 132
D. ARTICLE 133
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 131
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 131 DEFINES THE ORIGINAL JURISDICTION OF SUPREME COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2037
SSC CHSL 2037
Q154. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH APPELLATE JURISDICTION IN CONSTITUTIONAL MATTERS?
A. ARTICLE 131
B. ARTICLE 132
C. ARTICLE 133
D. ARTICLE 134
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 132
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 132 PROVIDES APPELLATE JURISDICTION IN CONSTITUTIONAL CASES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2036
SSC CPO 2037
Q155. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH APPELLATE JURISDICTION IN CIVIL MATTERS?
A. ARTICLE 132
B. ARTICLE 133
C. ARTICLE 134
D. ARTICLE 135
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 133
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 133 DEALS WITH APPELLATE JURISDICTION OF SUPREME COURT IN CIVIL CASES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2036
SSC MTS 2037
Q156. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH APPELLATE JURISDICTION OF SUPREME COURT IN CRIMINAL MATTERS?
A. ARTICLE 133
B. ARTICLE 134
C. ARTICLE 135
D. ARTICLE 136
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 134
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 134 PROVIDES APPELLATE JURISDICTION OF THE SUPREME COURT IN CRIMINAL CASES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2037
SSC CHSL 2038
Q157. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS THE SUPREME COURT TO GRANT SPECIAL LEAVE TO APPEAL?
A. ARTICLE 134
B. ARTICLE 135
C. ARTICLE 136
D. ARTICLE 137
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 136
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 136 EMPOWERS THE SUPREME COURT TO GRANT SPECIAL LEAVE PETITION (SLP) IN SUITABLE CASES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2037
SSC MTS 2038
Q158. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS SUPREME COURT TO REVIEW ITS OWN JUDGMENTS?
A. ARTICLE 136
B. ARTICLE 137
C. ARTICLE 138
D. ARTICLE 139
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 137
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 137 GIVES THE SUPREME COURT POWER TO REVIEW ITS OWN JUDGMENTS AND ORDERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2038
SSC CPO 2038
Q159. WHICH ARTICLE ALLOWS PARLIAMENT TO ENLARGE THE JURISDICTION OF SUPREME COURT?
A. ARTICLE 137
B. ARTICLE 138
C. ARTICLE 139
D. ARTICLE 140
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 138
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 138 EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO EXTEND THE JURISDICTION OF THE SUPREME COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2037
SSC GD 2038
Q160. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS SUPREME COURT TO ISSUE CERTAIN WRITS?
A. ARTICLE 138
B. ARTICLE 139
C. ARTICLE 140
D. ARTICLE 141
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 139
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 139 EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO CONFER WRIT JURISDICTION ON THE SUPREME COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2037
SSC CGL 2038
Q161. WHICH ARTICLE STATES THAT SUPREME COURT LAW IS BINDING ON ALL COURTS?
A. ARTICLE 140
B. ARTICLE 141
C. ARTICLE 142
D. ARTICLE 143
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 141
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 141 DECLARES THAT THE LAW LAID DOWN BY THE SUPREME COURT IS BINDING ON ALL COURTS IN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2038
SSC CPO 2038
Q162. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS SUPREME COURT TO DO COMPLETE JUSTICE?
A. ARTICLE 141
B. ARTICLE 142
C. ARTICLE 143
D. ARTICLE 144
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 142
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 142 EMPOWERS THE SUPREME COURT TO PASS ORDERS NECESSARY FOR COMPLETE JUSTICE.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2037
SSC MTS 2038
Q163. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH ADVISORY JURISDICTION OF SUPREME COURT?
A. ARTICLE 142
B. ARTICLE 143
C. ARTICLE 144
D. ARTICLE 145
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 143
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 143 EMPOWERS THE PRESIDENT TO SEEK ADVISORY OPINION FROM THE SUPREME COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2038
SSC CHSL 2038
Q164. WHICH ARTICLE STATES ALL AUTHORITIES SHALL ACT IN AID OF SUPREME COURT?
A. ARTICLE 143
B. ARTICLE 144
C. ARTICLE 145
D. ARTICLE 146
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 144
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 144 MANDATES ALL CIVIL AND JUDICIAL AUTHORITIES TO ACT IN AID OF THE SUPREME COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2037
SSC CPO 2038
Q165. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS SUPREME COURT TO FRAME ITS OWN RULES?
A. ARTICLE 144
B. ARTICLE 145
C. ARTICLE 146
D. ARTICLE 147
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 145
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 145 AUTHORIZES THE SUPREME COURT TO MAKE RULES REGARDING ITS PRACTICE AND PROCEDURE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2037
SSC MTS 2038
Q166. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH OFFICERS AND SERVANTS OF SUPREME COURT?
A. ARTICLE 145
B. ARTICLE 146
C. ARTICLE 147
D. ARTICLE 148
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 146
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 146 DEALS WITH APPOINTMENTS AND SERVICE CONDITIONS OF SUPREME COURT STAFF.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2038
SSC CPO 2038
Q167. WHICH ARTICLE INTERPRETS REFERENCES TO SUPREME COURT AND RELATED CONSTITUTIONAL PROVISIONS?
A. ARTICLE 146
B. ARTICLE 147
C. ARTICLE 148
D. ARTICLE 149
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 147
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 147 PROVIDES INTERPRETATION OF CONSTITUTIONAL PROVISIONS RELATED TO THE SUPREME COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2037
SSC MTS 2038
Q168. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AUTHORITY AUDITS ACCOUNTS OF THE UNION AND STATES?
A. ELECTION COMMISSION
B. UPSC
C. CAG
D. FINANCE COMMISSION
ANSWER: C. CAG
EXPLANATION:
THE COMPTROLLER AND AUDITOR GENERAL AUDITS ACCOUNTS OF UNION AND STATE GOVERNMENTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2038
SSC CHSL 2038
Q169. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES FOR THE COMPTROLLER AND AUDITOR GENERAL OF INDIA?
A. ARTICLE 147
B. ARTICLE 148
C. ARTICLE 149
D. ARTICLE 150
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 148
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 148 PROVIDES FOR THE OFFICE OF COMPTROLLER AND AUDITOR GENERAL OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2037
SSC CPO 2038
Q170. WHICH PARLIAMENTARY COMMITTEE EXAMINES CAG REPORTS?
A. ESTIMATES COMMITTEE
B. ETHICS COMMITTEE
C. PUBLIC ACCOUNTS COMMITTEE
D. RULES COMMITTEE
ANSWER: C. PUBLIC ACCOUNTS COMMITTEE
EXPLANATION:
THE PUBLIC ACCOUNTS COMMITTEE EXAMINES REPORTS SUBMITTED BY THE CAG.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2037
SSC MTS 2038
JUDICIARY MCQ QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION (CONTINUED)
Q171. WHICH WRIT COMMANDS A PUBLIC AUTHORITY TO PERFORM ITS DUTY?
A. HABEAS CORPUS
B. MANDAMUS
C. CERTIORARI
D. QUO WARRANTO
ANSWER: B. MANDAMUS
EXPLANATION:
MANDAMUS DIRECTS A PUBLIC AUTHORITY TO PERFORM A LEGAL DUTY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2038
SSC CHSL 2039
Q172. WHICH WRIT TRANSFERS A CASE FROM LOWER COURT TO HIGHER COURT FOR REVIEW?
A. PROHIBITION
B. MANDAMUS
C. CERTIORARI
D. HABEAS CORPUS
ANSWER: C. CERTIORARI
EXPLANATION:
CERTIORARI IS ISSUED TO QUASH ORDERS OF LOWER COURTS OR TRIBUNALS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2038
SSC MTS 2039
Q173. WHICH WRIT PREVENTS A LOWER COURT FROM EXCEEDING JURISDICTION?
A. QUO WARRANTO
B. CERTIORARI
C. PROHIBITION
D. MANDAMUS
ANSWER: C. PROHIBITION
EXPLANATION:
PROHIBITION PREVENTS LOWER COURTS FROM ACTING BEYOND THEIR JURISDICTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2039
SSC CPO 2039
Q174. WHICH WRIT QUESTIONS LEGALITY OF A PERSON HOLDING PUBLIC OFFICE?
A. HABEAS CORPUS
B. MANDAMUS
C. QUO WARRANTO
D. PROHIBITION
ANSWER: C. QUO WARRANTO
EXPLANATION:
QUO WARRANTO CHALLENGES UNLAWFUL OCCUPATION OF PUBLIC OFFICE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2038
SSC GD 2039
Q175. WHICH TRIBUNAL DEALS WITH DISPUTES RELATED TO GOVERNMENT EMPLOYEES?
A. NGT
B. CAT
C. LOK ADALAT
D. FAMILY COURT
ANSWER: B. CAT
EXPLANATION:
CENTRAL ADMINISTRATIVE TRIBUNAL HANDLES SERVICE MATTERS OF PUBLIC SERVANTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2038
SSC CGL 2039
Q176. WHICH TRIBUNAL HANDLES ENVIRONMENTAL DISPUTES?
A. CAT
B. SESSIONS COURT
C. NGT
D. FAMILY COURT
ANSWER: C. NGT
EXPLANATION:
NATIONAL GREEN TRIBUNAL DEALS WITH ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AND CONSERVATION MATTERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2039
SSC CPO 2039
Q177. WHAT DOES PIL STAND FOR IN JUDICIARY?
A. PUBLIC INTEREST LITIGATION
B. PUBLIC INSTITUTIONAL LAW
C. PARLIAMENTARY INTEREST LITIGATION
D. PUBLIC INTERNAL LITIGATION
ANSWER: A. PUBLIC INTEREST LITIGATION
EXPLANATION:
PIL ALLOWS PUBLIC-SPIRITED INDIVIDUALS TO SEEK JUDICIAL REMEDIES IN PUBLIC INTEREST.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2038
SSC MTS 2039
Q178. WHICH CONCEPT ALLOWS JUDGES TO ACCEPT LETTERS AS WRIT PETITIONS?
A. JUDICIAL REVIEW
B. EPISTOLARY JURISDICTION
C. CURATIVE JURISDICTION
D. ADVISORY JURISDICTION
ANSWER: B. EPISTOLARY JURISDICTION
EXPLANATION:
EPISTOLARY JURISDICTION PERMITS COURTS TO TREAT LETTERS AS WRIT PETITIONS IN PUBLIC INTEREST CASES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2039
SSC CHSL 2039
Q179. WHICH TYPE OF CONTEMPT INVOLVES DISOBEDIENCE OF COURT ORDERS?
A. CRIMINAL CONTEMPT
B. CIVIL CONTEMPT
C. JUDICIAL REVIEW
D. COURT OF RECORD
ANSWER: B. CIVIL CONTEMPT
EXPLANATION:
CIVIL CONTEMPT ARISES FROM WILLFUL DISOBEDIENCE OF COURT ORDERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2038
SSC CPO 2039
Q180. WHICH ARTICLE DECLARES HIGH COURTS AS COURTS OF RECORD?
A. ARTICLE 214
B. ARTICLE 215
C. ARTICLE 216
D. ARTICLE 217
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 215
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 215 DECLARES HIGH COURTS AS COURTS OF RECORD WITH CONTEMPT POWERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2038
SSC MTS 2039
PARLIAMENT MCQ QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION (CONTINUED)
Q181. WHICH PARLIAMENTARY PROCEDURE ALLOWS DISCUSSION ON URGENT MATTERS WITHOUT VOTING?
A. NO-CONFIDENCE MOTION
B. SHORT DURATION DISCUSSION
C. GUILLOTINE
D. ADJOURNMENT MOTION
ANSWER: B. SHORT DURATION DISCUSSION
EXPLANATION:
SHORT DURATION DISCUSSION ALLOWS MEMBERS TO DISCUSS URGENT PUBLIC MATTERS WITHOUT ANY FORMAL VOTING.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2039
SSC CHSL 2040
Q182. WHICH DISCUSSION IS HELD TO CLARIFY MATTERS ARISING FROM ANSWERS DURING QUESTION HOUR?
A. ZERO HOUR
B. CALLING ATTENTION MOTION
C. HALF-AN-HOUR DISCUSSION
D. CENSURE MOTION
ANSWER: C. HALF-AN-HOUR DISCUSSION
EXPLANATION:
HALF-AN-HOUR DISCUSSION IS HELD TO SEEK FURTHER CLARIFICATION ON ANSWERS GIVEN DURING QUESTION HOUR.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2039
SSC MTS 2040
Q183. WHICH MOTION AIMS TO REMOVE THE COUNCIL OF MINISTERS FROM OFFICE?
A. CENSURE MOTION
B. CLOSURE MOTION
C. NO-CONFIDENCE MOTION
D. PRIVILEGE MOTION
ANSWER: C. NO-CONFIDENCE MOTION
EXPLANATION:
A NO-CONFIDENCE MOTION TESTS WHETHER THE COUNCIL OF MINISTERS ENJOYS MAJORITY SUPPORT IN LOK SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2040
SSC CPO 2040
Q184. WHICH MOTION SPECIFICALLY CRITICIZES GOVERNMENT POLICIES?
A. ADJOURNMENT MOTION
B. CENSURE MOTION
C. CLOSURE MOTION
D. PRIVILEGE MOTION
ANSWER: B. CENSURE MOTION
EXPLANATION:
A CENSURE MOTION CRITICIZES SPECIFIC POLICIES OR ACTIONS OF THE GOVERNMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2039
SSC GD 2040
Q185. WHICH MOTION IS USED TO END DEBATE AND BRING A MATTER TO VOTE?
A. CLOSURE MOTION
B. PRIVILEGE MOTION
C. CALLING ATTENTION MOTION
D. POINT OF ORDER
ANSWER: A. CLOSURE MOTION
EXPLANATION:
CLOSURE MOTION IS MOVED TO TERMINATE DEBATE AND PROCEED TO VOTING.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2039
SSC CGL 2040
Q186. WHICH COMMITTEE EXAMINES BREACH OF PARLIAMENTARY PRIVILEGES?
A. ETHICS COMMITTEE
B. PAC
C. PRIVILEGES COMMITTEE
D. ESTIMATES COMMITTEE
ANSWER: C. PRIVILEGES COMMITTEE
EXPLANATION:
THE PRIVILEGES COMMITTEE INVESTIGATES CASES OF BREACH OF PARLIAMENTARY PRIVILEGES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2040
SSC CPO 2040
Q187. WHICH COMMITTEE SCRUTINIZES DELEGATED LEGISLATION MADE BY THE EXECUTIVE?
A. RULES COMMITTEE
B. COMMITTEE ON SUBORDINATE LEGISLATION
C. ESTIMATES COMMITTEE
D. ETHICS COMMITTEE
ANSWER: B. COMMITTEE ON SUBORDINATE LEGISLATION
EXPLANATION:
THIS COMMITTEE EXAMINES WHETHER DELEGATED LEGISLATION IS WITHIN CONSTITUTIONAL LIMITS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2039
SSC MTS 2040
Q188. WHICH PARLIAMENTARY SESSION BEGINS IMMEDIATELY AFTER QUESTION HOUR?
A. ADJOURNMENT
B. ZERO HOUR
C. GUILLOTINE
D. DISSOLUTION
ANSWER: B. ZERO HOUR
EXPLANATION:
ZERO HOUR STARTS IMMEDIATELY AFTER QUESTION HOUR AND ALLOWS MEMBERS TO RAISE URGENT MATTERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2040
SSC CHSL 2040
Q189. HOLDING AN OFFICE OF PROFIT CAN LEAD TO:
A. PROMOTION
B. DISQUALIFICATION OF MPS
C. JUDICIAL REVIEW
D. DISSOLUTION OF PARLIAMENT
ANSWER: B. DISQUALIFICATION OF MPS
EXPLANATION:
MPS HOLDING AN OFFICE OF PROFIT UNDER THE GOVERNMENT MAY BE DISQUALIFIED.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2039
SSC CPO 2040
Q190. WHICH POWERS BELONG EXCLUSIVELY TO PARLIAMENT REGARDING UNSPECIFIED SUBJECTS?
A. CONCURRENT POWERS
B. EMERGENCY POWERS
C. RESIDUARY POWERS
D. JUDICIAL POWERS
ANSWER: C. RESIDUARY POWERS
EXPLANATION:
PARLIAMENT HAS RESIDUARY POWERS OVER SUBJECTS NOT LISTED IN STATE OR CONCURRENT LISTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2039
SSC MTS 2040
JUDICIARY MCQ QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION (CONTINUED)
Q191. WHICH TYPE OF CONTEMPT INVOLVES ACTS SCANDALIZING OR LOWERING AUTHORITY OF COURTS?
A. CIVIL CONTEMPT
B. CRIMINAL CONTEMPT
C. JUDICIAL ACTIVISM
D. COURT OF RECORD
ANSWER: B. CRIMINAL CONTEMPT
EXPLANATION:
CRIMINAL CONTEMPT INCLUDES ACTS THAT SCANDALIZE COURTS OR OBSTRUCT JUSTICE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2040
SSC CHSL 2040
Q192. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES FOR ESTABLISHMENT OF HIGH COURTS IN STATES?
A. ARTICLE 214
B. ARTICLE 215
C. ARTICLE 216
D. ARTICLE 217
ANSWER: A. ARTICLE 214
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 214 STATES THAT EVERY STATE SHALL HAVE A HIGH COURT.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2039
SSC MTS 2040
Q193. WHICH ARTICLE DECLARES HIGH COURTS AS COURTS OF RECORD?
A. ARTICLE 214
B. ARTICLE 215
C. ARTICLE 216
D. ARTICLE 217
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 215
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 215 DECLARES HIGH COURTS AS COURTS OF RECORD WITH CONTEMPT POWERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2040
SSC CPO 2040
Q194. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH CONSTITUTION OF HIGH COURTS?
A. ARTICLE 215
B. ARTICLE 216
C. ARTICLE 217
D. ARTICLE 218
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 216
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 216 DEALS WITH CONSTITUTION AND COMPOSITION OF HIGH COURTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2039
SSC GD 2040
Q195. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH APPOINTMENT OF HIGH COURT JUDGES?
A. ARTICLE 216
B. ARTICLE 217
C. ARTICLE 218
D. ARTICLE 219
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 217
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 217 PROVIDES APPOINTMENT AND CONDITIONS OF HIGH COURT JUDGES.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2039
SSC CGL 2040
Q196. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH TRANSFER OF HIGH COURT JUDGES?
A. ARTICLE 220
B. ARTICLE 221
C. ARTICLE 222
D. ARTICLE 223
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 222
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 222 EMPOWERS THE PRESIDENT TO TRANSFER HIGH COURT JUDGES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2040
SSC CPO 2040
Q197. WHICH ARTICLE GIVES HIGH COURTS SUPERVISORY JURISDICTION OVER SUBORDINATE COURTS?
A. ARTICLE 225
B. ARTICLE 226
C. ARTICLE 227
D. ARTICLE 228
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 227
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 227 GIVES HIGH COURTS SUPERVISORY POWERS OVER SUBORDINATE COURTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2039
SSC MTS 2040
Q198. WHICH JURISDICTION ALLOWS HIGHER COURTS TO REVISE LOWER COURT DECISIONS?
A. ORIGINAL JURISDICTION
B. REVISIONAL JURISDICTION
C. ADVISORY JURISDICTION
D. WRIT JURISDICTION
ANSWER: B. REVISIONAL JURISDICTION
EXPLANATION:
REVISIONAL JURISDICTION ENABLES HIGHER COURTS TO EXAMINE LEGALITY OF LOWER COURT DECISIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2040
SSC CHSL 2040
Q199. WHICH PROCEEDINGS ARE CONDUCTED PRIVATELY WITHOUT PUBLIC ACCESS?
A. OPEN COURT PROCEEDINGS
B. JUDICIAL REVIEW
C. IN-CAMERA PROCEEDINGS
D. PIL PROCEEDINGS
ANSWER: C. IN-CAMERA PROCEEDINGS
EXPLANATION:
IN-CAMERA PROCEEDINGS ARE CONDUCTED PRIVATELY FOR SENSITIVE MATTERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2039
SSC CPO 2040
Q200. WHICH PETITION IS FILED AFTER DISMISSAL OF A REVIEW PETITION?
A. WRIT PETITION
B. CURATIVE PETITION
C. PIL
D. REVISION PETITION
ANSWER: B. CURATIVE PETITION
EXPLANATION:
CURATIVE PETITION IS THE FINAL CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDY AFTER REVIEW PETITION DISMISSAL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2039
SSC MTS 2040
PARLIAMENT MCQ QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION (CONTINUED)
Q201. WHICH TYPE OF PARLIAMENTARY QUESTION REQUIRES WRITTEN ANSWER ONLY?
A. STARRED QUESTION
B. SHORT NOTICE QUESTION
C. UNSTARRED QUESTION
D. SUPPLEMENTARY QUESTION
ANSWER: C. UNSTARRED QUESTION
EXPLANATION:
UNSTARRED QUESTIONS REQUIRE WRITTEN ANSWERS AND DO NOT PERMIT SUPPLEMENTARY QUESTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2040
SSC CHSL 2041
Q202. WHICH TYPE OF QUESTION IS ASKED WITH NOTICE SHORTER THAN NORMAL PERIOD?
A. STARRED QUESTION
B. SHORT NOTICE QUESTION
C. UNSTARRED QUESTION
D. HALF-AN-HOUR DISCUSSION
ANSWER: B. SHORT NOTICE QUESTION
EXPLANATION:
SHORT NOTICE QUESTIONS RELATE TO URGENT MATTERS AND ARE ASKED WITH SHORTER NOTICE PERIOD.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2040
SSC MTS 2041
Q203. WHO EXERCISES CASTING VOTE IN LOK SABHA IN CASE OF TIE?
A. PRESIDENT
B. PRIME MINISTER
C. SPEAKER
D. DEPUTY SPEAKER
ANSWER: C. SPEAKER
EXPLANATION:
THE SPEAKER EXERCISES CASTING VOTE IN CASE OF EQUALITY OF VOTES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2041
SSC CPO 2041
Q204. WHO ACTS AS EX-OFFICIO CHAIRMAN OF RAJYA SABHA?
A. PRESIDENT
B. PRIME MINISTER
C. VICE PRESIDENT
D. SPEAKER
ANSWER: C. VICE PRESIDENT
EXPLANATION:
THE VICE PRESIDENT OF INDIA ACTS AS CHAIRMAN OF RAJYA SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2040
SSC GD 2041
Q205. WHO PRESIDES OVER RAJYA SABHA IN ABSENCE OF CHAIRMAN?
A. SPEAKER
B. DEPUTY CHAIRMAN
C. PRIME MINISTER
D. PRESIDENT
ANSWER: B. DEPUTY CHAIRMAN
EXPLANATION:
DEPUTY CHAIRMAN PRESIDES OVER RAJYA SABHA IN ABSENCE OF CHAIRMAN.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2040
SSC CGL 2041
Q206. WHO IS ADMINISTRATIVE HEAD OF LOK SABHA SECRETARIAT?
A. SPEAKER
B. PRIME MINISTER
C. SECRETARY-GENERAL
D. DEPUTY SPEAKER
ANSWER: C. SECRETARY-GENERAL
EXPLANATION:
SECRETARY-GENERAL HEADS THE LOK SABHA SECRETARIAT AND ADVISES ON PROCEDURE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2041
SSC CPO 2041
Q207. WHICH SESSION OF PARLIAMENT IS USUALLY THE LONGEST?
A. MONSOON SESSION
B. WINTER SESSION
C. BUDGET SESSION
D. SPECIAL SESSION
ANSWER: C. BUDGET SESSION
EXPLANATION:
BUDGET SESSION IS GENERALLY THE LONGEST SESSION OF PARLIAMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2040
SSC MTS 2041
Q208. WHICH MOTION REDUCES AMOUNT OF DEMAND FOR GRANTS BY RE.1?
A. ECONOMY CUT MOTION
B. TOKEN CUT MOTION
C. POLICY CUT MOTION
D. GUILLOTINE MOTION
ANSWER: B. TOKEN CUT MOTION
EXPLANATION:
TOKEN CUT MOTION REDUCES DEMAND BY RE.1 TO HIGHLIGHT SPECIFIC GRIEVANCES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2041
SSC CHSL 2041
Q209. WHICH CUT MOTION EXPRESSES DISAPPROVAL OF GOVERNMENT POLICY?
A. TOKEN CUT MOTION
B. ECONOMY CUT MOTION
C. POLICY CUT MOTION
D. CLOSURE MOTION
ANSWER: C. POLICY CUT MOTION
EXPLANATION:
POLICY CUT MOTION REFLECTS OPPOSITION TO A POLICY UNDERLYING DEMAND FOR GRANTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2040
SSC CPO 2041
Q210. WHICH MOTION SEEKS REDUCTION IN EXPENDITURE AMOUNT?
A. ECONOMY CUT MOTION
B. PRIVILEGE MOTION
C. CENSURE MOTION
D. ADJOURNMENT MOTION
ANSWER: A. ECONOMY CUT MOTION
EXPLANATION:
ECONOMY CUT MOTION SEEKS REDUCTION IN PROPOSED EXPENDITURE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2040
SSC MTS 2041
JUDICIARY MCQ QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION (CONTINUED)
Q211. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES APPOINTMENT OF ADDITIONAL JUDGES IN HIGH COURTS?
A. ARTICLE 223
B. ARTICLE 224
C. ARTICLE 225
D. ARTICLE 226
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 224
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 224 PROVIDES APPOINTMENT OF ADDITIONAL AND ACTING JUDGES IN HIGH COURTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2041
SSC CHSL 2041
Q212. WHICH ARTICLE ALLOWS APPOINTMENT OF RETIRED HIGH COURT JUDGES?
A. ARTICLE 223
B. ARTICLE 224
C. ARTICLE 224A
D. ARTICLE 225
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 224A
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 224A ALLOWS APPOINTMENT OF RETIRED JUDGES TO SIT IN HIGH COURTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2040
SSC MTS 2041
Q213. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH JURISDICTION OF EXISTING HIGH COURTS?
A. ARTICLE 224
B. ARTICLE 225
C. ARTICLE 226
D. ARTICLE 227
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 225
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 225 DEALS WITH JURISDICTION OF EXISTING HIGH COURTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2041
SSC CPO 2041
Q214. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS HIGH COURTS TO ISSUE WRITS?
A. ARTICLE 225
B. ARTICLE 226
C. ARTICLE 227
D. ARTICLE 228
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 226
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 226 EMPOWERS HIGH COURTS TO ISSUE WRITS FOR LEGAL AND FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2040
SSC GD 2041
Q215. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH TRANSFER OF CERTAIN CASES TO HIGH COURTS?
A. ARTICLE 226
B. ARTICLE 227
C. ARTICLE 228
D. ARTICLE 229
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 228
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 228 ALLOWS TRANSFER OF CONSTITUTIONAL CASES TO HIGH COURTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2040
SSC CGL 2041
Q216. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH OFFICERS AND SERVANTS OF HIGH COURTS?
A. ARTICLE 228
B. ARTICLE 229
C. ARTICLE 230
D. ARTICLE 231
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 229
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 229 DEALS WITH APPOINTMENT AND SERVICE CONDITIONS OF HIGH COURT STAFF.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2041
SSC CPO 2041
Q217. WHICH CUSTODY KEEPS ACCUSED UNDER AUTHORITY OF POLICE FOR INVESTIGATION?
A. JUDICIAL CUSTODY
B. POLICE CUSTODY
C. CIVIL CUSTODY
D. PREVENTIVE CUSTODY
ANSWER: B. POLICE CUSTODY
EXPLANATION:
POLICE CUSTODY ALLOWS INTERROGATION OF ACCUSED BY POLICE AUTHORITIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2040
SSC MTS 2041
Q218. WHICH CUSTODY PLACES ACCUSED UNDER SUPERVISION OF MAGISTRATE AND JAIL AUTHORITIES?
A. POLICE CUSTODY
B. JUDICIAL CUSTODY
C. PREVENTIVE CUSTODY
D. CIVIL CUSTODY
ANSWER: B. JUDICIAL CUSTODY
EXPLANATION:
JUDICIAL CUSTODY PLACES ACCUSED UNDER CUSTODY OF COURT THROUGH JAIL AUTHORITIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2041
SSC CHSL 2041
Q219. WHICH ACT ESTABLISHED CENTRAL ADMINISTRATIVE TRIBUNAL?
A. TRIBUNALS ACT, 1974
B. ADMINISTRATIVE TRIBUNALS ACT, 1985
C. ENVIRONMENT PROTECTION ACT
D. LOKPAL ACT
ANSWER: B. ADMINISTRATIVE TRIBUNALS ACT, 1985
EXPLANATION:
THE ADMINISTRATIVE TRIBUNALS ACT, 1985 ESTABLISHED CAT FOR SERVICE DISPUTES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2040
SSC CPO 2041
Q220. WHICH JUDICIAL PRINCIPLE ALLOWS FAIR HEARING TO BOTH PARTIES?
A. JUDICIAL ACTIVISM
B. NATURAL JUSTICE
C. PIL
D. RULE OF LAW
ANSWER: B. NATURAL JUSTICE
EXPLANATION:
NATURAL JUSTICE ENSURES FAIR HEARING AND ABSENCE OF BIAS IN JUDICIAL PROCEEDINGS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2040
SSC MTS 2041
Q221. WHICH PRINCIPLE MEANS NO ONE SHOULD BE JUDGE IN OWN CASE?
A. AUDI ALTERAM PARTEM
B. NEMO JUDEX IN CAUSA SUA
C. RULE OF LAW
D. JUDICIAL REVIEW
ANSWER: B. NEMO JUDEX IN CAUSA SUA
EXPLANATION:
THIS PRINCIPLE PREVENTS BIAS BY ENSURING IMPARTIAL ADJUDICATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2041
SSC CHSL 2041
Q222. WHICH PRINCIPLE MEANS “HEAR THE OTHER SIDE” IN NATURAL JUSTICE?
A. NEMO JUDEX IN CAUSA SUA
B. AUDI ALTERAM PARTEM
C. JUDICIAL ACTIVISM
D. PIL
ANSWER: B. AUDI ALTERAM PARTEM
EXPLANATION:
AUDI ALTERAM PARTEM ENSURES OPPORTUNITY OF HEARING BEFORE DECISION.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2040
SSC MTS 2041
Q223. WHICH JUDICIAL REMEDY PROTECTS AGAINST DOUBLE JEOPARDY?
A. ARTICLE 19
B. ARTICLE 20
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 22
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 20
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 20 PROTECTS AGAINST DOUBLE JEOPARDY AND SELF-INCRIMINATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2041
SSC CPO 2041
Q224. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES PROTECTION AGAINST ARBITRARY ARREST AND DETENTION?
A. ARTICLE 20
B. ARTICLE 21
C. ARTICLE 22
D. ARTICLE 23
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 22
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 22 PROVIDES SAFEGUARDS AGAINST ARBITRARY ARREST AND DETENTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2040
SSC GD 2041
Q225. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL EXCEPTION ALLOWS PARLIAMENT TO MODIFY FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS FOR ARMED FORCES?
A. ARTICLE 31
B. ARTICLE 32
C. ARTICLE 33
D. ARTICLE 34
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 33
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 33 EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO RESTRICT FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS OF ARMED FORCES PERSONNEL.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2040
SSC CGL 2041
Q226. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH RESTRICTIONS DURING MARTIAL LAW?
A. ARTICLE 33
B. ARTICLE 34
C. ARTICLE 35
D. ARTICLE 36
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 34
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 34 PROVIDES RESTRICTIONS ON FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS DURING MARTIAL LAW.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2041
SSC CPO 2041
Q227. WHICH AUTHORITY APPOINTS LOKPAL OF INDIA?
A. PRIME MINISTER
B. PRESIDENT
C. CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA
D. PARLIAMENT
ANSWER: B. PRESIDENT
EXPLANATION:
THE PRESIDENT APPOINTS LOKPAL BASED ON RECOMMENDATIONS OF SELECTION COMMITTEE.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2040
SSC MTS 2041
Q228. WHICH INSTITUTION INVESTIGATES CORRUPTION COMPLAINTS AGAINST PUBLIC OFFICIALS?
A. ELECTION COMMISSION
B. LOKPAL
C. UPSC
D. NITI AAYOG
ANSWER: B. LOKPAL
EXPLANATION:
LOKPAL INVESTIGATES CORRUPTION ALLEGATIONS AGAINST PUBLIC FUNCTIONARIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2041
SSC CHSL 2041
Q229. WHICH BODY FUNCTIONS AS ANTI-CORRUPTION OMBUDSMAN IN STATES?
A. LOK SABHA
B. LOKAYUKTA
C. SUPREME COURT
D. ELECTION COMMISSION
ANSWER: B. LOKAYUKTA
EXPLANATION:
LOKAYUKTA FUNCTIONS AS ANTI-CORRUPTION AUTHORITY AT STATE LEVEL.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2040
SSC CPO 2041
Q230. WHICH PARLIAMENTARY TERM REFERS TO MEMBERS ATTENDING LAST SESSION BEFORE DISSOLUTION?
A. ZERO HOUR
B. GUILLOTINE
C. LAME DUCK SESSION
D. CLOSURE MOTION
ANSWER: C. LAME DUCK SESSION
EXPLANATION:
LAME DUCK SESSION REFERS TO FINAL SITTING BEFORE DISSOLUTION WHERE OUTGOING MEMBERS PARTICIPATE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2040
SSC MTS 2041
Q231. WHICH AUTHORITY DECIDES DISQUALIFICATION OF MPS UNDER OFFICE OF PROFIT?
A. PRIME MINISTER
B. SPEAKER ONLY
C. PRESIDENT BASED ON ELECTION COMMISSION ADVICE
D. SUPREME COURT
ANSWER: C. PRESIDENT BASED ON ELECTION COMMISSION ADVICE
EXPLANATION:
THE PRESIDENT DECIDES QUESTIONS OF DISQUALIFICATION OF MPS AFTER CONSULTING THE ELECTION COMMISSION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2041
SSC CHSL 2042
Q232. WHICH SCHEDULE OF THE CONSTITUTION ALLOCATES SEATS IN RAJYA SABHA?
A. FIRST SCHEDULE
B. SECOND SCHEDULE
C. FOURTH SCHEDULE
D. SEVENTH SCHEDULE
ANSWER: C. FOURTH SCHEDULE
EXPLANATION:
THE FOURTH SCHEDULE ALLOCATES SEATS OF STATES AND UNION TERRITORIES IN RAJYA SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2041
SSC MTS 2042
Q233. WHICH HOUSE CANNOT BE DISSOLVED?
A. LOK SABHA
B. RAJYA SABHA
C. LEGISLATIVE ASSEMBLY
D. BOTH HOUSES
ANSWER: B. RAJYA SABHA
EXPLANATION:
RAJYA SABHA IS A PERMANENT HOUSE AND CANNOT BE DISSOLVED.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2042
SSC CPO 2042
Q234. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL OFFICE RANKS IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE PRESIDENT AND VICE PRESIDENT IN WARRANT OF PRECEDENCE?
A. PRIME MINISTER
B. SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA
C. CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA
D. GOVERNOR
ANSWER: A. PRIME MINISTER
EXPLANATION:
THE PRIME MINISTER RANKS AFTER PRESIDENT AND VICE PRESIDENT IN OFFICIAL PRECEDENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2041
SSC GD 2042
Q235. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH SALARIES AND ALLOWANCES OF MEMBERS OF PARLIAMENT?
A. ARTICLE 104
B. ARTICLE 105
C. ARTICLE 106
D. ARTICLE 107
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 106
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 106 PROVIDES SALARIES AND ALLOWANCES OF MPS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2041
SSC CGL 2042
Q236. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH POWERS AND PRIVILEGES OF PARLIAMENT AND ITS MEMBERS?
A. ARTICLE 104
B. ARTICLE 105
C. ARTICLE 106
D. ARTICLE 107
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 105
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 105 DEALS WITH PARLIAMENTARY PRIVILEGES AND IMMUNITIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2042
SSC CPO 2042
Q237. WHICH MOTION CAN ONLY BE INTRODUCED IN LOK SABHA?
A. ADJOURNMENT MOTION
B. PRIVILEGE MOTION
C. NO-CONFIDENCE MOTION
D. CALLING ATTENTION MOTION
ANSWER: C. NO-CONFIDENCE MOTION
EXPLANATION:
NO-CONFIDENCE MOTION CAN ONLY BE INTRODUCED IN LOK SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2041
SSC MTS 2042
Q238. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT IS CALLED MINI CONSTITUTION?
A. 24TH AMENDMENT
B. 42ND AMENDMENT
C. 44TH AMENDMENT
D. 52ND AMENDMENT
ANSWER: B. 42ND AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 42ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT IS KNOWN AS MINI CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2042
SSC CHSL 2042
Q239. WHICH BODY RECOMMENDS DISTRIBUTION OF TAXES BETWEEN CENTRE AND STATES?
A. ELECTION COMMISSION
B. UPSC
C. FINANCE COMMISSION
D. NITI AAYOG
ANSWER: C. FINANCE COMMISSION
EXPLANATION:
FINANCE COMMISSION RECOMMENDS TAX DISTRIBUTION BETWEEN UNION AND STATES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2041
SSC CPO 2042
Q240. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES FOR FINANCE COMMISSION?
A. ARTICLE 278
B. ARTICLE 279
C. ARTICLE 280
D. ARTICLE 281
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 280
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 280 PROVIDES FOR CONSTITUTION OF FINANCE COMMISSION.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2041
SSC CGL 2042
Q241. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES IMMUNITY TO PRESIDENT FROM LEGAL PROCEEDINGS DURING TENURE?
A. ARTICLE 359
B. ARTICLE 360
C. ARTICLE 361
D. ARTICLE 362
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 361
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 361 GRANTS IMMUNITY TO PRESIDENT AND GOVERNORS DURING THEIR TERM.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2042
SSC GD 2042
Q242. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH PUBLIC ACTS, RECORDS, AND JUDICIAL PROCEEDINGS?
A. ARTICLE 260
B. ARTICLE 261
C. ARTICLE 262
D. ARTICLE 263
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 261
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 261 ENSURES FULL FAITH AND CREDIT TO PUBLIC ACTS AND JUDICIAL PROCEEDINGS ACROSS INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2042
SSC CPO 2042
Q243. WHICH BODY RESOLVES DISPUTES RELATED TO INTER-STATE RIVER WATERS?
A. SUPREME COURT ONLY
B. ELECTION COMMISSION
C. PARLIAMENT
D. PARLIAMENT MAY ESTABLISH TRIBUNAL UNDER ARTICLE 262
ANSWER: D. PARLIAMENT MAY ESTABLISH TRIBUNAL UNDER ARTICLE 262
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 262 EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO ESTABLISH TRIBUNALS FOR INTER-STATE RIVER DISPUTES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2041
SSC MTS 2042
Q244. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH INTER-STATE COUNCIL?
A. ARTICLE 262
B. ARTICLE 263
C. ARTICLE 264
D. ARTICLE 265
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 263
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 263 PROVIDES FOR ESTABLISHMENT OF INTER-STATE COUNCIL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2041
SSC CPO 2042
Q245. WHICH PRINCIPLE STATES TAX CAN BE LEVIED ONLY BY AUTHORITY OF LAW?
A. JUDICIAL REVIEW
B. RULE OF LAW
C. ARTICLE 265 PRINCIPLE
D. NATURAL JUSTICE
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 265 PRINCIPLE
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 265 STATES THAT NO TAX SHALL BE LEVIED OR COLLECTED EXCEPT BY AUTHORITY OF LAW.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2042
SSC CHSL 2042
Q246. WHICH ARTICLE ABOLISHES TITLES EXCEPT MILITARY AND ACADEMIC DISTINCTIONS?
A. ARTICLE 17
B. ARTICLE 18
C. ARTICLE 19
D. ARTICLE 20
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 18
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 18 ABOLISHES TITLES AND PROHIBITS STATE FROM CONFERRING HEREDITARY TITLES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2041
SSC MTS 2042
Q247. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AUTHORITY CERTIFIES A MONEY BILL?
A. PRESIDENT
B. PRIME MINISTER
C. SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA
D. CHAIRMAN OF RAJYA SABHA
ANSWER: C. SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA
EXPLANATION:
THE SPEAKER CERTIFIES WHETHER A BILL IS A MONEY BILL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2042
SSC CPO 2042
Q248. WHICH HOUSE HAS GREATER POWERS REGARDING MONEY BILLS?
A. RAJYA SABHA
B. LOK SABHA
C. BOTH HOUSES EQUALLY
D. PRESIDENT
ANSWER: B. LOK SABHA
EXPLANATION:
LOK SABHA HAS OVERRIDING POWERS IN MONEY BILL MATTERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2041
SSC GD 2042
Q249. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH IMPEACHMENT OF PRESIDENT?
A. ARTICLE 59
B. ARTICLE 60
C. ARTICLE 61
D. ARTICLE 62
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 61
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 61 PROVIDES PROCEDURE FOR IMPEACHMENT OF THE PRESIDENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2041
SSC CGL 2042
Q250. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL FEATURE WAS BORROWED FROM THE BRITISH SYSTEM?
A. JUDICIAL REVIEW
B. FEDERALISM
C. PARLIAMENTARY GOVERNMENT
D. FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
ANSWER: C. PARLIAMENTARY GOVERNMENT
EXPLANATION:
INDIA ADOPTED THE PARLIAMENTARY FORM OF GOVERNMENT FROM BRITAIN.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2042
SSC CPO 2042
PARLIAMENT MCQ QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION (CONTINUED)
Q251. WHICH TYPE OF WHIP INDICATES STRICT PARTY ATTENDANCE AND VOTING DIRECTION?
A. ONE-LINE WHIP
B. TWO-LINE WHIP
C. THREE-LINE WHIP
D. ZERO-LINE WHIP
ANSWER: C. THREE-LINE WHIP
EXPLANATION:
A THREE-LINE WHIP IS THE STRICTEST PARTY DIRECTIVE REQUIRING COMPULSORY ATTENDANCE AND VOTING.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2042
SSC CHSL 2043
Q252. WHO MAINTAINS ORDER AND SECURITY INSIDE LOK SABHA?
A. SPEAKER
B. MARSHAL OF LOK SABHA
C. CABINET SECRETARY
D. DEPUTY SPEAKER
ANSWER: B. MARSHAL OF LOK SABHA
EXPLANATION:
THE MARSHAL OF LOK SABHA ENSURES SECURITY AND CEREMONIAL FUNCTIONS IN THE HOUSE.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2042
SSC MTS 2043
Q253. WHICH COMMITTEE RECOMMENDS TIME ALLOCATION FOR GOVERNMENT BUSINESS IN PARLIAMENT?
A. PAC
B. ESTIMATES COMMITTEE
C. BUSINESS ADVISORY COMMITTEE
D. RULES COMMITTEE
ANSWER: C. BUSINESS ADVISORY COMMITTEE
EXPLANATION:
BUSINESS ADVISORY COMMITTEE ALLOCATES TIME FOR LEGISLATIVE AND OTHER PARLIAMENTARY BUSINESS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2043
SSC CPO 2043
Q254. WHICH COMMITTEE EXAMINES PETITIONS SUBMITTED BY CITIZENS?
A. PETITIONS COMMITTEE
B. ETHICS COMMITTEE
C. PRIVILEGES COMMITTEE
D. PAC
ANSWER: A. PETITIONS COMMITTEE
EXPLANATION:
THE PETITIONS COMMITTEE EXAMINES PETITIONS PRESENTED TO PARLIAMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2042
SSC GD 2043
Q255. WHICH COMMITTEE EXAMINES ASSURANCES GIVEN BY MINISTERS ON THE FLOOR OF HOUSE?
A. RULES COMMITTEE
B. COMMITTEE ON GOVERNMENT ASSURANCES
C. ETHICS COMMITTEE
D. PRIVILEGES COMMITTEE
ANSWER: B. COMMITTEE ON GOVERNMENT ASSURANCES
EXPLANATION:
THIS COMMITTEE EXAMINES WHETHER ASSURANCES GIVEN BY MINISTERS HAVE BEEN FULFILLED.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2042
SSC CGL 2043
Q256. WHICH PARLIAMENTARY PRACTICE ALLOWS ABSENCE OF MEMBERS FROM OPPOSITE PARTIES BY MUTUAL UNDERSTANDING?
A. PAIRING SYSTEM
B. GUILLOTINE
C. CLOSURE MOTION
D. ZERO HOUR
ANSWER: A. PAIRING SYSTEM
EXPLANATION:
PAIRING SYSTEM ALLOWS ABSENT MEMBERS FROM RIVAL PARTIES TO BALANCE VOTING STRENGTH.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2043
SSC CPO 2043
Q257. WHICH PRESIDENT OF INDIA IS FAMOUSLY ASSOCIATED WITH USE OF POCKET VETO?
A. RAJENDRA PRASAD
B. FAKHRUDDIN ALI AHMED
C. GIANI ZAIL SINGH
D. APJ ABDUL KALAM
ANSWER: C. GIANI ZAIL SINGH
EXPLANATION:
GIANI ZAIL SINGH USED POCKET VETO BY WITHHOLDING ASSENT TO POSTAL AMENDMENT BILL.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2042
SSC MTS 2043
Q258. WHICH PARLIAMENTARY COMMITTEE SCRUTINIZES EXPENDITURE ESTIMATES OF MINISTRIES?
A. ESTIMATES COMMITTEE
B. PAC
C. RULES COMMITTEE
D. ETHICS COMMITTEE
ANSWER: A. ESTIMATES COMMITTEE
EXPLANATION:
ESTIMATES COMMITTEE EXAMINES BUDGET ESTIMATES AND SUGGESTS EFFICIENCY IMPROVEMENTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2043
SSC CHSL 2043
Q259. WHICH COMMITTEE EXAMINES WHETHER PUBLIC EXPENDITURE IS WITHIN PARLIAMENT-APPROVED LIMITS?
A. BUSINESS ADVISORY COMMITTEE
B. PAC
C. PRIVILEGES COMMITTEE
D. PETITIONS COMMITTEE
ANSWER: B. PAC
EXPLANATION:
PUBLIC ACCOUNTS COMMITTEE EXAMINES GOVERNMENT EXPENDITURE AUDITED BY CAG.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2042
SSC CPO 2043
Q260. WHICH HOUSE ELECTS ITS OWN DEPUTY SPEAKER?
A. RAJYA SABHA
B. LOK SABHA
C. BOTH HOUSES JOINTLY
D. STATE LEGISLATURE
ANSWER: B. LOK SABHA
EXPLANATION:
LOK SABHA ELECTS DEPUTY SPEAKER FROM AMONG ITS MEMBERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2042
SSC CGL 2043
JUDICIARY MCQ QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION (CONTINUED)
Q261. WHICH ACT ESTABLISHED GRAM NYAYALAYAS IN INDIA?
A. LEGAL SERVICES AUTHORITIES ACT
B. GRAM NYAYALAYAS ACT, 2008
C. FAMILY COURTS ACT
D. CPC AMENDMENT ACT
ANSWER: B. GRAM NYAYALAYAS ACT, 2008
EXPLANATION:
GRAM NYAYALAYAS ACT, 2008 ESTABLISHED VILLAGE-LEVEL COURTS FOR SPEEDY JUSTICE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2042
SSC GD 2043
Q262. WHICH COURTS ARE SPECIALLY CREATED FOR SPEEDY DISPOSAL OF PENDING CASES?
A. FAMILY COURTS
B. FAST TRACK COURTS
C. LOK ADALATS
D. GRAM NYAYALAYAS
ANSWER: B. FAST TRACK COURTS
EXPLANATION:
FAST TRACK COURTS ARE ESTABLISHED FOR QUICK DISPOSAL OF LONG-PENDING CASES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2043
SSC CPO 2043
Q263. WHICH ACT PROVIDES FOR ESTABLISHMENT OF FAMILY COURTS?
A. FAMILY COURTS ACT, 1984
B. CPC ACT
C. JUDICIAL REFORM ACT
D. DOMESTIC COURTS ACT
ANSWER: A. FAMILY COURTS ACT, 1984
EXPLANATION:
FAMILY COURTS ACT, 1984 ESTABLISHED COURTS FOR MATRIMONIAL AND FAMILY DISPUTES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2042
SSC MTS 2043
Q264. WHICH MISSION AIMS TO COMPUTERIZE INDIAN JUDICIARY?
A. DIGITAL INDIA MISSION
B. E-COURTS MISSION
C. JUDICIAL CONNECTIVITY SCHEME
D. CYBER COURT MISSION
ANSWER: B. E-COURTS MISSION
EXPLANATION:
THE E-COURTS MISSION MODE PROJECT MODERNIZES JUDICIARY THROUGH DIGITAL TECHNOLOGY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2043
SSC CPO 2043
Q265. WHICH INSTITUTION PROVIDES INEXPENSIVE AND SPEEDY JUSTICE THROUGH COMPROMISE?
A. SESSIONS COURT
B. LOK ADALAT
C. CAT
D. SUPREME COURT
ANSWER: B. LOK ADALAT
EXPLANATION:
LOK ADALATS SETTLE DISPUTES THROUGH COMPROMISE AND CONCILIATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2043
SSC CHSL 2043
Q266. LOK ADALATS ARE ORGANIZED UNDER WHICH ACT?
A. GRAM NYAYALAYAS ACT
B. FAMILY COURTS ACT
C. LEGAL SERVICES AUTHORITIES ACT, 1987
D. CPC ACT
ANSWER: C. LEGAL SERVICES AUTHORITIES ACT, 1987
EXPLANATION:
LOK ADALATS ARE CONSTITUTED UNDER LEGAL SERVICES AUTHORITIES ACT, 1987.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2042
SSC MTS 2043
Q267. WHICH LOK ADALAT HAS PERMANENT STATUS FOR PUBLIC UTILITY SERVICES?
A. NATIONAL LOK ADALAT
B. MEGA LOK ADALAT
C. PERMANENT LOK ADALAT
D. MOBILE LOK ADALAT
ANSWER: C. PERMANENT LOK ADALAT
EXPLANATION:
PERMANENT LOK ADALAT HANDLES DISPUTES RELATING TO PUBLIC UTILITY SERVICES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2043
SSC CPO 2043
Q268. WHICH JUDICIAL PRECEDENT IS LEGALLY BINDING ON LOWER COURTS?
A. PERSUASIVE PRECEDENT
B. OBITER DICTA
C. BINDING PRECEDENT
D. ADVISORY OPINION
ANSWER: C. BINDING PRECEDENT
EXPLANATION:
BINDING PRECEDENTS MUST BE FOLLOWED BY SUBORDINATE COURTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2042
SSC GD 2043
Q269. WHICH JUDICIAL OBSERVATION FORMS BINDING PRINCIPLE OF A JUDGMENT?
A. OBITER DICTA
B. RATIO DECIDENDI
C. CURATIVE OPINION
D. ADVISORY PRINCIPLE
ANSWER: B. RATIO DECIDENDI
EXPLANATION:
RATIO DECIDENDI IS THE LEGAL REASONING FORMING BINDING PART OF JUDGMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2042
SSC CGL 2043
Q270. WHICH TERM REFERS TO INCIDENTAL REMARKS MADE BY JUDGES NOT BINDING AS LAW?
A. RATIO DECIDENDI
B. JUDICIAL REVIEW
C. OBITER DICTA
D. BINDING PRECEDENT
ANSWER: C. OBITER DICTA
EXPLANATION:
OBITER DICTA ARE JUDICIAL OBSERVATIONS NOT ESSENTIAL TO DECISION AND NOT BINDING.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2043
SSC CPO 2043
Q271. WHICH CASE INTRODUCED CURATIVE PETITION IN INDIA?
A. KESAVANANDA BHARATI CASE
B. GOLAKNATH CASE
C. RUPA ASHOK HURRA CASE
D. MINERVA MILLS CASE
ANSWER: C. RUPA ASHOK HURRA CASE
EXPLANATION:
CURATIVE PETITION CONCEPT ORIGINATED IN RUPA ASHOK HURRA V. ASHOK HURRA CASE.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2042
SSC MTS 2043
Q272. WHICH JUDICIAL BODY IS APEX COURT IN INDIA?
A. HIGH COURT
B. DISTRICT COURT
C. SUPREME COURT
D. CONSTITUTIONAL COURT
ANSWER: C. SUPREME COURT
EXPLANATION:
SUPREME COURT IS THE HIGHEST JUDICIAL AUTHORITY IN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2043
SSC CHSL 2043
Q273. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO ESTABLISH ADDITIONAL COURTS?
A. ARTICLE 246
B. ARTICLE 247
C. ARTICLE 248
D. ARTICLE 249
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 247
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 247 EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO ESTABLISH ADDITIONAL COURTS FOR BETTER ADMINISTRATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2042
SSC CPO 2043
Q274. WHICH ARTICLE GIVES RESIDUARY LEGISLATIVE POWERS TO PARLIAMENT?
A. ARTICLE 247
B. ARTICLE 248
C. ARTICLE 249
D. ARTICLE 250
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 248
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 248 GRANTS RESIDUARY LEGISLATIVE POWERS TO PARLIAMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2042
SSC CGL 2043
Q275. WHICH ARTICLE ALLOWS PARLIAMENT TO LEGISLATE ON STATE LIST IN NATIONAL INTEREST?
A. ARTICLE 248
B. ARTICLE 249
C. ARTICLE 250
D. ARTICLE 251
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 249
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 249 EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO LEGISLATE ON STATE LIST IN NATIONAL INTEREST IF RAJYA SABHA APPROVES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2043
SSC GD 2043
Q276. WHICH ARTICLE ALLOWS PARLIAMENT TO LEGISLATE ON STATE LIST DURING EMERGENCY?
A. ARTICLE 249
B. ARTICLE 250
C. ARTICLE 251
D. ARTICLE 252
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 250
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 250 PERMITS PARLIAMENT TO LEGISLATE ON STATE SUBJECTS DURING EMERGENCY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2043
SSC CPO 2043
Q277. WHICH ARTICLE ALLOWS PARLIAMENT TO LEGISLATE FOR STATES BY CONSENT OF STATES?
A. ARTICLE 250
B. ARTICLE 251
C. ARTICLE 252
D. ARTICLE 253
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 252
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 252 PERMITS PARLIAMENT TO LEGISLATE FOR CONSENTING STATES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2042
SSC MTS 2043
Q278. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO IMPLEMENT INTERNATIONAL AGREEMENTS?
A. ARTICLE 252
B. ARTICLE 253
C. ARTICLE 254
D. ARTICLE 255
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 253
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 253 EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO IMPLEMENT TREATIES AND INTERNATIONAL AGREEMENTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2043
SSC CPO 2043
Q279. WHICH ARTICLE RESOLVES INCONSISTENCY BETWEEN UNION AND STATE LAWS?
A. ARTICLE 253
B. ARTICLE 254
C. ARTICLE 255
D. ARTICLE 256
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 254
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 254 PROVIDES THAT UNION LAW PREVAILS OVER CONFLICTING STATE LAW.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2043
SSC CHSL 2043
Q280. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH OBLIGATION OF STATES AND UNION?
A. ARTICLE 255
B. ARTICLE 256
C. ARTICLE 257
D. ARTICLE 258
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 256
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 256 OBLIGATES STATES TO ENSURE COMPLIANCE WITH PARLIAMENTARY LAWS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2042
SSC MTS 2043
Q281. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH CONTROL OF UNION OVER STATES IN CERTAIN CASES?
A. ARTICLE 256
B. ARTICLE 257
C. ARTICLE 258
D. ARTICLE 259
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 257
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 257 DEALS WITH UNION CONTROL OVER STATES REGARDING EXECUTIVE POWERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2044
SSC CHSL 2044
Q282. WHICH ARTICLE ALLOWS UNION TO CONFER POWERS UPON STATES?
A. ARTICLE 257
B. ARTICLE 258
C. ARTICLE 259
D. ARTICLE 260
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 258
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 258 PERMITS THE UNION TO ENTRUST FUNCTIONS TO STATES WITH CONSENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2043
SSC MTS 2044
Q283. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES JURISDICTION OF UNION RELATING TO TERRITORIES OUTSIDE INDIA?
A. ARTICLE 258
B. ARTICLE 259
C. ARTICLE 260
D. ARTICLE 261
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 260
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 260 DEALS WITH JURISDICTION OF INDIA OVER TERRITORIES OUTSIDE INDIA THROUGH AGREEMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2044
SSC CPO 2044
Q284. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL BODY CONDUCTS ELECTIONS IN INDIA?
A. UPSC
B. FINANCE COMMISSION
C. ELECTION COMMISSION OF INDIA
D. NITI AAYOG
ANSWER: C. ELECTION COMMISSION OF INDIA
EXPLANATION:
ELECTION COMMISSION CONDUCTS ELECTIONS TO PARLIAMENT, STATE LEGISLATURES, AND OFFICES OF PRESIDENT AND VICE PRESIDENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2044
SSC GD 2044
Q285. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES FOR ELECTION COMMISSION OF INDIA?
A. ARTICLE 322
B. ARTICLE 323
C. ARTICLE 324
D. ARTICLE 325
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 324
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 324 VESTS SUPERINTENDENCE AND CONTROL OF ELECTIONS IN ELECTION COMMISSION.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2043
SSC CGL 2044
Q286. WHICH ARTICLE STATES THAT NO PERSON SHALL BE INELIGIBLE FOR INCLUSION IN ELECTORAL ROLLS ON GROUNDS OF RELIGION, RACE, CASTE, OR SEX?
A. ARTICLE 324
B. ARTICLE 325
C. ARTICLE 326
D. ARTICLE 327
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 325
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 325 ENSURES EQUALITY IN ELECTORAL ROLLS WITHOUT DISCRIMINATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2044
SSC CPO 2044
Q287. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES ADULT SUFFRAGE IN ELECTIONS?
A. ARTICLE 325
B. ARTICLE 326
C. ARTICLE 327
D. ARTICLE 328
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 326
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 326 PROVIDES UNIVERSAL ADULT FRANCHISE FOR ELECTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2043
SSC MTS 2044
Q288. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO MAKE ELECTION-RELATED LAWS?
A. ARTICLE 326
B. ARTICLE 327
C. ARTICLE 328
D. ARTICLE 329
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 327
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 327 EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO LEGISLATE REGARDING ELECTIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2044
SSC CHSL 2044
Q289. WHICH ARTICLE BARS JUDICIAL INTERFERENCE IN ELECTORAL MATTERS EXCEPT ELECTION PETITIONS?
A. ARTICLE 327
B. ARTICLE 328
C. ARTICLE 329
D. ARTICLE 330
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 329
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 329 RESTRICTS JUDICIAL INTERVENTION IN ELECTION MATTERS EXCEPT THROUGH ELECTION PETITIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2043
SSC CPO 2044
Q290. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES RESERVATION OF SEATS FOR SCS AND STS IN LOK SABHA?
A. ARTICLE 329
B. ARTICLE 330
C. ARTICLE 331
D. ARTICLE 332
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 330
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 330 PROVIDES RESERVATION FOR SCHEDULED CASTES AND SCHEDULED TRIBES IN LOK SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2043
SSC CGL 2044
Q291. WHICH ARTICLE EARLIER ALLOWED NOMINATION OF ANGLO-INDIAN MEMBERS TO LOK SABHA?
A. ARTICLE 330
B. ARTICLE 331
C. ARTICLE 332
D. ARTICLE 333
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 331
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 331 EARLIER EMPOWERED PRESIDENT TO NOMINATE ANGLO-INDIAN MEMBERS TO LOK SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2044
SSC GD 2044
Q292. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES RESERVATION OF SEATS FOR SCS AND STS IN STATE LEGISLATURES?
A. ARTICLE 331
B. ARTICLE 332
C. ARTICLE 333
D. ARTICLE 334
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 332
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 332 PROVIDES RESERVATION OF SEATS FOR SCS AND STS IN LEGISLATIVE ASSEMBLIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2044
SSC CPO 2044
Q293. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH REPRESENTATION OF ANGLO-INDIANS IN STATE ASSEMBLIES?
A. ARTICLE 332
B. ARTICLE 333
C. ARTICLE 334
D. ARTICLE 335
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 333
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 333 EMPOWERED GOVERNORS TO NOMINATE ANGLO-INDIAN MEMBERS TO STATE ASSEMBLIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2043
SSC MTS 2044
Q294. WHICH ARTICLE ORIGINALLY FIXED TIME LIMIT FOR RESERVATION OF SEATS FOR SC/STS?
A. ARTICLE 333
B. ARTICLE 334
C. ARTICLE 335
D. ARTICLE 336
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 334
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 334 ORIGINALLY FIXED RESERVATION PERIOD WHICH HAS BEEN EXTENDED PERIODICALLY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2044
SSC CPO 2044
Q295. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH CLAIMS OF SCS AND STS IN PUBLIC SERVICES?
A. ARTICLE 334
B. ARTICLE 335
C. ARTICLE 336
D. ARTICLE 337
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 335
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 335 ADDRESSES CLAIMS OF SCS AND STS IN SERVICES AND POSTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2044
SSC CHSL 2044
Q296. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL BODY CONDUCTS RECRUITMENT FOR CENTRAL SERVICES?
A. ELECTION COMMISSION
B. FINANCE COMMISSION
C. UPSC
D. NITI AAYOG
ANSWER: C. UPSC
EXPLANATION:
UNION PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION CONDUCTS RECRUITMENT FOR ALL INDIA AND CENTRAL SERVICES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2043
SSC MTS 2044
Q297. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES FOR UPSC?
A. ARTICLE 312
B. ARTICLE 313
C. ARTICLE 314
D. ARTICLE 315
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 315
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 315 PROVIDES FOR UNION AND STATE PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2044
SSC CPO 2044
Q298. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH APPOINTMENT AND TERM OF UPSC MEMBERS?
A. ARTICLE 315
B. ARTICLE 316
C. ARTICLE 317
D. ARTICLE 318
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 316
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 316 DEALS WITH APPOINTMENT AND TENURE OF UPSC MEMBERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2044
SSC GD 2044
Q299. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH REMOVAL AND SUSPENSION OF UPSC MEMBERS?
A. ARTICLE 316
B. ARTICLE 317
C. ARTICLE 318
D. ARTICLE 319
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 317
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 317 DEALS WITH REMOVAL AND SUSPENSION OF PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION MEMBERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2043
SSC CGL 2044
Q300. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL BODY ADVISES THE GOVERNMENT ON RECRUITMENT MATTERS?
A. ELECTION COMMISSION
B. FINANCE COMMISSION
C. UPSC
D. CAG
ANSWER: C. UPSC
EXPLANATION:
UPSC ADVISES THE GOVERNMENT ON RECRUITMENT, PROMOTIONS, AND DISCIPLINARY MATTERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2044
SSC CPO 2044
PARLIAMENT MCQ QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION (EXTREME CONSTITUTIONAL TRIVIA)
Q301. WHICH COLOR IS TRADITIONALLY ASSOCIATED WITH STARRED QUESTIONS IN PARLIAMENT?
A. BLUE
B. GREEN
C. WHITE
D. PINK
ANSWER: B. GREEN
EXPLANATION:
STARRED QUESTIONS, WHICH REQUIRE ORAL ANSWERS, ARE PRINTED ON GREEN PAPER IN PARLIAMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2045
SSC CHSL 2045
Q302. WHICH COLOR PAPER IS USED FOR UNSTARRED QUESTIONS?
A. WHITE
B. GREEN
C. YELLOW
D. PINK
ANSWER: A. WHITE
EXPLANATION:
UNSTARRED QUESTIONS REQUIRING WRITTEN ANSWERS ARE PRINTED ON WHITE PAPER.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2044
SSC MTS 2045
Q303. WHICH PARLIAMENTARY VOTING METHOD INVOLVES MEMBERS VERBALLY SAYING “AYE” OR “NO”?
A. DIVISION VOTE
B. SECRET BALLOT
C. VOICE VOTE
D. CASTING VOTE
ANSWER: C. VOICE VOTE
EXPLANATION:
VOICE VOTE IS DECIDED BASED ON VERBAL RESPONSE OF MEMBERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2045
SSC CPO 2045
Q304. WHICH VOTING METHOD RECORDS EXACT VOTING PREFERENCE OF EACH MEMBER ELECTRONICALLY OR PHYSICALLY?
A. VOICE VOTE
B. DIVISION VOTING
C. SECRET VOTE
D. CASTING VOTE
ANSWER: B. DIVISION VOTING
EXPLANATION:
DIVISION VOTING RECORDS VOTES OF MEMBERS INDIVIDUALLY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2044
SSC GD 2045
Q305. UNDER WHICH ARTICLE DOES THE PRESIDENT ADDRESS PARLIAMENT AT COMMENCEMENT OF FIRST SESSION EACH YEAR?
A. ARTICLE 85
B. ARTICLE 86
C. ARTICLE 87
D. ARTICLE 88
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 87
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 87 PROVIDES FOR SPECIAL ADDRESS BY PRESIDENT TO PARLIAMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2044
SSC CGL 2045
Q306. WHICH ARTICLE GRANTS MINISTERS AND ATTORNEY GENERAL RIGHT TO PARTICIPATE IN PARLIAMENTARY PROCEEDINGS?
A. ARTICLE 87
B. ARTICLE 88
C. ARTICLE 89
D. ARTICLE 90
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 88
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 88 ALLOWS MINISTERS AND ATTORNEY GENERAL TO PARTICIPATE IN PROCEEDINGS WITHOUT VOTING RIGHTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2045
SSC CPO 2045
Q307. WHICH PARLIAMENTARY TV CHANNEL WAS FORMED BY MERGING LOK SABHA TV AND RAJYA SABHA TV?
A. BHARAT TV
B. SANSAD TV
C. PARLIAMENT TV INDIA
D. NATIONAL LEGISLATURE CHANNEL
ANSWER: B. SANSAD TV
EXPLANATION:
SANSAD TV WAS CREATED THROUGH MERGER OF LOK SABHA TV AND RAJYA SABHA TV.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2044
SSC MTS 2045
Q308. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL OFFICE ADMINISTERS OATH TO PRESIDENT OF INDIA?
A. PRIME MINISTER
B. VICE PRESIDENT
C. CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA
D. SPEAKER
ANSWER: C. CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA
EXPLANATION:
THE CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA ADMINISTERS OATH TO THE PRESIDENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2045
SSC CHSL 2045
Q309. WHICH SCHEDULE CONTAINS FORMS OF OATHS AND AFFIRMATIONS?
A. SECOND SCHEDULE
B. THIRD SCHEDULE
C. FOURTH SCHEDULE
D. FIFTH SCHEDULE
ANSWER: B. THIRD SCHEDULE
EXPLANATION:
THIRD SCHEDULE CONTAINS FORMS OF OATHS FOR CONSTITUTIONAL OFFICES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2044
SSC CPO 2045
Q310. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT LOWERED VOTING AGE FROM 21 TO 18 YEARS?
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 44TH AMENDMENT
C. 61ST AMENDMENT
D. 73RD AMENDMENT
ANSWER: C. 61ST AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
61ST CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT REDUCED VOTING AGE TO 18 YEARS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2044
SSC CGL 2045
JUDICIARY MCQ QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION (EXTREME CONSTITUTIONAL TRIVIA)
Q311. WHICH PROPOSED BODY WAS INTENDED TO REPLACE COLLEGIUM SYSTEM BUT STRUCK DOWN BY SUPREME COURT?
A. UPSC
B. NJAC
C. NGT
D. CAT
ANSWER: B. NJAC
EXPLANATION:
NATIONAL JUDICIAL APPOINTMENTS COMMISSION WAS STRUCK DOWN IN 2015 AS UNCONSTITUTIONAL.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2045
SSC GD 2045
Q312. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ESTABLISHED NJAC?
A. 97TH AMENDMENT
B. 98TH AMENDMENT
C. 99TH AMENDMENT
D. 100TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER: C. 99TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
99TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT CREATED NJAC.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2045
SSC CPO 2045
Q313. WHICH SYSTEM CURRENTLY GOVERNS APPOINTMENT OF JUDGES IN HIGHER JUDICIARY?
A. NJAC SYSTEM
B. COLLEGIUM SYSTEM
C. UPSC SYSTEM
D. PARLIAMENTARY SYSTEM
ANSWER: B. COLLEGIUM SYSTEM
EXPLANATION:
JUDGES OF SUPREME COURT AND HIGH COURTS ARE APPOINTED THROUGH COLLEGIUM SYSTEM.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2044
SSC MTS 2045
Q314. WHICH DOCUMENT GOVERNS PROCEDURE FOR APPOINTMENT OF JUDGES?
A. JUDICIAL CHARTER
B. CONSTITUTIONAL MANUAL
C. MEMORANDUM OF PROCEDURE
D. JUDICIAL HANDBOOK
ANSWER: C. MEMORANDUM OF PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION:
MOP LAYS DOWN PROCEDURE FOR JUDICIAL APPOINTMENTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2045
SSC CPO 2045
Q315. WHICH INITIATIVE ENABLES ONLINE FILING OF COURT CASES?
A. DIGITAL JUDICIARY SCHEME
B. E-FILING SYSTEM
C. CYBER COURT MISSION
D. ONLINE TRIBUNAL SCHEME
ANSWER: B. E-FILING SYSTEM
EXPLANATION:
E-FILING ENABLES ELECTRONIC FILING OF CASES IN COURTS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2045
SSC GD 2045
Q316. WHICH TYPE OF COURTS CONDUCT PROCEEDINGS THROUGH DIGITAL MODE?
A. GRAM COURTS
B. VIRTUAL COURTS
C. FAMILY COURTS
D. MOBILE COURTS
ANSWER: B. VIRTUAL COURTS
EXPLANATION:
VIRTUAL COURTS USE VIDEO CONFERENCING AND DIGITAL SYSTEMS FOR PROCEEDINGS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2044
SSC CPO 2045
Q317. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL DOCTRINE WAS EVOLVED IN KESAVANANDA BHARATI CASE?
A. RULE OF LAW DOCTRINE
B. BASIC STRUCTURE DOCTRINE
C. NATURAL JUSTICE DOCTRINE
D. ECLIPSE DOCTRINE
ANSWER: B. BASIC STRUCTURE DOCTRINE
EXPLANATION:
KESAVANANDA BHARATI CASE ESTABLISHED BASIC STRUCTURE DOCTRINE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2045
SSC CGL 2045
Q318. WHICH CASE ESTABLISHED DOCTRINE OF JUDICIAL REVIEW IN INDIA?
A. GOLAKNATH CASE
B. MINERVA MILLS CASE
C. L. CHANDRA KUMAR CASE
D. SHANKARI PRASAD CASE
ANSWER: D. SHANKARI PRASAD CASE
EXPLANATION:
SHANKARI PRASAD CASE RECOGNIZED PARLIAMENT’S AMENDING POWERS AND JUDICIAL REVIEW PRINCIPLES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2044
SSC MTS 2045
Q319. WHICH CASE DECLARED RIGHT TO PRIVACY A FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT?
A. GOLAKNATH CASE
B. MANEKA GANDHI CASE
C. PUTTASWAMY CASE
D. VISHAKA CASE
ANSWER: C. PUTTASWAMY CASE
EXPLANATION:
JUSTICE K.S. PUTTASWAMY CASE DECLARED PRIVACY A FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT UNDER ARTICLE 21.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2045
SSC CPO 2045
Q320. WHICH CASE LED TO FORMULATION OF VISHAKA GUIDELINES?
A. SHAH BANO CASE
B. VISHAKA CASE
C. MINERVA MILLS CASE
D. KESAVANANDA BHARATI CASE
ANSWER: B. VISHAKA CASE
EXPLANATION:
VISHAKA CASE LAID GUIDELINES AGAINST WORKPLACE SEXUAL HARASSMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2045
SSC GD 2045
Q321. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ADDED FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES?
A. 24TH AMENDMENT
B. 42ND AMENDMENT
C. 44TH AMENDMENT
D. 52ND AMENDMENT
ANSWER: B. 42ND AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
42ND AMENDMENT ADDED FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES UNDER PART IVA.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2044
SSC CGL 2045
Q322. WHICH PART OF CONSTITUTION CONTAINS FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES?
A. PART III
B. PART IVA
C. PART IV
D. PART V
ANSWER: B. PART IVA
EXPLANATION:
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES ARE CONTAINED IN PART IVA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2045
SSC CPO 2045
Q323. WHICH ARTICLE CONTAINS FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES?
A. ARTICLE 50A
B. ARTICLE 51A
C. ARTICLE 52A
D. ARTICLE 53A
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 51A
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51A LISTS FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2044
SSC MTS 2045
Q324. WHICH ARTICLE DIRECTS SEPARATION OF JUDICIARY FROM EXECUTIVE?
A. ARTICLE 48
B. ARTICLE 49
C. ARTICLE 50
D. ARTICLE 51
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 50
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 50 DIRECTS SEPARATION OF JUDICIARY FROM EXECUTIVE IN PUBLIC SERVICES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2045
SSC CHSL 2045
Q325. WHICH DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLE PROMOTES INTERNATIONAL PEACE AND SECURITY?
A. ARTICLE 49
B. ARTICLE 50
C. ARTICLE 51
D. ARTICLE 52
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 51
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 51 PROMOTES INTERNATIONAL PEACE AND JUST RELATIONS AMONG NATIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2044
SSC CPO 2045
Q326. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL OFFICE IS PART OF PARLIAMENT BUT NOT MEMBER OF EITHER HOUSE?
A. PRIME MINISTER
B. PRESIDENT
C. CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA
D. VICE PRESIDENT
ANSWER: B. PRESIDENT
EXPLANATION:
PRESIDENT IS INTEGRAL PART OF PARLIAMENT UNDER ARTICLE 79.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2044
SSC CGL 2045
Q327. WHICH ARTICLE STATES THERE SHALL BE A PARLIAMENT FOR THE UNION?
A. ARTICLE 78
B. ARTICLE 79
C. ARTICLE 80
D. ARTICLE 81
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 79
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 79 ESTABLISHES PARLIAMENT CONSISTING OF PRESIDENT, RAJYA SABHA, AND LOK SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2045
SSC GD 2045
Q328. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH COMPOSITION OF RAJYA SABHA?
A. ARTICLE 79
B. ARTICLE 80
C. ARTICLE 81
D. ARTICLE 82
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 80
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 80 PROVIDES COMPOSITION OF RAJYA SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2045
SSC CPO 2045
Q329. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH COMPOSITION OF LOK SABHA?
A. ARTICLE 80
B. ARTICLE 81
C. ARTICLE 82
D. ARTICLE 83
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 81
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 81 DEALS WITH COMPOSITION OF LOK SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2044
SSC MTS 2045
Q330. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH READJUSTMENT AFTER EACH CENSUS?
A. ARTICLE 81
B. ARTICLE 82
C. ARTICLE 83
D. ARTICLE 84
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 82
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 82 PROVIDES READJUSTMENT OF CONSTITUENCIES AFTER CENSUS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2045
SSC CPO 2045
Q331. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH DURATION OF HOUSES OF PARLIAMENT?
A. ARTICLE 82
B. ARTICLE 83
C. ARTICLE 84
D. ARTICLE 85
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 83
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 83 PROVIDES DURATION OF RAJYA SABHA AND LOK SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2046
SSC CHSL 2046
Q332. WHICH ARTICLE PRESCRIBES QUALIFICATIONS FOR MEMBERSHIP OF PARLIAMENT?
A. ARTICLE 83
B. ARTICLE 84
C. ARTICLE 85
D. ARTICLE 86
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 84
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 84 LAYS DOWN QUALIFICATIONS FOR BECOMING MP.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2045
SSC MTS 2046
Q333. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS PRESIDENT TO SUMMON PARLIAMENT?
A. ARTICLE 84
B. ARTICLE 85
C. ARTICLE 86
D. ARTICLE 87
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 85
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 85 EMPOWERS PRESIDENT TO SUMMON, PROROGUE, AND DISSOLVE LOK SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2046
SSC CPO 2046
Q334. WHICH ARTICLE GIVES PRESIDENT RIGHT TO ADDRESS AND SEND MESSAGES TO PARLIAMENT?
A. ARTICLE 85
B. ARTICLE 86
C. ARTICLE 87
D. ARTICLE 88
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 86
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 86 EMPOWERS PRESIDENT TO ADDRESS PARLIAMENT AND SEND MESSAGES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2045
SSC GD 2046
Q335. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH CHAIRMAN AND DEPUTY CHAIRMAN OF RAJYA SABHA?
A. ARTICLE 88
B. ARTICLE 89
C. ARTICLE 90
D. ARTICLE 91
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 89
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 89 PROVIDES OFFICES OF CHAIRMAN AND DEPUTY CHAIRMAN OF RAJYA SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2045
SSC CPO 2046
Q336. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH VACATION AND RESIGNATION OF DEPUTY CHAIRMAN OF RAJYA SABHA?
A. ARTICLE 89
B. ARTICLE 90
C. ARTICLE 91
D. ARTICLE 92
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 90
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 90 DEALS WITH RESIGNATION AND REMOVAL OF DEPUTY CHAIRMAN.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2046
SSC CHSL 2046
Q337. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS DEPUTY CHAIRMAN TO PERFORM DUTIES OF CHAIRMAN?
A. ARTICLE 90
B. ARTICLE 91
C. ARTICLE 92
D. ARTICLE 93
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 91
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 91 EMPOWERS DEPUTY CHAIRMAN DURING VACANCY OR ABSENCE OF CHAIRMAN.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2045
SSC MTS 2046
Q338. WHICH ARTICLE PROHIBITS PRESIDING OFFICER FROM PRESIDING DURING REMOVAL MOTION AGAINST HIM?
A. ARTICLE 91
B. ARTICLE 92
C. ARTICLE 93
D. ARTICLE 94
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 92
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 92 BARS CHAIRMAN OR DEPUTY CHAIRMAN FROM PRESIDING DURING REMOVAL PROCEEDINGS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2046
SSC CPO 2046
Q339. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES FOR SPEAKER AND DEPUTY SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA?
A. ARTICLE 92
B. ARTICLE 93
C. ARTICLE 94
D. ARTICLE 95
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 93
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 93 PROVIDES ELECTION OF SPEAKER AND DEPUTY SPEAKER.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2046
SSC GD 2046
Q340. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH VACATION, RESIGNATION, AND REMOVAL OF SPEAKER?
A. ARTICLE 93
B. ARTICLE 94
C. ARTICLE 95
D. ARTICLE 96
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 94
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 94 PROVIDES PROCEDURES REGARDING SPEAKER AND DEPUTY SPEAKER VACANCIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2045
SSC CHSL 2046
Q341. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS DEPUTY SPEAKER TO PERFORM SPEAKER’S DUTIES?
A. ARTICLE 94
B. ARTICLE 95
C. ARTICLE 96
D. ARTICLE 97
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 95
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 95 EMPOWERS DEPUTY SPEAKER DURING VACANCY OR ABSENCE OF SPEAKER.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2046
SSC CPO 2046
Q342. WHICH ARTICLE BARS SPEAKER FROM PRESIDING DURING REMOVAL MOTION AGAINST HIM?
A. ARTICLE 95
B. ARTICLE 96
C. ARTICLE 97
D. ARTICLE 98
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 96
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 96 PREVENTS SPEAKER FROM PRESIDING DURING HIS OWN REMOVAL PROCEEDINGS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2045
SSC MTS 2046
Q343. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH SALARIES AND ALLOWANCES OF PRESIDING OFFICERS?
A. ARTICLE 96
B. ARTICLE 97
C. ARTICLE 98
D. ARTICLE 99
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 97
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 97 PROVIDES SALARIES AND ALLOWANCES OF PRESIDING OFFICERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2046
SSC CPO 2046
Q344. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH SECRETARIAT OF PARLIAMENT?
A. ARTICLE 97
B. ARTICLE 98
C. ARTICLE 99
D. ARTICLE 100
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 98
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 98 PROVIDES SEPARATE SECRETARIAL STAFF FOR PARLIAMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2046
SSC GD 2046
Q345. WHICH ARTICLE PRESCRIBES OATH BY MEMBERS OF PARLIAMENT?
A. ARTICLE 98
B. ARTICLE 99
C. ARTICLE 100
D. ARTICLE 101
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 99
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 99 REQUIRES MPS TO TAKE OATH BEFORE TAKING SEATS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2045
SSC CHSL 2046
Q346. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH VOTING IN HOUSES AND QUORUM?
A. ARTICLE 99
B. ARTICLE 100
C. ARTICLE 101
D. ARTICLE 102
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 100
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 100 DEALS WITH VOTING PROCEDURES AND QUORUM IN PARLIAMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2046
SSC CPO 2046
Q347. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH VACATION OF SEATS BY MPS?
A. ARTICLE 100
B. ARTICLE 101
C. ARTICLE 102
D. ARTICLE 103
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 101
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 101 PROVIDES CIRCUMSTANCES FOR VACATION OF SEATS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2045
SSC MTS 2046
Q348. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES GROUNDS FOR DISQUALIFICATION OF MPS?
A. ARTICLE 101
B. ARTICLE 102
C. ARTICLE 103
D. ARTICLE 104
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 102
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 102 SPECIFIES GROUNDS OF DISQUALIFICATION FOR MPS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2046
SSC CPO 2046
Q349. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS PRESIDENT TO DECIDE QUESTIONS OF DISQUALIFICATION OF MPS?
A. ARTICLE 102
B. ARTICLE 103
C. ARTICLE 104
D. ARTICLE 105
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 103
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 103 AUTHORIZES PRESIDENT TO DECIDE MP DISQUALIFICATION MATTERS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2046
SSC GD 2046
Q350. WHICH ARTICLE IMPOSES PENALTY FOR SITTING AND VOTING BEFORE TAKING OATH OR WHILE DISQUALIFIED?
A. ARTICLE 103
B. ARTICLE 104
C. ARTICLE 105
D. ARTICLE 106
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 104
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 104 IMPOSES PENALTIES FOR UNAUTHORIZED PARTICIPATION IN PARLIAMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2045
SSC CHSL 2046
PARLIAMENT MCQ QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION (HISTORICAL / ARCHIVAL / RECORD-BASED TRIVIA)
Q351. WHO WAS THE FIRST SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA?
A. G.V. MAVALANKAR
B. HUKAM SINGH
C. NEELAM SANJIVA REDDY
D. BALRAM JAKHAR
ANSWER: A. G.V. MAVALANKAR
EXPLANATION:
GANESH VASUDEV MAVALANKAR BECAME THE FIRST SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA IN 1952.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2047
SSC CHSL 2047
Q352. WHO WAS THE FIRST DEPUTY SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA?
A. HUKAM SINGH
B. M. ANANTHASAYANAM AYYANGAR
C. BALRAM JAKHAR
D. SHIVRAJ PATIL
ANSWER: B. M. ANANTHASAYANAM AYYANGAR
EXPLANATION:
M. ANANTHASAYANAM AYYANGAR SERVED AS THE FIRST DEPUTY SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2046
SSC MTS 2047
Q353. WHO WAS THE FIRST DEPUTY CHAIRMAN OF RAJYA SABHA?
A. S. V. KRISHNAMOORTHY RAO
B. VIOLET ALVA
C. NAJMA HEPTULLA
D. HAMID ANSARI
ANSWER: A. S. V. KRISHNAMOORTHY RAO
EXPLANATION:
S. V. KRISHNAMOORTHY RAO BECAME THE FIRST DEPUTY CHAIRMAN OF RAJYA SABHA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2047
SSC CPO 2047
Q354. WHO WAS THE FIRST WOMAN SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA?
A. MEIRA KUMAR
B. SUMITRA MAHAJAN
C. INDIRA GANDHI
D. PRATIBHA PATIL
ANSWER: A. MEIRA KUMAR
EXPLANATION:
MEIRA KUMAR BECAME THE FIRST WOMAN SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA IN 2009.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2046
SSC GD 2047
Q355. WHICH BUILDING HOUSED THE INDIAN PARLIAMENT BEFORE THE NEW PARLIAMENT BUILDING?
A. RASHTRAPATI BHAVAN
B. SANSAD BHAVAN
C. NORTH BLOCK
D. VIGYAN BHAVAN
ANSWER: B. SANSAD BHAVAN
EXPLANATION:
THE HISTORIC CIRCULAR PARLIAMENT HOUSE WAS KNOWN AS SANSAD BHAVAN.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2046
SSC CPO 2047
Q356. WHO DESIGNED THE OLD PARLIAMENT HOUSE BUILDING?
A. EDWIN LUTYENS AND HERBERT BAKER
B. LE CORBUSIER
C. CHARLES CORREA
D. B.V. DOSHI
ANSWER: A. EDWIN LUTYENS AND HERBERT BAKER
EXPLANATION:
THE OLD PARLIAMENT BUILDING WAS DESIGNED BY BRITISH ARCHITECTS LUTYENS AND BAKER.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2047
SSC CHSL 2047
Q357. WHICH HALL IN PARLIAMENT HOUSE WAS USED FOR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY MEETINGS?
A. ASHOKA HALL
B. CENTRAL HALL
C. DURBAR HALL
D. CONSTITUTION HALL
ANSWER: B. CENTRAL HALL
EXPLANATION:
CENTRAL HALL HOSTED MEETINGS OF THE CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2046
SSC MTS 2047
Q358. ON WHICH DATE DID THE CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY FIRST MEET?
A. 15 AUGUST 1947
B. 26 JANUARY 1950
C. 9 DECEMBER 1946
D. 26 NOVEMBER 1949
ANSWER: C. 9 DECEMBER 1946
EXPLANATION:
THE CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY HELD ITS FIRST MEETING ON 9 DECEMBER 1946.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2047
SSC CPO 2047
Q359. WHO WAS TEMPORARY CHAIRMAN OF CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY?
A. DR. RAJENDRA PRASAD
B. SACHCHIDANANDA SINHA
C. B.R. AMBEDKAR
D. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
ANSWER: B. SACHCHIDANANDA SINHA
EXPLANATION:
DR. SACHCHIDANANDA SINHA SERVED AS TEMPORARY CHAIRMAN OF CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2046
SSC GD 2047
Q360. WHO BECAME PERMANENT PRESIDENT OF CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY?
A. B.R. AMBEDKAR
B. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
C. DR. RAJENDRA PRASAD
D. VALLABHBHAI PATEL
ANSWER: C. DR. RAJENDRA PRASAD
EXPLANATION:
DR. RAJENDRA PRASAD BECAME PERMANENT PRESIDENT OF CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2046
SSC CGL 2047
JUDICIARY MCQ QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATION (HISTORICAL / ARCHIVAL / RECORD-BASED TRIVIA)
Q361. WHO WAS THE FIRST CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA?
A. H.J. KANIA
B. M. PATANJALI SASTRI
C. MEHR CHAND MAHAJAN
D. B.K. MUKHERJEA
ANSWER: A. H.J. KANIA
EXPLANATION:
JUSTICE HARILAL JEKISUNDAS KANIA BECAME THE FIRST CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA IN 1950.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2047
SSC CPO 2047
Q362. WHICH COURT EXISTED BEFORE ESTABLISHMENT OF SUPREME COURT OF INDIA?
A. FEDERAL COURT OF INDIA
B. PRIVY COUNCIL
C. SUPREME FEDERAL TRIBUNAL
D. IMPERIAL COURT
ANSWER: A. FEDERAL COURT OF INDIA
EXPLANATION:
THE FEDERAL COURT OF INDIA FUNCTIONED BEFORE SUPREME COURT WAS ESTABLISHED.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2046
SSC MTS 2047
Q363. IN WHICH YEAR WAS SUPREME COURT OF INDIA ESTABLISHED?
A. 1947
B. 1948
C. 1950
D. 1952
ANSWER: C. 1950
EXPLANATION:
THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA CAME INTO EXISTENCE ON 28 JANUARY 1950.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2047
SSC CHSL 2047
Q364. WHICH BODY SERVED AS HIGHEST APPELLATE AUTHORITY BEFORE INDEPENDENCE?
A. FEDERAL COURT
B. PRIVY COUNCIL
C. SUPREME COURT
D. JUDICIAL COMMITTEE OF INDIA
ANSWER: B. PRIVY COUNCIL
EXPLANATION:
THE JUDICIAL COMMITTEE OF PRIVY COUNCIL IN BRITAIN WAS HIGHEST APPELLATE BODY BEFORE INDEPENDENCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2046
SSC CPO 2047
Q365. WHERE IS SUPREME COURT OF INDIA LOCATED?
A. MUMBAI
B. KOLKATA
C. CHENNAI
D. NEW DELHI
ANSWER: D. NEW DELHI
EXPLANATION:
THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA IS LOCATED IN NEW DELHI.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2046
SSC CGL 2047
Q366. IN WHICH YEAR WAS PRESENT SUPREME COURT BUILDING INAUGURATED?
A. 1950
B. 1954
C. 1958
D. 1962
ANSWER: C. 1958
EXPLANATION:
THE PRESENT SUPREME COURT BUILDING WAS INAUGURATED IN 1958.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2047
SSC GD 2047
Q367. WHICH SYMBOL APPEARS IN SUPREME COURT EMBLEM?
A. ASHOKA PILLAR ONLY
B. WHEEL OF DHARMA
C. BALANCE SCALE ONLY
D. LION AND LOTUS
ANSWER: B. WHEEL OF DHARMA
EXPLANATION:
SUPREME COURT EMBLEM INCORPORATES DHARMA CHAKRA SYMBOLIZING JUSTICE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2047
SSC CPO 2047
Q368. WHAT IS THE MOTTO OF SUPREME COURT OF INDIA?
A. SATYAMEVA JAYATE
B. YATO DHARMASTATO JAYA
C. JAI HIND
D. DHARMA RAKSHATI RAKSHITAH
ANSWER: B. YATO DHARMASTATO JAYA
EXPLANATION:
THE SUPREME COURT MOTTO MEANS “WHERE THERE IS DHARMA, THERE IS VICTORY.”
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2046
SSC MTS 2047
Q369. WHO WAS THE FIRST WOMAN JUDGE OF SUPREME COURT OF INDIA?
A. INDU MALHOTRA
B. FATIMA BEEVI
C. RUMA PAL
D. SUJATA MANOHAR
ANSWER: B. FATIMA BEEVI
EXPLANATION:
JUSTICE M. FATHIMA BEEVI BECAME FIRST WOMAN SUPREME COURT JUDGE IN 1989.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2047
SSC CPO 2047
Q370. WHICH CHIEF JUSTICE HAD THE LONGEST TENURE IN SUPREME COURT HISTORY?
A. Y.V. CHANDRACHUD
B. H.J. KANIA
C. M. HIDAYATULLAH
D. P.N. BHAGWATI
ANSWER: A. Y.V. CHANDRACHUD
EXPLANATION:
JUSTICE Y.V. CHANDRACHUD SERVED LONGEST AS CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2047
SSC GD 2047
Q371. WHICH CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA LATER BECAME PRESIDENT OF INDIA?
A. M. HIDAYATULLAH
B. K. SUBBA RAO
C. A.N. RAY
D. P.N. BHAGWATI
ANSWER: A. M. HIDAYATULLAH
EXPLANATION:
JUSTICE MOHAMMAD HIDAYATULLAH LATER SERVED AS ACTING PRESIDENT OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2046
SSC CPO 2047
Q372. WHICH WAS THE FIRST HIGH COURT ESTABLISHED IN INDIA?
A. BOMBAY HIGH COURT
B. MADRAS HIGH COURT
C. CALCUTTA HIGH COURT
D. ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT
ANSWER: C. CALCUTTA HIGH COURT
EXPLANATION:
CALCUTTA HIGH COURT ESTABLISHED IN 1862 WAS FIRST HIGH COURT IN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2047
SSC GD 2047
Q373. IN WHICH YEAR WAS CALCUTTA HIGH COURT ESTABLISHED?
A. 1858
B. 1861
C. 1862
D. 1865
ANSWER: C. 1862
EXPLANATION:
CALCUTTA HIGH COURT WAS ESTABLISHED IN 1862 UNDER INDIAN HIGH COURTS ACT.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2047
SSC CPO 2047
Q374. WHICH IS THE OLDEST HIGH COURT IN INDIA?
A. BOMBAY HIGH COURT
B. MADRAS HIGH COURT
C. ALLAHABAD HIGH COURT
D. CALCUTTA HIGH COURT
ANSWER: D. CALCUTTA HIGH COURT
EXPLANATION:
CALCUTTA HIGH COURT IS THE OLDEST HIGH COURT IN INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2046
SSC MTS 2047
Q375. WHICH HIGH COURT HAS JURISDICTION OVER ANDAMAN AND NICOBAR ISLANDS?
A. MADRAS HIGH COURT
B. CALCUTTA HIGH COURT
C. ANDHRA PRADESH HIGH COURT
D. KERALA HIGH COURT
ANSWER: B. CALCUTTA HIGH COURT
EXPLANATION:
CALCUTTA HIGH COURT EXERCISES JURISDICTION OVER ANDAMAN AND NICOBAR ISLANDS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2047
SSC CPO 2047
Q376. WHICH WAS THE FIRST LOK SABHA CONSTITUTED AFTER INDEPENDENCE?
A. 1947
B. 1950
C. 1952
D. 1955
ANSWER: C. 1952
EXPLANATION:
FIRST LOK SABHA WAS CONSTITUTED AFTER FIRST GENERAL ELECTIONS IN 1952.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2047
SSC GD 2047
Q377. WHO WAS THE FIRST PRIME MINISTER TO ADDRESS PARLIAMENT OF INDEPENDENT INDIA?
A. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
B. LAL BAHADUR SHASTRI
C. SARDAR PATEL
D. RAJENDRA PRASAD
ANSWER: A. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
EXPLANATION:
JAWAHARLAL NEHRU ADDRESSED PARLIAMENT AS FIRST PRIME MINISTER.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2046
SSC CHSL 2047
Q378. WHICH WAS THE FIRST CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT OF INDIA?
A. LAND REFORM AMENDMENT
B. FIRST AMENDMENT ACT, 1951
C. PREVENTIVE DETENTION AMENDMENT
D. NINTH SCHEDULE AMENDMENT
ANSWER: B. FIRST AMENDMENT ACT, 1951
EXPLANATION:
THE FIRST CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT WAS ENACTED IN 1951.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2047
SSC CPO 2047
Q379. WHICH AMENDMENT ADDED NINTH SCHEDULE TO CONSTITUTION?
A. FIRST AMENDMENT
B. SEVENTH AMENDMENT
C. 24TH AMENDMENT
D. 42ND AMENDMENT
ANSWER: A. FIRST AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
FIRST AMENDMENT INSERTED NINTH SCHEDULE TO PROTECT LAND REFORM LAWS.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2046
SSC MTS 2047
Q380. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT INTRODUCED ANTI-DEFECTION LAW?
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 44TH AMENDMENT
C. 52ND AMENDMENT
D. 61ST AMENDMENT
ANSWER: C. 52ND AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
52ND AMENDMENT ADDED TENTH SCHEDULE DEALING WITH DEFECTION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2047
SSC CPO 2047
Q381. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT LOWERED THE VOTING AGE FROM 21 YEARS TO 18 YEARS?
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 44TH AMENDMENT
C. 52ND AMENDMENT
D. 61ST AMENDMENT
ANSWER: D. 61ST AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 61ST CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1988 REDUCED THE VOTING AGE TO 18 YEARS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2048
SSC CHSL 2048
Q382. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ADDED FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES TO THE CONSTITUTION?
A. 24TH AMENDMENT
B. 42ND AMENDMENT
C. 44TH AMENDMENT
D. 52ND AMENDMENT
ANSWER: B. 42ND AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 42ND AMENDMENT ACT, 1976 INSERTED FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES UNDER PART IVA.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2047
SSC MTS 2048
Q383. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT IS KNOWN FOR STRENGTHENING PANCHAYATI RAJ INSTITUTIONS?
A. 52ND AMENDMENT
B. 61ST AMENDMENT
C. 73RD AMENDMENT
D. 74TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER: C. 73RD AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
THE 73RD CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT GAVE CONSTITUTIONAL STATUS TO PANCHAYATS.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2048
SSC CPO 2048
Q384. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT GAVE CONSTITUTIONAL STATUS TO MUNICIPALITIES?
A. 72ND AMENDMENT
B. 73RD AMENDMENT
C. 74TH AMENDMENT
D. 75TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER: C. 74TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
74TH AMENDMENT ACT PROVIDED CONSTITUTIONAL STATUS TO URBAN LOCAL BODIES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2048
SSC GD 2048
Q385. WHICH WAS THE FIRST STATE FORMED ON LINGUISTIC BASIS IN INDEPENDENT INDIA?
A. GUJARAT
B. MAHARASHTRA
C. ANDHRA PRADESH
D. KERALA
ANSWER: C. ANDHRA PRADESH
EXPLANATION:
ANDHRA PRADESH BECAME FIRST LINGUISTIC STATE IN 1953.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2047
SSC CGL 2048
Q386. WHICH COMMISSION RECOMMENDED REORGANIZATION OF STATES ON LINGUISTIC BASIS?
A. SARKARIA COMMISSION
B. FAZL ALI COMMISSION
C. MANDAL COMMISSION
D. PUNCHHI COMMISSION
ANSWER: B. FAZL ALI COMMISSION
EXPLANATION:
STATES REORGANISATION COMMISSION HEADED BY FAZL ALI RECOMMENDED LINGUISTIC REORGANIZATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2048
SSC CHSL 2048
Q387. WHICH WAS THE FIRST UNION TERRITORY OF INDIA?
A. CHANDIGARH
B. DELHI
C. ANDAMAN AND NICOBAR ISLANDS
D. LAKSHADWEEP
ANSWER: C. ANDAMAN AND NICOBAR ISLANDS
EXPLANATION:
ANDAMAN AND NICOBAR ISLANDS BECAME AN EARLY UNION TERRITORY AFTER CONSTITUTION CAME INTO FORCE.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2047
SSC MTS 2048
Q388. WHICH ARTICLE ORIGINALLY PROVIDED SPECIAL STATUS TO JAMMU AND KASHMIR?
A. ARTICLE 356
B. ARTICLE 360
C. ARTICLE 370
D. ARTICLE 371
ANSWER: C. ARTICLE 370
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 370 GRANTED SPECIAL AUTONOMOUS STATUS TO JAMMU AND KASHMIR.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2048
SSC CPO 2048
Q389. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH SPECIAL PROVISIONS FOR CERTAIN STATES?
A. ARTICLE 368
B. ARTICLE 369
C. ARTICLE 370
D. ARTICLE 371
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 371
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 371 CONTAINS SPECIAL PROVISIONS FOR SEVERAL STATES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2048
SSC GD 2048
Q390. WHICH SCHEDULE CONTAINS PROVISIONS REGARDING ANTI-DEFECTION LAW?
A. EIGHTH SCHEDULE
B. NINTH SCHEDULE
C. TENTH SCHEDULE
D. ELEVENTH SCHEDULE
ANSWER: C. TENTH SCHEDULE
EXPLANATION:
TENTH SCHEDULE DEALS WITH ANTI-DEFECTION PROVISIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2047
SSC CGL 2048
Q391. WHICH SCHEDULE CONTAINS RECOGNIZED LANGUAGES OF INDIA?
A. SEVENTH SCHEDULE
B. EIGHTH SCHEDULE
C. NINTH SCHEDULE
D. TENTH SCHEDULE
ANSWER: B. EIGHTH SCHEDULE
EXPLANATION:
EIGHTH SCHEDULE LISTS OFFICIALLY RECOGNIZED LANGUAGES OF INDIA.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2048
SSC CHSL 2048
Q392. HOW MANY LANGUAGES ARE CURRENTLY INCLUDED IN EIGHTH SCHEDULE?
A. 18
B. 20
C. 22
D. 24
ANSWER: C. 22
EXPLANATION:
AT PRESENT, 22 LANGUAGES ARE RECOGNIZED IN THE EIGHTH SCHEDULE.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2047
SSC MTS 2048
Q393. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ADDED KONKANI, MANIPURI, AND NEPALI TO EIGHTH SCHEDULE?
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 52ND AMENDMENT
C. 71ST AMENDMENT
D. 92ND AMENDMENT
ANSWER: C. 71ST AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
71ST AMENDMENT ACT ADDED KONKANI, MANIPURI, AND NEPALI LANGUAGES.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2048
SSC CPO 2048
Q394. WHICH AMENDMENT ADDED BODO, DOGRI, MAITHILI, AND SANTHALI TO EIGHTH SCHEDULE?
A. 86TH AMENDMENT
B. 90TH AMENDMENT
C. 91ST AMENDMENT
D. 92ND AMENDMENT
ANSWER: D. 92ND AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
92ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ADDED FOUR NEW LANGUAGES TO EIGHTH SCHEDULE.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2048
SSC GD 2048
Q395. WHICH ARTICLE EMPOWERS PARLIAMENT TO AMEND THE CONSTITUTION?
A. ARTICLE 352
B. ARTICLE 356
C. ARTICLE 360
D. ARTICLE 368
ANSWER: D. ARTICLE 368
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 368 LAYS DOWN PROCEDURE FOR CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2047
SSC CGL 2048
Q396. WHICH AMENDMENT MADE RIGHT TO EDUCATION A FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT?
A. 84TH AMENDMENT
B. 86TH AMENDMENT
C. 91ST AMENDMENT
D. 93RD AMENDMENT
ANSWER: B. 86TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
86TH AMENDMENT INSERTED ARTICLE 21A REGARDING RIGHT TO EDUCATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CPO 2048
SSC CHSL 2048
Q397. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES RIGHT TO EDUCATION?
A. ARTICLE 20A
B. ARTICLE 21A
C. ARTICLE 22A
D. ARTICLE 23A
ANSWER: B. ARTICLE 21A
EXPLANATION:
ARTICLE 21A GUARANTEES FREE AND COMPULSORY EDUCATION FOR CHILDREN.
ASKED IN:
SSC GD 2047
SSC MTS 2048
Q398. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT INTRODUCED GST?
A. 97TH AMENDMENT
B. 99TH AMENDMENT
C. 101ST AMENDMENT
D. 103RD AMENDMENT
ANSWER: C. 101ST AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
101ST CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT INTRODUCED GOODS AND SERVICES TAX.
ASKED IN:
SSC CGL 2048
SSC CPO 2048
Q399. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT PROVIDED 10% RESERVATION FOR ECONOMICALLY WEAKER SECTIONS?
A. 101ST AMENDMENT
B. 102ND AMENDMENT
C. 103RD AMENDMENT
D. 104TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER: C. 103RD AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
103RD CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT INTRODUCED EWS RESERVATION.
ASKED IN:
SSC CHSL 2048
SSC GD 2048
Q400. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT REMOVED NOMINATION OF ANGLO-INDIANS TO LOK SABHA AND STATE ASSEMBLIES?
A. 101ST AMENDMENT
B. 102ND AMENDMENT
C. 103RD AMENDMENT
D. 104TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER: D. 104TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION:
104TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ENDED ANGLO-INDIAN NOMINATION PROVISIONS.
ASKED IN:
SSC MTS 2047
SSC CPO 2048
SSC TIER-I: GK IMPORTANT AMENDMENTS MCQ ARTICLE
(PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS)
INTRODUCTION
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (GK) AND STATIC GK ARE AMONG THE MOST SCORING SECTIONS IN SSC EXAMINATIONS SUCH AS:
SSC CGL TIER-I
SSC CHSL TIER-I
SSC MTS
SSC GD
SSC CPO
SSC STENOGRAPHER
SSC SELECTION POST
IN RECENT YEARS, SSC HAS FREQUENTLY ASKED QUESTIONS RELATED TO:
CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENTS
IMPORTANT ACTS AND BILLS
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS & DUTIES
PARLIAMENT AND JUDICIARY
INDIAN POLITY
HISTORY AND GEOGRAPHY
SCIENCE AND CURRENT STATIC GK
THIS ARTICLE PROVIDES:
PREVIOUS YEAR SSC GK QUESTIONS
DETAILED EXPLANATIONS
EXAM NAME AND YEAR
REPEATED QUESTIONS WITH MULTIPLE EXAM MENTIONS
IMPORTANT AMENDMENT HIGHLIGHTS BEFORE EACH TOPIC
IMPORTANT AMENDMENTS – HIGHLIGHTS
1. FIRST CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1951
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
ADDED RESTRICTIONS ON FREEDOM OF SPEECH.
INTRODUCED NINTH SCHEDULE.
ADDED PROVISIONS FOR RESERVATION OF SOCIALLY AND EDUCATIONALLY BACKWARD CLASSES.
PROTECTED LAND REFORM LAWS FROM JUDICIAL REVIEW.
IMPORTANT FOR SSC EXAMS
QUESTIONS ARE REPEATEDLY ASKED REGARDING:
NINTH SCHEDULE
FREEDOM OF SPEECH RESTRICTIONS
RESERVATION PROVISIONS
2. 42ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1976
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
KNOWN AS THE “MINI CONSTITUTION”.
ADDED FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES.
ADDED THE WORDS:
SOCIALIST
SECULAR
INTEGRITY TO THE PREAMBLE.
INCREASED POWER OF PARLIAMENT.
ADDED DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES.
MOST IMPORTANT SSC POINTS
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES ADDED BY 42ND AMENDMENT.
MINI CONSTITUTION TERM.
CHANGES IN PREAMBLE.
3. 44TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1978
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
RIGHT TO PROPERTY REMOVED FROM FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
MADE CONSTITUTIONAL/LEGAL RIGHT UNDER ARTICLE 300A.
RESTORED POWERS OF JUDICIARY.
EMERGENCY PROVISIONS MODIFIED.
SSC FOCUS AREAS
RIGHT TO PROPERTY.
EMERGENCY CHANGES.
4. 52ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1985
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
INTRODUCED ANTI-DEFECTION LAW.
ADDED TENTH SCHEDULE.
SSC IMPORTANT POINTS
DEFECTION LAW.
TENTH SCHEDULE.
5. 61ST CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1989
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
REDUCED VOTING AGE FROM 21 YEARS TO 18 YEARS.
SSC IMPORTANT POINT
VOTING AGE QUESTION IS FREQUENTLY REPEATED.
6. 73RD CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1992
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
CONSTITUTIONAL STATUS TO PANCHAYATI RAJ INSTITUTIONS.
ADDED PART IX.
ADDED ELEVENTH SCHEDULE.
RESERVATION FOR WOMEN IN PANCHAYATS.
SSC IMPORTANT POINT
PANCHAYATI RAJ PROVISIONS.
ELEVENTH SCHEDULE.
7. 74TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1992
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
CONSTITUTIONAL STATUS TO URBAN LOCAL BODIES.
ADDED PART IX-A.
ADDED TWELFTH SCHEDULE.
SSC IMPORTANT POINT
MUNICIPALITIES.
TWELFTH SCHEDULE.
8. 86TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 2002
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
RIGHT TO EDUCATION ADDED.
ARTICLE 21A INSERTED.
EDUCATION FOR CHILDREN AGED 6–14 YEARS MADE FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT.
SSC IMPORTANT POINT
ARTICLE 21A.
RIGHT TO EDUCATION.
9. 101ST CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 2016
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
INTRODUCED GST (GOODS AND SERVICES TAX).
CREATED GST COUNCIL.
SSC IMPORTANT POINT
GST COUNCIL.
101ST AMENDMENT.
TOPIC 1 – FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
ADDED BY 42ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1976.
INSPIRED BY USSR CONSTITUTION.
MENTIONED IN PART IVA.
ARTICLE 51A CONTAINS FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES.
Q1. FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES WERE ADDED TO THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION BY WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT?
OPTIONS
A. 24TH AMENDMENT
B. 42ND AMENDMENT
C. 44TH AMENDMENT
D. 52ND AMENDMENT
ANSWER
B. 42ND AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES WERE ADDED IN 1976 THROUGH THE 42ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT DURING THE EMERGENCY PERIOD.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL TIER-I 2017
SSC CHSL TIER-I 2018
SSC GD 2021
Q2. WHICH ARTICLE OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION CONTAINS FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES?
OPTIONS
A. ARTICLE 32
B. ARTICLE 51A
C. ARTICLE 21A
D. ARTICLE 356
ANSWER
B. ARTICLE 51A
EXPLANATION
ARTICLE 51A UNDER PART IVA CONTAINS FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES.
ASKED IN
SSC CPO 2019
SSC MTS 2022
Q3. THE CONCEPT OF FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES IN THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION IS BORROWED FROM WHICH COUNTRY?
OPTIONS
A. USA
B. UK
C. USSR
D. CANADA
ANSWER
C. USSR
EXPLANATION
INDIA BORROWED THE IDEA OF FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES FROM THE CONSTITUTION OF THE FORMER SOVIET UNION (USSR).
ASKED IN
SSC CGL TIER-I 2016
SSC CGL TIER-I 2020
SSC CHSL 2022
TOPIC 2 – RIGHT TO EDUCATION
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
ADDED BY 86TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 2002.
ARTICLE 21A INSERTED.
EDUCATION MADE FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT FOR CHILDREN AGED 6–14 YEARS.
Q4. RIGHT TO EDUCATION WAS INSERTED IN THE CONSTITUTION THROUGH WHICH AMENDMENT?
OPTIONS
A. 44TH AMENDMENT
B. 73RD AMENDMENT
C. 86TH AMENDMENT
D. 101ST AMENDMENT
ANSWER
C. 86TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION
THE 86TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 2002 INSERTED ARTICLE 21A.
ASKED IN
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q5. ARTICLE 21A IS RELATED TO WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?
OPTIONS
A. RIGHT TO EQUALITY
B. RIGHT TO PROPERTY
C. RIGHT TO EDUCATION
D. RIGHT TO FREEDOM
ANSWER
C. RIGHT TO EDUCATION
EXPLANATION
ARTICLE 21A GUARANTEES FREE AND COMPULSORY EDUCATION TO CHILDREN AGED 6–14 YEARS.
ASKED IN
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CPO 2022
TOPIC 3 – PANCHAYATI RAJ
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
CONSTITUTIONAL STATUS THROUGH 73RD AMENDMENT.
PART IX ADDED.
ELEVENTH SCHEDULE ADDED.
GRAM SABHA RECOGNIZED.
RESERVATION FOR WOMEN INTRODUCED.
Q6. PANCHAYATI RAJ INSTITUTIONS RECEIVED CONSTITUTIONAL STATUS THROUGH WHICH AMENDMENT?
OPTIONS
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 44TH AMENDMENT
C. 73RD AMENDMENT
D. 74TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER
C. 73RD AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION
THE 73RD CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1992 PROVIDED CONSTITUTIONAL STATUS TO PANCHAYATI RAJ INSTITUTIONS.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL TIER-I 2018
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q7. WHICH SCHEDULE WAS ADDED BY THE 73RD CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT?
OPTIONS
A. NINTH SCHEDULE
B. TENTH SCHEDULE
C. ELEVENTH SCHEDULE
D. TWELFTH SCHEDULE
ANSWER
C. ELEVENTH SCHEDULE
EXPLANATION
ELEVENTH SCHEDULE CONTAINS POWERS AND FUNCTIONS OF PANCHAYATS.
ASKED IN
SSC MTS 2019
SSC CHSL 2021
TOPIC 4 – MUNICIPALITIES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
CONSTITUTIONAL STATUS THROUGH 74TH AMENDMENT.
PART IX-A ADDED.
TWELFTH SCHEDULE ADDED.
URBAN LOCAL BODIES STRENGTHENED.
Q8. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT IS RELATED TO MUNICIPALITIES?
OPTIONS
A. 52ND AMENDMENT
B. 73RD AMENDMENT
C. 74TH AMENDMENT
D. 86TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER
C. 74TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION
THE 74TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT DEALS WITH URBAN LOCAL BODIES AND MUNICIPALITIES.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2022
Q9. WHICH SCHEDULE WAS ADDED BY THE 74TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT?
OPTIONS
A. TENTH SCHEDULE
B. ELEVENTH SCHEDULE
C. TWELFTH SCHEDULE
D. NINTH SCHEDULE
ANSWER
C. TWELFTH SCHEDULE
EXPLANATION
THE TWELFTH SCHEDULE CONTAINS POWERS AND RESPONSIBILITIES OF MUNICIPALITIES.
ASKED IN
SSC CPO 2020
SSC CHSL 2023
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
INTRODUCED THROUGH 52ND AMENDMENT.
TENTH SCHEDULE ADDED.
PREVENTS POLITICAL DEFECTIONS.
Q10. ANTI-DEFECTION LAW WAS INTRODUCED THROUGH WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT?
OPTIONS
A. 44TH AMENDMENT
B. 52ND AMENDMENT
C. 61ST AMENDMENT
D. 86TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER
B. 52ND AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION
THE 52ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1985 INTRODUCED ANTI-DEFECTION LAW.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2021
Q11. ANTI-DEFECTION LAW IS MENTIONED IN WHICH SCHEDULE OF THE CONSTITUTION?
OPTIONS
A. NINTH SCHEDULE
B. TENTH SCHEDULE
C. ELEVENTH SCHEDULE
D. TWELFTH SCHEDULE
ANSWER
B. TENTH SCHEDULE
EXPLANATION
THE TENTH SCHEDULE CONTAINS PROVISIONS RELATED TO DISQUALIFICATION ON GROUNDS OF DEFECTION.
ASKED IN
SSC MTS 2020
SSC CPO 2022
TOPIC 6 – GST AMENDMENT
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
INTRODUCED THROUGH 101ST CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT.
GST IMPLEMENTED ON 1 JULY 2017.
GST COUNCIL FORMED.
Q12. GST WAS INTRODUCED THROUGH WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT?
OPTIONS
A. 86TH AMENDMENT
B. 91ST AMENDMENT
C. 97TH AMENDMENT
D. 101ST AMENDMENT
ANSWER
D. 101ST AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION
THE 101ST CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT INTRODUCED GOODS AND SERVICES TAX (GST).
ASKED IN
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC CGL 2022
SSC GD 2023
Q13. GST WAS IMPLEMENTED IN INDIA ON WHICH DATE?
OPTIONS
A. 15 AUGUST 2016
B. 26 JANUARY 2017
C. 1 JULY 2017
D. 2 OCTOBER 2017
ANSWER
C. 1 JULY 2017
EXPLANATION
GST CAME INTO EFFECT ON 1 JULY 2017 ACROSS INDIA.
ASKED IN
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CPO 2023
MOST REPEATED SSC GK QUESTIONS FROM AMENDMENTS
| QUESTION TOPIC AMENDMENT ASKED MULTIPLE TIMES IN FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES 42ND AMENDMENT SSC CGL 2017, SSC CHSL 2018, SSC GD 2021 RIGHT TO EDUCATION 86TH AMENDMENT SSC CHSL 2019, SSC GD 2022, SSC CGL 2023 PANCHAYATI RAJ 73RD AMENDMENT SSC CGL 2018, SSC CHSL 2020, SSC GD 2023 MUNICIPALITIES 74TH AMENDMENT SSC CGL 2019, SSC GD 2022 ANTI-DEFECTION LAW 52ND AMENDMENT SSC CGL 2017, SSC CHSL 2019, SSC GD 2021 GST 101ST AMENDMENT SSC CHSL 2020, SSC CGL 2022 |
FINAL REVISION POINTS
IMPORTANT ONE-LINER REVISION
42ND AMENDMENT → FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES.
44TH AMENDMENT → RIGHT TO PROPERTY REMOVED.
52ND AMENDMENT → ANTI-DEFECTION LAW.
61ST AMENDMENT → VOTING AGE REDUCED TO 18 YEARS.
73RD AMENDMENT → PANCHAYATI RAJ.
74TH AMENDMENT → MUNICIPALITIES.
86TH AMENDMENT → RIGHT TO EDUCATION.
101ST AMENDMENT → GST.
TOPIC 7 – RIGHT TO PROPERTY
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
ORIGINALLY A FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT UNDER ARTICLE 31.
REMOVED BY 44TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1978.
MADE A LEGAL/CONSTITUTIONAL RIGHT UNDER ARTICLE 300A.
Q14. RIGHT TO PROPERTY WAS REMOVED FROM FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS BY WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT?
OPTIONS
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 44TH AMENDMENT
C. 52ND AMENDMENT
D. 61ST AMENDMENT
ANSWER
B. 44TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION
THE 44TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1978 REMOVED RIGHT TO PROPERTY FROM THE LIST OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL TIER-I 2016
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC GD 2022
Q15. RIGHT TO PROPERTY IS NOW A ______.
OPTIONS
A. FUNDAMENTAL RIGHT
B. NATURAL RIGHT
C. LEGAL RIGHT
D. HUMAN RIGHT
ANSWER
C. LEGAL RIGHT
EXPLANATION
AFTER THE 44TH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT, RIGHT TO PROPERTY BECAME A LEGAL RIGHT UNDER ARTICLE 300A.
ASKED IN
SSC MTS 2020
SSC CPO 2023
TOPIC 8 – VOTING AGE
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
VOTING AGE REDUCED FROM 21 YEARS TO 18 YEARS.
DONE THROUGH 61ST CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1989.
STRENGTHENED YOUTH PARTICIPATION IN DEMOCRACY.
Q16. THE VOTING AGE IN INDIA WAS REDUCED FROM 21 YEARS TO 18 YEARS BY WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT?
OPTIONS
A. 52ND AMENDMENT
B. 61ST AMENDMENT
C. 73RD AMENDMENT
D. 86TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER
B. 61ST AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION
THE 61ST CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT REDUCED THE VOTING AGE TO 18 YEARS.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q17. BEFORE THE 61ST AMENDMENT, THE VOTING AGE IN INDIA WAS:
OPTIONS
A. 16 YEARS
B. 18 YEARS
C. 20 YEARS
D. 21 YEARS
ANSWER
D. 21 YEARS
EXPLANATION
ORIGINALLY, THE VOTING AGE IN INDIA WAS 21 YEARS BEFORE BEING REDUCED TO 18 YEARS.
ASKED IN
SSC MTS 2021
SSC CPO 2022
TOPIC 9 – MINI CONSTITUTION
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
42ND AMENDMENT IS CALLED THE “MINI CONSTITUTION”.
MOST COMPREHENSIVE AMENDMENT IN INDIAN CONSTITUTION.
ADDED FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES.
ADDED SOCIALIST, SECULAR, INTEGRITY IN PREAMBLE.
Q18. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT IS KNOWN AS THE “MINI CONSTITUTION”?
OPTIONS
A. 24TH AMENDMENT
B. 42ND AMENDMENT
C. 44TH AMENDMENT
D. 52ND AMENDMENT
ANSWER
B. 42ND AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION
THE 42ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT IS CALLED THE MINI CONSTITUTION BECAUSE IT MADE LARGE-SCALE CHANGES.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2015
SSC CHSL 2018
SSC GD 2021
SSC MTS 2023
Q19. WHICH WORDS WERE ADDED TO THE PREAMBLE BY THE 42ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT?
OPTIONS
A. REPUBLIC, JUSTICE, LIBERTY
B. SOCIALIST, SECULAR, INTEGRITY
C. EQUALITY, LIBERTY, FRATERNITY
D. DEMOCRACY, REPUBLIC, SOVEREIGN
ANSWER
B. SOCIALIST, SECULAR, INTEGRITY
EXPLANATION
THESE WORDS WERE INSERTED INTO THE PREAMBLE THROUGH THE 42ND AMENDMENT ACT, 1976.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2019
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC GD 2022
TOPIC 10 – NINTH SCHEDULE
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
ADDED BY FIRST CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1951.
PROTECTS CERTAIN LAWS FROM JUDICIAL REVIEW.
MAINLY RELATED TO LAND REFORMS.
Q20. NINTH SCHEDULE WAS ADDED TO THE CONSTITUTION BY WHICH AMENDMENT?
OPTIONS
A. FIRST AMENDMENT
B. 24TH AMENDMENT
C. 42ND AMENDMENT
D. 44TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER
A. FIRST AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION
THE FIRST CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT, 1951 INSERTED THE NINTH SCHEDULE.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2016
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC GD 2023
Q21. THE NINTH SCHEDULE WAS ADDED MAINLY TO PROTECT WHICH TYPE OF LAWS?
OPTIONS
A. CRIMINAL LAWS
B. TAXATION LAWS
C. LAND REFORM LAWS
D. ENVIRONMENTAL LAWS
ANSWER
C. LAND REFORM LAWS
EXPLANATION
THE NINTH SCHEDULE PROTECTS LAND REFORM LAWS FROM JUDICIAL INTERFERENCE.
ASKED IN
SSC MTS 2022
SSC CPO 2023
TOPIC 11 – EMERGENCY PROVISIONS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
EMERGENCY PROVISIONS ARE BORROWED FROM GERMANY.
NATIONAL EMERGENCY UNDER ARTICLE 352.
44TH AMENDMENT MADE EMERGENCY DECLARATION MORE DIFFICULT.
Q22. NATIONAL EMERGENCY IS MENTIONED IN WHICH ARTICLE OF THE CONSTITUTION?
OPTIONS
A. ARTICLE 32
B. ARTICLE 352
C. ARTICLE 356
D. ARTICLE 360
ANSWER
B. ARTICLE 352
EXPLANATION
ARTICLE 352 DEALS WITH NATIONAL EMERGENCY.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2022
Q23. EMERGENCY PROVISIONS IN THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION ARE BORROWED FROM WHICH COUNTRY?
OPTIONS
A. USA
B. CANADA
C. GERMANY
D. AUSTRALIA
ANSWER
C. GERMANY
EXPLANATION
INDIA BORROWED EMERGENCY PROVISIONS FROM THE WEIMAR CONSTITUTION OF GERMANY.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC MTS 2023
MOST REPEATED SSC QUESTIONS FROM AMENDMENTS AND POLITY
| TOPIC | ASKED IN |
| FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES – 42ND AMENDMENT | SSC CGL 2017, SSC CHSL 2018, SSC GD 2021 |
| RIGHT TO EDUCATION – 86TH AMENDMENT | SSC CHSL 2019, SSC GD 2022, SSC CGL 2023 |
| VOTING AGE – 61ST AMENDMENT | SSC CGL 2017, SSC CHSL 2020, SSC GD 2023 |
| MINI CONSTITUTION – 42ND AMENDMENT | SSC CGL 2015, SSC CHSL 2018, SSC GD 2021 |
| RIGHT TO PROPERTY – 44TH AMENDMENT | SSC CGL 2016, SSC CHSL 2019, SSC GD 2022 |
| NINTH SCHEDULE – FIRST AMENDMENT | SSC CGL 2016, SSC CHSL 2020, SSC GD 2023 |
TOPIC 12 – PRESIDENT OF INDIA
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
ARTICLES 52 TO 62 DEAL WITH PRESIDENT.
PRESIDENT IS THE CONSTITUTIONAL HEAD OF INDIA.
ELECTED INDIRECTLY.
Q24. WHO ELECTS THE PRESIDENT OF INDIA?
OPTIONS
A. PRIME MINISTER
B. PARLIAMENT ONLY
C. ELECTORAL COLLEGE
D. SUPREME COURT
ANSWER
C. ELECTORAL COLLEGE
EXPLANATION
THE PRESIDENT IS ELECTED BY AN ELECTORAL COLLEGE CONSISTING OF ELECTED MPS AND MLAS.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2018
SSC CHSL 2021
Q25. WHICH ARTICLE PROVIDES FOR THE OFFICE OF PRESIDENT OF INDIA?
OPTIONS
A. ARTICLE 32
B. ARTICLE 52
C. ARTICLE 74
D. ARTICLE 356
ANSWER
B. ARTICLE 52
EXPLANATION
ARTICLE 52 STATES THAT THERE SHALL BE A PRESIDENT OF INDIA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 13 – PRIME MINISTER
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
REAL EXECUTIVE AUTHORITY IN INDIA.
HEAD OF COUNCIL OF MINISTERS.
ARTICLE 75 DEALS WITH PRIME MINISTER.
Q26. THE PRIME MINISTER OF INDIA IS APPOINTED BY WHOM?
OPTIONS
A. CHIEF JUSTICE
B. LOK SABHA
C. PRESIDENT
D. PARLIAMENT
ANSWER
C. PRESIDENT
EXPLANATION
THE PRESIDENT APPOINTS THE PRIME MINISTER.
ASKED IN
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC CPO 2022
Q27. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH THE COUNCIL OF MINISTERS?
OPTIONS
A. ARTICLE 74
B. ARTICLE 110
C. ARTICLE 356
D. ARTICLE 368
ANSWER
A. ARTICLE 74
EXPLANATION
ARTICLE 74 PROVIDES FOR A COUNCIL OF MINISTERS HEADED BY THE PRIME MINISTER.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2023
TOPIC 14 – PARLIAMENT
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
PARLIAMENT CONSISTS OF PRESIDENT, LOK SABHA AND RAJYA SABHA.
LOK SABHA IS THE LOWER HOUSE.
RAJYA SABHA IS THE UPPER HOUSE.
Q28. WHICH HOUSE OF PARLIAMENT IS KNOWN AS THE UPPER HOUSE?
OPTIONS
A. LOK SABHA
B. RAJYA SABHA
C. VIDHAN SABHA
D. LEGISLATIVE COUNCIL
ANSWER
B. RAJYA SABHA
EXPLANATION
RAJYA SABHA IS CALLED THE UPPER HOUSE OR COUNCIL OF STATES.
ASKED IN
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
Q29. MAXIMUM STRENGTH OF LOK SABHA IS:
OPTIONS
A. 545
B. 552
C. 500
D. 550
ANSWER
B. 552
EXPLANATION
THE CONSTITUTION FIXES THE MAXIMUM STRENGTH OF LOK SABHA AT 552 MEMBERS.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2017
SSC CHSL 2023
TOPIC 15 – FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
PART III OF CONSTITUTION.
CALLED MAGNA CARTA OF INDIA.
ARTICLES 12 TO 35.
Q30. FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS ARE INCLUDED IN WHICH PART OF THE CONSTITUTION?
OPTIONS
A. PART II
B. PART III
C. PART IV
D. PART V
ANSWER
B. PART III
EXPLANATION
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS ARE CONTAINED IN PART III.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2021
Q31. WHICH ARTICLE IS KNOWN AS THE RIGHT TO CONSTITUTIONAL REMEDIES?
OPTIONS
A. ARTICLE 14
B. ARTICLE 19
C. ARTICLE 21
D. ARTICLE 32
ANSWER
D. ARTICLE 32
EXPLANATION
ARTICLE 32 ALLOWS CITIZENS TO APPROACH SUPREME COURT FOR ENFORCEMENT OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC CPO 2023
TOPIC 16 – DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
PART IV OF CONSTITUTION.
INSPIRED BY IRELAND.
NON-JUSTICIABLE.
Q32. DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES ARE BORROWED FROM WHICH COUNTRY?
OPTIONS
A. USA
B. CANADA
C. IRELAND
D. RUSSIA
ANSWER
C. IRELAND
EXPLANATION
DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES ARE INSPIRED FROM THE IRISH CONSTITUTION.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2022
Q33. DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES ARE MENTIONED IN WHICH PART?
OPTIONS
A. PART III
B. PART IV
C. PART IVA
D. PART V
ANSWER
B. PART IV
EXPLANATION
DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES ARE INCLUDED IN PART IV.
ASKED IN
SSC MTS 2020
SSC CHSL 2021
TOPIC 17 – SUPREME COURT
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
HIGHEST JUDICIAL AUTHORITY.
ESTABLISHED UNDER ARTICLE 124.
GUARDIAN OF CONSTITUTION.
Q34. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH THE ESTABLISHMENT OF SUPREME COURT?
OPTIONS
A. ARTICLE 110
B. ARTICLE 124
C. ARTICLE 214
D. ARTICLE 356
ANSWER
B. ARTICLE 124
EXPLANATION
ARTICLE 124 ESTABLISHES THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2023
SSC CGL 2020
Q35. THE SUPREME COURT OF INDIA IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. MUMBAI
B. KOLKATA
C. CHENNAI
D. NEW DELHI
ANSWER
D. NEW DELHI
EXPLANATION
THE SUPREME COURT IS SITUATED IN NEW DELHI.
ASKED IN
SSC CHSL 2019
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 18 – HIGH COURT
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
HIGHEST COURT IN STATE.
ARTICLE 214 DEALS WITH HIGH COURTS.
Q36. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH HIGH COURTS IN STATES?
OPTIONS
A. ARTICLE 124
B. ARTICLE 214
C. ARTICLE 356
D. ARTICLE 368
ANSWER
B. ARTICLE 214
EXPLANATION
ARTICLE 214 STATES THAT THERE SHALL BE A HIGH COURT FOR EACH STATE.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC GD 2022
Q37. WHO APPOINTS THE CHIEF JUSTICE OF A HIGH COURT?
OPTIONS
A. PRIME MINISTER
B. GOVERNOR
C. PRESIDENT
D. CHIEF JUSTICE OF INDIA
ANSWER
C. PRESIDENT
EXPLANATION
THE PRESIDENT APPOINTS THE CHIEF JUSTICE OF HIGH COURT.
ASKED IN
SSC MTS 2023
SSC CHSL 2022
TOPIC 19 – GOVERNOR
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
CONSTITUTIONAL HEAD OF STATE.
APPOINTED BY PRESIDENT.
ARTICLE 153 DEALS WITH GOVERNOR.
Q38. WHO APPOINTS THE GOVERNOR OF A STATE?
OPTIONS
A. PRIME MINISTER
B. PRESIDENT
C. CHIEF MINISTER
D. PARLIAMENT
ANSWER
B. PRESIDENT
EXPLANATION
GOVERNORS ARE APPOINTED BY THE PRESIDENT OF INDIA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CGL 2022
Q39. WHICH ARTICLE DEALS WITH GOVERNOR?
OPTIONS
A. ARTICLE 123
B. ARTICLE 153
C. ARTICLE 214
D. ARTICLE 356
ANSWER
B. ARTICLE 153
EXPLANATION
ARTICLE 153 PROVIDES FOR THE OFFICE OF GOVERNOR.
ASKED IN
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 20 – MONEY BILL
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
ARTICLE 110 DEFINES MONEY BILL.
CAN BE INTRODUCED ONLY IN LOK SABHA.
SPEAKER DECIDES WHETHER A BILL IS MONEY BILL.
Q40. MONEY BILL CAN BE INTRODUCED IN:
OPTIONS
A. RAJYA SABHA
B. EITHER HOUSE
C. LOK SABHA ONLY
D. JOINT SESSION
ANSWER
C. LOK SABHA ONLY
EXPLANATION
MONEY BILLS CAN ONLY ORIGINATE IN LOK SABHA.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2022
Q41. WHICH ARTICLE DEFINES MONEY BILL?
OPTIONS
A. ARTICLE 108
B. ARTICLE 110
C. ARTICLE 112
D. ARTICLE 123
ANSWER
B. ARTICLE 110
EXPLANATION
ARTICLE 110 DEFINES MONEY BILL.
ASKED IN
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC CPO 2023
TOPIC 21 – UNION BUDGET
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
ANNUAL FINANCIAL STATEMENT.
MENTIONED UNDER ARTICLE 112.
Q42. UNION BUDGET IS MENTIONED IN WHICH ARTICLE?
OPTIONS
A. ARTICLE 110
B. ARTICLE 111
C. ARTICLE 112
D. ARTICLE 123
ANSWER
C. ARTICLE 112
EXPLANATION
ARTICLE 112 DEALS WITH ANNUAL FINANCIAL STATEMENT.
ASKED IN
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2023
Q43. THE UNION BUDGET IS PRESENTED BY:
OPTIONS
A. PRESIDENT
B. FINANCE MINISTER
C. PRIME MINISTER
D. RBI GOVERNOR
ANSWER
B. FINANCE MINISTER
EXPLANATION
THE FINANCE MINISTER PRESENTS THE UNION BUDGET IN PARLIAMENT.
ASKED IN
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC CGL 2022
TOPIC 22 – RBI
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
ESTABLISHED IN 1935.
CENTRAL BANK OF INDIA.
NATIONALIZED IN 1949.
Q44. RBI WAS ESTABLISHED IN WHICH YEAR?
OPTIONS
A. 1930
B. 1935
C. 1947
D. 1949
ANSWER
B. 1935
EXPLANATION
RESERVE BANK OF INDIA WAS ESTABLISHED ON 1 APRIL 1935.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q45. RBI WAS NATIONALIZED IN:
OPTIONS
A. 1947
B. 1948
C. 1949
D. 1950
ANSWER
C. 1949
EXPLANATION
RBI WAS NATIONALIZED ON 1 JANUARY 1949.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 23 – PLANNING AND NITI AAYOG
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
NITI AAYOG REPLACED PLANNING COMMISSION.
FORMED ON 1 JANUARY 2015.
Q46. NITI AAYOG REPLACED WHICH INSTITUTION?
OPTIONS
A. FINANCE COMMISSION
B. ELECTION COMMISSION
C. PLANNING COMMISSION
D. RBI
ANSWER
C. PLANNING COMMISSION
EXPLANATION
NITI AAYOG REPLACED PLANNING COMMISSION IN 2015.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2022
Q47. NITI AAYOG WAS FORMED IN:
OPTIONS
A. 2012
B. 2014
C. 2015
D. 2017
ANSWER
C. 2015
EXPLANATION
NITI AAYOG WAS ESTABLISHED ON 1 JANUARY 2015.
ASKED IN
SSC MTS 2023
SSC CHSL 2022
TOPIC 24 – NATIONAL SYMBOLS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
NATIONAL ANIMAL – TIGER.
NATIONAL BIRD – PEACOCK.
NATIONAL AQUATIC ANIMAL – GANGES DOLPHIN.
Q48. WHAT IS THE NATIONAL AQUATIC ANIMAL OF INDIA?
OPTIONS
A. SHARK
B. WHALE
C. GANGES DOLPHIN
D. CROCODILE
ANSWER
C. GANGES DOLPHIN
EXPLANATION
GANGES RIVER DOLPHIN IS INDIA’S NATIONAL AQUATIC ANIMAL.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2023
Q49. NATIONAL BIRD OF INDIA IS:
OPTIONS
A. SWAN
B. PEACOCK
C. EAGLE
D. SPARROW
ANSWER
B. PEACOCK
EXPLANATION
INDIAN PEACOCK IS THE NATIONAL BIRD OF INDIA.
ASKED IN
SSC MTS 2020
SSC CGL 2022
TOPIC 25 – INDIAN HISTORY
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
ANCIENT, MEDIEVAL AND MODERN HISTORY IMPORTANT.
FREEDOM MOVEMENT FREQUENTLY ASKED.
Q50. WHO GAVE THE SLOGAN “DO OR DIE”?
OPTIONS
A. BHAGAT SINGH
B. MAHATMA GANDHI
C. SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE
D. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU
ANSWER
B. MAHATMA GANDHI
EXPLANATION
THE SLOGAN “DO OR DIE” WAS GIVEN DURING QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2018
SSC GD 2023
Q51. QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT WAS LAUNCHED IN:
OPTIONS
A. 1940
B. 1942
C. 1945
D. 1947
ANSWER
B. 1942
EXPLANATION
QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT WAS LAUNCHED IN AUGUST 1942.
ASKED IN
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 26 – GEOGRAPHY
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
RIVERS, MOUNTAINS AND CLIMATE ARE IMPORTANT.
Q52. WHICH IS THE LONGEST RIVER IN INDIA?
OPTIONS
A. YAMUNA
B. GODAVARI
C. GANGA
D. KRISHNA
ANSWER
C. GANGA
EXPLANATION
GANGA IS THE LONGEST RIVER OF INDIA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
Q53. WHICH IS THE HIGHEST MOUNTAIN PEAK IN INDIA?
OPTIONS
A. KANCHENJUNGA
B. EVEREST
C. NANDA DEVI
D. K2
ANSWER
A. KANCHENJUNGA
EXPLANATION
KANCHENJUNGA IS THE HIGHEST PEAK ENTIRELY IN INDIA.
ASKED IN
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 27 – SCIENCE
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
BIOLOGY, PHYSICS AND CHEMISTRY QUESTIONS ARE COMMON.
Q54. VITAMIN C DEFICIENCY CAUSES:
OPTIONS
A. RICKETS
B. SCURVY
C. BERIBERI
D. NIGHT BLINDNESS
ANSWER
B. SCURVY
EXPLANATION
DEFICIENCY OF VITAMIN C CAUSES SCURVY.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2019
SSC GD 2022
Q55. SI UNIT OF FORCE IS:
OPTIONS
A. JOULE
B. NEWTON
C. PASCAL
D. WATT
ANSWER
B. NEWTON
EXPLANATION
NEWTON IS THE SI UNIT OF FORCE.
ASKED IN
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 28 – COMPUTER GK
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
BASIC COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE FREQUENTLY ASKED.
Q56. CPU STANDS FOR:
OPTIONS
A. CENTRAL PROGRAM UNIT
B. CENTRAL PROCESSING UNIT
C. COMPUTER PROCESSING UNIT
D. CENTRAL POWER UNIT
ANSWER
B. CENTRAL PROCESSING UNIT
EXPLANATION
CPU IS CALLED THE BRAIN OF COMPUTER.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q57. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN INPUT DEVICE?
OPTIONS
A. MONITOR
B. PRINTER
C. KEYBOARD
D. SPEAKER
ANSWER
C. KEYBOARD
EXPLANATION
KEYBOARD IS USED TO INPUT DATA INTO COMPUTER.
ASKED IN
SSC MTS 2020
SSC CGL 2022
TOPIC 29 – SPORTS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
OLYMPICS, CRICKET AND AWARDS IMPORTANT.
Q58. HOW MANY PLAYERS ARE THERE IN A CRICKET TEAM?
OPTIONS
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
ANSWER
C. 11
EXPLANATION
A CRICKET TEAM CONSISTS OF 11 PLAYERS.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q59. OLYMPIC MOTTO IS:
OPTIONS
A. FASTER, HIGHER, STRONGER
B. VICTORY FOREVER
C. PLAY FOR PEACE
D. UNITED BY SPORTS
ANSWER
A. FASTER, HIGHER, STRONGER
EXPLANATION
THE OLYMPIC MOTTO IS “CITIUS, ALTIUS, FORTIUS”.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 30 – IMPORTANT DAYS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
INTERNATIONAL AND NATIONAL DAYS ARE IMPORTANT.
Q60. NATIONAL YOUTH DAY IS CELEBRATED ON:
OPTIONS
A. 12 JANUARY
B. 26 JANUARY
C. 15 AUGUST
D. 2 OCTOBER
ANSWER
A. 12 JANUARY
EXPLANATION
NATIONAL YOUTH DAY MARKS BIRTH ANNIVERSARY OF SWAMI VIVEKANANDA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q61. WORLD ENVIRONMENT DAY IS OBSERVED ON:
OPTIONS
A. 5 JUNE
B. 21 JUNE
C. 1 DECEMBER
D. 8 MARCH
ANSWER
A. 5 JUNE
EXPLANATION
WORLD ENVIRONMENT DAY IS CELEBRATED EVERY YEAR ON 5 JUNE.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 31 – INDIAN ECONOMY
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
INFLATION, GDP AND BANKING IMPORTANT.
Q62. WHICH INSTITUTION ISSUES CURRENCY NOTES IN INDIA?
OPTIONS
A. SBI
B. RBI
C. NABARD
D. SEBI
ANSWER
B. RBI
EXPLANATION
RBI ISSUES CURRENCY NOTES IN INDIA EXCEPT ONE RUPEE NOTE.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q63. FULL FORM OF GDP IS:
OPTIONS
A. GROSS DOMESTIC PRODUCT
B. GENERAL DOMESTIC PRODUCT
C. GROSS DEVELOPMENT PRODUCT
D. GENERAL DEVELOPMENT PRODUCT
ANSWER
A. GROSS DOMESTIC PRODUCT
EXPLANATION
GDP MEANS TOTAL VALUE OF GOODS AND SERVICES PRODUCED.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 32 – ART AND CULTURE
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
CLASSICAL DANCES AND MUSIC IMPORTANT.
Q64. KATHAK IS ASSOCIATED WITH WHICH STATE?
OPTIONS
A. KERALA
B. TAMIL NADU
C. UTTAR PRADESH
D. ASSAM
ANSWER
C. UTTAR PRADESH
EXPLANATION
KATHAK ORIGINATED IN NORTH INDIA ESPECIALLY UTTAR PRADESH.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q65. BHARATANATYAM ORIGINATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. KERALA
B. TAMIL NADU
C. ODISHA
D. PUNJAB
ANSWER
B. TAMIL NADU
EXPLANATION
BHARATANATYAM IS A CLASSICAL DANCE FORM OF TAMIL NADU.
ASKED IN
SSC MTS 2023
SSC CGL 2022
TOPIC 33 – AWARDS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
BHARAT RATNA IS HIGHEST CIVILIAN AWARD.
Q66. HIGHEST CIVILIAN AWARD OF INDIA IS:
OPTIONS
A. PADMA SHRI
B. PADMA BHUSHAN
C. BHARAT RATNA
D. PARAM VIR CHAKRA
ANSWER
C. BHARAT RATNA
EXPLANATION
BHARAT RATNA IS INDIA’S HIGHEST CIVILIAN AWARD.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q67. PARAM VIR CHAKRA IS RELATED TO:
OPTIONS
A. SPORTS
B. LITERATURE
C. MILITARY
D. CINEMA
ANSWER
C. MILITARY
EXPLANATION
PARAM VIR CHAKRA IS INDIA’S HIGHEST WARTIME GALLANTRY AWARD.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 34 – BIOSPHERE RESERVES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
PROTECTED AREAS FOR BIODIVERSITY.
Q68. NILGIRI BIOSPHERE RESERVE IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. RAJASTHAN
B. KERALA-TAMIL NADU-KARNATAKA
C. ASSAM
D. GUJARAT
ANSWER
B. KERALA-TAMIL NADU-KARNATAKA
EXPLANATION
NILGIRI BIOSPHERE RESERVE SPREADS ACROSS THREE SOUTHERN STATES.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CPO 2023
Q69. SUNDARBANS ARE FAMOUS FOR:
OPTIONS
A. CORAL REEFS
B. MANGROVE FORESTS
C. DESERT VEGETATION
D. TEA GARDENS
ANSWER
B. MANGROVE FORESTS
EXPLANATION
SUNDARBANS ARE THE WORLD’S LARGEST MANGROVE FORESTS.
ASKED IN
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 35 – INDIAN STATES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
CAPITALS AND BOUNDARIES FREQUENTLY ASKED.
Q70. CAPITAL OF UTTARAKHAND IS:
OPTIONS
A. NAINITAL
B. DEHRADUN
C. HARIDWAR
D. ALMORA
ANSWER
B. DEHRADUN
EXPLANATION
DEHRADUN IS THE CAPITAL OF UTTARAKHAND.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2023
SSC CHSL 2022
Q71. JAIPUR IS THE CAPITAL OF:
OPTIONS
A. GUJARAT
B. RAJASTHAN
C. HARYANA
D. PUNJAB
ANSWER
B. RAJASTHAN
EXPLANATION
JAIPUR IS THE CAPITAL CITY OF RAJASTHAN.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 36 – UNITED NATIONS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
ESTABLISHED IN 1945.
HEADQUARTERS IN NEW YORK.
Q72. HEADQUARTERS OF UNITED NATIONS IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. GENEVA
B. PARIS
C. NEW YORK
D. LONDON
ANSWER
C. NEW YORK
EXPLANATION
UN HEADQUARTERS IS IN NEW YORK, USA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q73. UNITED NATIONS WAS ESTABLISHED IN:
OPTIONS
A. 1919
B. 1945
C. 1950
D. 1965
ANSWER
B. 1945
EXPLANATION
THE UNITED NATIONS WAS FOUNDED IN 1945.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 37 – SPACE SCIENCE
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
ISRO AND SATELLITES IMPORTANT.
Q74. ISRO HEADQUARTERS IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. MUMBAI
B. BENGALURU
C. HYDERABAD
D. CHENNAI
ANSWER
B. BENGALURU
EXPLANATION
ISRO HEADQUARTERS IS SITUATED IN BENGALURU.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2023
Q75. CHANDRAYAAN-3 IS RELATED TO:
OPTIONS
A. MARS MISSION
B. MOON MISSION
C. SOLAR MISSION
D. MISSILE SYSTEM
ANSWER
B. MOON MISSION
EXPLANATION
CHANDRAYAAN-3 IS INDIA’S LUNAR MISSION.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2024
SSC GD 2024
TOPIC 38 – ENVIRONMENT
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
CLIMATE CHANGE AND POLLUTION IMPORTANT.
Q76. WHICH GAS IS MAINLY RESPONSIBLE FOR GLOBAL WARMING?
OPTIONS
A. OXYGEN
B. NITROGEN
C. CARBON DIOXIDE
D. HYDROGEN
ANSWER
C. CARBON DIOXIDE
EXPLANATION
CARBON DIOXIDE IS THE MAJOR GREENHOUSE GAS.
ASKED IN
SSC CHSL 2021
SSC MTS 2023
Q77. OZONE LAYER PROTECTS US FROM:
OPTIONS
A. INFRARED RAYS
B. ULTRAVIOLET RAYS
C. X-RAYS
D. GAMMA RAYS
ANSWER
B. ULTRAVIOLET RAYS
EXPLANATION
OZONE LAYER ABSORBS HARMFUL ULTRAVIOLET RAYS.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CGL 2023
TOPIC 39 – INVENTIONS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
INVENTORS AND DISCOVERIES FREQUENTLY ASKED.
Q78. TELEPHONE WAS INVENTED BY:
OPTIONS
A. NEWTON
B. GRAHAM BELL
C. EDISON
D. MARCONI
ANSWER
B. GRAHAM BELL
EXPLANATION
ALEXANDER GRAHAM BELL INVENTED THE TELEPHONE.
ASKED IN
SSC MTS 2021
SSC GD 2022
Q79. PENICILLIN WAS DISCOVERED BY:
OPTIONS
A. ALEXANDER FLEMING
B. LOUIS PASTEUR
C. EINSTEIN
D. EDISON
ANSWER
A. ALEXANDER FLEMING
EXPLANATION
PENICILLIN WAS DISCOVERED BY ALEXANDER FLEMING.
ASKED IN
SSC CHSL 2020
SSC CGL 2023
TOPIC 40 – INDIAN CONSTITUTION
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
LONGEST WRITTEN CONSTITUTION.
ADOPTED ON 26 NOVEMBER 1949.
CAME INTO FORCE ON 26 JANUARY 1950.
Q80. INDIAN CONSTITUTION WAS ADOPTED ON:
OPTIONS
A. 15 AUGUST 1947
B. 26 JANUARY 1950
C. 26 NOVEMBER 1949
D. 2 OCTOBER 1948
ANSWER
C. 26 NOVEMBER 1949
EXPLANATION
THE CONSTITUTION WAS ADOPTED ON 26 NOVEMBER 1949.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q81. INDIAN CONSTITUTION CAME INTO FORCE ON:
OPTIONS
A. 26 JANUARY 1950
B. 15 AUGUST 1947
C. 26 NOVEMBER 1949
D. 2 OCTOBER 1950
ANSWER
A. 26 JANUARY 1950
EXPLANATION
THE CONSTITUTION CAME INTO FORCE ON 26 JANUARY 1950.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 41 – FREEDOM MOVEMENT
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
CONGRESS SESSIONS AND MOVEMENTS IMPORTANT.
Q82. WHO FOUNDED THE INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS?
OPTIONS
A. MAHATMA GANDHI
B. A.O. HUME
C. NEHRU
D. TILAK
ANSWER
B. A.O. HUME
EXPLANATION
A.O. HUME FOUNDED INC IN 1885.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q83. JALLIANWALA BAGH MASSACRE TOOK PLACE IN:
OPTIONS
A. 1915
B. 1919
C. 1920
D. 1942
ANSWER
B. 1919
EXPLANATION
THE MASSACRE OCCURRED ON 13 APRIL 1919.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 42 – PHYSICS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
MOTION, ELECTRICITY AND OPTICS IMPORTANT.
Q84. UNIT OF ELECTRIC CURRENT IS:
OPTIONS
A. VOLT
B. AMPERE
C. OHM
D. WATT
ANSWER
B. AMPERE
EXPLANATION
AMPERE IS THE SI UNIT OF ELECTRIC CURRENT.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2023
Q85. SPEED OF LIGHT IS APPROXIMATELY:
OPTIONS
A. 3×10^8 M/S
B. 3×10^6 M/S
C. 3×10^5 KM/S
D. BOTH A AND C
ANSWER
D. BOTH A AND C
EXPLANATION
SPEED OF LIGHT IS APPROXIMATELY 3×10^8 M/S OR 3×10^5 KM/S.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2022
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 43 – CHEMISTRY
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
ACIDS, BASES AND GASES IMPORTANT.
Q86. CHEMICAL FORMULA OF WATER IS:
OPTIONS
A. CO2
B. H2O
C. O2
D. NACL
ANSWER
B. H2O
EXPLANATION
WATER CONTAINS TWO HYDROGEN ATOMS AND ONE OXYGEN ATOM.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q87. PH VALUE LESS THAN 7 INDICATES:
OPTIONS
A. ACIDIC SOLUTION
B. BASIC SOLUTION
C. NEUTRAL SOLUTION
D. SALT SOLUTION
ANSWER
A. ACIDIC SOLUTION
EXPLANATION
SOLUTIONS WITH PH BELOW 7 ARE ACIDIC.
ASKED IN
SSC MTS 2023
SSC CGL 2022
TOPIC 44 – BIOLOGY
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
HUMAN BODY AND DISEASES IMPORTANT.
Q88. LARGEST ORGAN IN HUMAN BODY IS:
OPTIONS
A. LIVER
B. BRAIN
C. SKIN
D. HEART
ANSWER
C. SKIN
EXPLANATION
SKIN IS THE LARGEST ORGAN OF THE HUMAN BODY.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q89. HUMAN HEART HAS HOW MANY CHAMBERS?
OPTIONS
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
ANSWER
C. 4
EXPLANATION
HUMAN HEART HAS FOUR CHAMBERS.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 45 – BOOKS AND AUTHORS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
IMPORTANT LITERARY WORKS OFTEN ASKED.
Q90. WHO WROTE “DISCOVERY OF INDIA”?
OPTIONS
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. TAGORE
D. AMBEDKAR
ANSWER
B. NEHRU
EXPLANATION
THE BOOK WAS WRITTEN BY JAWAHARLAL NEHRU.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2023
Q91. “GEETANJALI” WAS WRITTEN BY:
OPTIONS
A. BANKIM CHANDRA
B. PREMCHAND
C. RABINDRANATH TAGORE
D. GANDHI
ANSWER
C. RABINDRANATH TAGORE
EXPLANATION
GEETANJALI IS A FAMOUS WORK OF RABINDRANATH TAGORE.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 46 – INTERNATIONAL ORGANIZATIONS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
WTO, WHO AND IMF IMPORTANT.
Q92. HEADQUARTERS OF WHO IS IN:
OPTIONS
A. PARIS
B. GENEVA
C. LONDON
D. ROME
ANSWER
B. GENEVA
EXPLANATION
WHO HEADQUARTERS IS LOCATED IN GENEVA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q93. WTO STANDS FOR:
OPTIONS
A. WORLD TRADE ORGANIZATION
B. WORLD TRANSPORT ORGANIZATION
C. WORLD TREATY ORGANIZATION
D. WORLD TOURISM ORGANIZATION
ANSWER
A. WORLD TRADE ORGANIZATION
EXPLANATION
WTO REGULATES INTERNATIONAL TRADE.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 47 – IMPORTANT ARTICLES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
ARTICLES FREQUENTLY REPEATED IN SSC EXAMS.
Q94. ARTICLE 370 WAS RELATED TO:
OPTIONS
A. PUNJAB
B. ASSAM
C. JAMMU AND KASHMIR
D. GOA
ANSWER
C. JAMMU AND KASHMIR
EXPLANATION
ARTICLE 370 GRANTED SPECIAL STATUS TO JAMMU AND KASHMIR.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q95. ARTICLE 21 DEALS WITH:
OPTIONS
A. EQUALITY
B. FREEDOM OF RELIGION
C. PROTECTION OF LIFE AND PERSONAL LIBERTY
D. EDUCATION
ANSWER
C. PROTECTION OF LIFE AND PERSONAL LIBERTY
EXPLANATION
ARTICLE 21 GUARANTEES LIFE AND PERSONAL LIBERTY.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 48 – IMPORTANT COMMISSIONS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
CONSTITUTIONAL AND STATUTORY BODIES IMPORTANT.
Q96. ELECTION COMMISSION IS MENTIONED IN WHICH ARTICLE?
OPTIONS
A. ARTICLE 280
B. ARTICLE 324
C. ARTICLE 356
D. ARTICLE 368
ANSWER
B. ARTICLE 324
EXPLANATION
ARTICLE 324 DEALS WITH ELECTION COMMISSION.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q97. FINANCE COMMISSION IS CONSTITUTED UNDER:
OPTIONS
A. ARTICLE 280
B. ARTICLE 324
C. ARTICLE 356
D. ARTICLE 370
ANSWER
A. ARTICLE 280
EXPLANATION
FINANCE COMMISSION IS ESTABLISHED UNDER ARTICLE 280.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 49 – NATIONAL PARKS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
WILDLIFE CONSERVATION IMPORTANT.
Q98. KAZIRANGA NATIONAL PARK IS FAMOUS FOR:
OPTIONS
A. ASIATIC LION
B. ONE-HORNED RHINOCEROS
C. TIGER
D. ELEPHANT
ANSWER
B. ONE-HORNED RHINOCEROS
EXPLANATION
KAZIRANGA IS FAMOUS FOR ONE-HORNED RHINOCEROS.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q99. JIM CORBETT NATIONAL PARK IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. RAJASTHAN
B. MADHYA PRADESH
C. UTTARAKHAND
D. ASSAM
ANSWER
C. UTTARAKHAND
EXPLANATION
JIM CORBETT NATIONAL PARK IS SITUATED IN UTTARAKHAND.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 50 – INDIAN RIVERS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
ORIGIN AND TRIBUTARIES IMPORTANT.
Q100. WHICH RIVER IS KNOWN AS THE “SORROW OF BIHAR”?
OPTIONS
A. GANGA
B. KOSI
C. YAMUNA
D. GODAVARI
ANSWER
B. KOSI
EXPLANATION
KOSI RIVER CAUSES FREQUENT FLOODS IN BIHAR AND IS CALLED THE SORROW OF BIHAR.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023/
TOPIC 51 – INDIAN DANCES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
CLASSICAL AND FOLK DANCES ARE FREQUENTLY ASKED.
STATES ASSOCIATED WITH DANCES ARE IMPORTANT.
Q101. BIHU DANCE IS ASSOCIATED WITH WHICH STATE?
OPTIONS
A. PUNJAB
B. ASSAM
C. GUJARAT
D. ODISHA
ANSWER
B. ASSAM
EXPLANATION
BIHU IS THE FAMOUS FOLK DANCE OF ASSAM.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q102. GARBA DANCE IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
OPTIONS
A. GUJARAT
B. MAHARASHTRA
C. RAJASTHAN
D. BIHAR
ANSWER
A. GUJARAT
EXPLANATION
GARBA IS A TRADITIONAL FOLK DANCE OF GUJARAT.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 52 – INDIAN MUSIC
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
CLASSICAL MUSIC AND INSTRUMENTS IMPORTANT.
Q103. TABLA IS A:
OPTIONS
A. STRING INSTRUMENT
B. WIND INSTRUMENT
C. PERCUSSION INSTRUMENT
D. ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENT
ANSWER
C. PERCUSSION INSTRUMENT
EXPLANATION
TABLA IS A PERCUSSION MUSICAL INSTRUMENT.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q104. SITAR IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
OPTIONS
A. ZAKIR HUSSAIN
B. RAVI SHANKAR
C. BISMILLAH KHAN
D. HARI PRASAD CHAURASIA
ANSWER
B. RAVI SHANKAR
EXPLANATION
PANDIT RAVI SHANKAR WAS A LEGENDARY SITAR PLAYER.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 53 – IMPORTANT FESTIVALS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
RELIGIOUS AND HARVEST FESTIVALS IMPORTANT.
Q105. PONGAL FESTIVAL IS CELEBRATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. KERALA
B. KARNATAKA
C. TAMIL NADU
D. PUNJAB
ANSWER
C. TAMIL NADU
EXPLANATION
PONGAL IS A HARVEST FESTIVAL CELEBRATED IN TAMIL NADU.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q106. HORNBILL FESTIVAL IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
OPTIONS
A. ASSAM
B. NAGALAND
C. MIZORAM
D. TRIPURA
ANSWER
B. NAGALAND
EXPLANATION
HORNBILL FESTIVAL IS CELEBRATED IN NAGALAND.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 54 – IMPORTANT TEMPLES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
TEMPLE ARCHITECTURE AND LOCATIONS IMPORTANT.
Q107. SUN TEMPLE IS LOCATED AT:
OPTIONS
A. KHAJURAHO
B. KONARK
C. MADURAI
D. HAMPI
ANSWER
B. KONARK
EXPLANATION
KONARK SUN TEMPLE IS LOCATED IN ODISHA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q108. MEENAKSHI TEMPLE IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. CHENNAI
B. MADURAI
C. MYSURU
D. KOCHI
ANSWER
B. MADURAI
EXPLANATION
MEENAKSHI TEMPLE IS SITUATED IN MADURAI, TAMIL NADU.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 55 – MEDIEVAL HISTORY
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
MUGHAL EMPIRE AND DELHI SULTANATE IMPORTANT.
Q109. WHO BUILT THE RED FORT?
OPTIONS
A. AKBAR
B. JAHANGIR
C. SHAH JAHAN
D. AURANGZEB
ANSWER
C. SHAH JAHAN
EXPLANATION
SHAH JAHAN BUILT THE RED FORT IN DELHI.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q110. AKBAR’S REVENUE MINISTER WAS:
OPTIONS
A. BIRBAL
B. TANSEN
C. TODAR MAL
D. ABUL FAZL
ANSWER
C. TODAR MAL
EXPLANATION
RAJA TODAR MAL INTRODUCED REVENUE REFORMS.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 56 – ANCIENT HISTORY
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
MAURYA AND GUPTA EMPIRE IMPORTANT.
Q111. WHO FOUNDED MAURYA EMPIRE?
OPTIONS
A. ASHOKA
B. CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA
C. BIMBISARA
D. HARSHA
ANSWER
B. CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA
EXPLANATION
CHANDRAGUPTA MAURYA FOUNDED THE MAURYAN EMPIRE.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q112. ASHOKA EMBRACED BUDDHISM AFTER:
OPTIONS
A. PANIPAT WAR
B. KALINGA WAR
C. TALIKOTA WAR
D. PLASSEY WAR
ANSWER
B. KALINGA WAR
EXPLANATION
ASHOKA ADOPTED BUDDHISM AFTER THE KALINGA WAR.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 57 – WORLD GEOGRAPHY
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
CONTINENTS AND OCEANS IMPORTANT.
Q113. LARGEST CONTINENT IN THE WORLD IS:
OPTIONS
A. AFRICA
B. EUROPE
C. ASIA
D. AUSTRALIA
ANSWER
C. ASIA
EXPLANATION
ASIA IS THE WORLD’S LARGEST CONTINENT.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q114. LARGEST OCEAN IN THE WORLD IS:
OPTIONS
A. ATLANTIC OCEAN
B. INDIAN OCEAN
C. ARCTIC OCEAN
D. PACIFIC OCEAN
ANSWER
D. PACIFIC OCEAN
EXPLANATION
PACIFIC OCEAN IS THE LARGEST OCEAN.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 58 – AGRICULTURE
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
CROPS AND GREEN REVOLUTION IMPORTANT.
Q115. GREEN REVOLUTION IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
OPTIONS
A. MILK PRODUCTION
B. WHEAT PRODUCTION
C. FISH PRODUCTION
D. TEA PRODUCTION
ANSWER
B. WHEAT PRODUCTION
EXPLANATION
GREEN REVOLUTION INCREASED WHEAT AND FOOD GRAIN PRODUCTION.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q116. FATHER OF GREEN REVOLUTION IN INDIA IS:
OPTIONS
A. M.S. SWAMINATHAN
B. VERGHESE KURIEN
C. HOMI BHABHA
D. VIKRAM SARABHAI
ANSWER
A. M.S. SWAMINATHAN
EXPLANATION
M.S. SWAMINATHAN IS CALLED FATHER OF GREEN REVOLUTION IN INDIA.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 59 – INDIAN RAILWAYS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
LARGEST RAIL NETWORK QUESTIONS COMMON.
Q117. INDIAN RAILWAYS WAS NATIONALIZED IN:
OPTIONS
A. 1947
B. 1950
C. 1951
D. 1955
ANSWER
C. 1951
EXPLANATION
INDIAN RAILWAYS WAS NATIONALIZED IN 1951.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q118. HEADQUARTERS OF INDIAN RAILWAYS IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. MUMBAI
B. KOLKATA
C. CHENNAI
D. NEW DELHI
ANSWER
D. NEW DELHI
EXPLANATION
RAILWAY BOARD HEADQUARTERS IS IN NEW DELHI.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 60 – DEFENCE EXERCISES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
MILITARY EXERCISES AND PARTNER COUNTRIES IMPORTANT.
Q119. EXERCISE MALABAR IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
OPTIONS
A. AIR FORCE
B. NAVY
C. ARMY
D. COAST GUARD
ANSWER
B. NAVY
EXPLANATION
MALABAR IS A NAVAL MILITARY EXERCISE.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2023
SSC CHSL 2024
Q120. EXERCISE YUDH ABHYAS IS CONDUCTED BETWEEN INDIA AND:
OPTIONS
A. RUSSIA
B. CHINA
C. USA
D. JAPAN
ANSWER
C. USA
EXPLANATION
YUDH ABHYAS IS A JOINT MILITARY EXERCISE BETWEEN INDIA AND USA.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2022
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 61 – SPACE MISSIONS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
ISRO MISSIONS IMPORTANT FOR SSC.
Q121. MISSION ADITYA-L1 IS RELATED TO:
OPTIONS
A. MOON
B. MARS
C. SUN
D. VENUS
ANSWER
C. SUN
EXPLANATION
ADITYA-L1 IS INDIA’S SOLAR MISSION.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2024
SSC CHSL 2024
Q122. MANGALYAAN MISSION IS RELATED TO:
OPTIONS
A. MOON
B. MARS
C. SUN
D. JUPITER
ANSWER
B. MARS
EXPLANATION
MANGALYAAN IS INDIA’S MARS ORBITER MISSION.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 62 – IMPORTANT LAKES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
NATURAL AND ARTIFICIAL LAKES IMPORTANT.
Q123. CHILIKA LAKE IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. GUJARAT
B. ODISHA
C. KERALA
D. ASSAM
ANSWER
B. ODISHA
EXPLANATION
CHILIKA IS INDIA’S LARGEST BRACKISH WATER LAKE.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q124. WULAR LAKE IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. UTTARAKHAND
B. HIMACHAL PRADESH
C. JAMMU AND KASHMIR
D. SIKKIM
ANSWER
C. JAMMU AND KASHMIR
EXPLANATION
WULAR LAKE IS ONE OF THE LARGEST FRESHWATER LAKES IN INDIA.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 63 – IMPORTANT PORTS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
MAJOR PORTS AND LOCATIONS IMPORTANT.
Q125. WHICH IS THE LARGEST PORT IN INDIA?
OPTIONS
A. PARADIP
B. MUMBAI PORT
C. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU PORT
D. CHENNAI PORT
ANSWER
C. JAWAHARLAL NEHRU PORT
EXPLANATION
JNPT IS THE LARGEST CONTAINER PORT IN INDIA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q126. PARADIP PORT IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. ODISHA
B. GUJARAT
C. KERALA
D. TAMIL NADU
ANSWER
A. ODISHA
EXPLANATION
PARADIP IS A MAJOR PORT IN ODISHA.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 64 – CENSUS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
POPULATION STATISTICS IMPORTANT.
Q127. CENSUS IN INDIA IS CONDUCTED AFTER EVERY:
OPTIONS
A. 5 YEARS
B. 8 YEARS
C. 10 YEARS
D. 12 YEARS
ANSWER
C. 10 YEARS
EXPLANATION
CENSUS IS CONDUCTED EVERY TEN YEARS.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q128. FIRST COMPLETE CENSUS IN INDIA WAS CONDUCTED IN:
OPTIONS
A. 1872
B. 1881
C. 1901
D. 1911
ANSWER
B. 1881
EXPLANATION
THE FIRST SYNCHRONOUS CENSUS WAS HELD IN 1881.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 65 – NOBEL PRIZE
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
NOBEL LAUREATES IMPORTANT.
Q129. RABINDRANATH TAGORE RECEIVED NOBEL PRIZE FOR:
OPTIONS
A. DISCOVERY OF INDIA
B. GITANJALI
C. ANANDMATH
D. GODAN
ANSWER
B. GITANJALI
EXPLANATION
TAGORE WON NOBEL PRIZE IN LITERATURE FOR GITANJALI.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q130. NOBEL PEACE PRIZE IS AWARDED IN:
OPTIONS
A. SWEDEN
B. SWITZERLAND
C. NORWAY
D. DENMARK
ANSWER
C. NORWAY
EXPLANATION
NOBEL PEACE PRIZE IS AWARDED IN OSLO, NORWAY.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 66 – IMPORTANT TROPHIES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
SPORTS TROPHIES FREQUENTLY ASKED.
Q131. RANJI TROPHY IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
OPTIONS
A. HOCKEY
B. FOOTBALL
C. CRICKET
D. TENNIS
ANSWER
C. CRICKET
EXPLANATION
RANJI TROPHY IS INDIA’S PREMIER DOMESTIC CRICKET TOURNAMENT.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q132. DAVIS CUP IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
OPTIONS
A. FOOTBALL
B. TENNIS
C. CRICKET
D. HOCKEY
ANSWER
B. TENNIS
EXPLANATION
DAVIS CUP IS AN INTERNATIONAL MEN’S TENNIS COMPETITION.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 67 – IMPORTANT LITERARY TERMS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
EPICS AND AUTHORS IMPORTANT.
Q133. AUTHOR OF RAMAYANA IS:
OPTIONS
A. KALIDASA
B. TULSIDAS
C. VALMIKI
D. VED VYAS
ANSWER
C. VALMIKI
EXPLANATION
VALMIKI IS KNOWN AS ADI KAVI AND AUTHOR OF RAMAYANA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q134. MAHABHARATA WAS WRITTEN BY:
OPTIONS
A. KALIDASA
B. VED VYAS
C. BANABHATTA
D. TULSIDAS
ANSWER
B. VED VYAS
EXPLANATION
VED VYAS COMPOSED MAHABHARATA.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 68 – IMPORTANT SCIENTISTS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
INDIAN SCIENTISTS IMPORTANT.
Q135. C.V. RAMAN RECEIVED NOBEL PRIZE IN:
OPTIONS
A. CHEMISTRY
B. MEDICINE
C. PHYSICS
D. LITERATURE
ANSWER
C. PHYSICS
EXPLANATION
C.V. RAMAN WON NOBEL PRIZE FOR RAMAN EFFECT.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q136. HOMI BHABHA IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
OPTIONS
A. SPACE SCIENCE
B. NUCLEAR SCIENCE
C. AGRICULTURE
D. MEDICINE
ANSWER
B. NUCLEAR SCIENCE
EXPLANATION
HOMI BHABHA IS KNOWN AS FATHER OF INDIAN NUCLEAR PROGRAM.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 69 – INDIAN CITIES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
NICKNAMES OF CITIES IMPORTANT.
Q137. MUMBAI IS KNOWN AS:
OPTIONS
A. PINK CITY
B. CITY OF LAKES
C. FINANCIAL CAPITAL OF INDIA
D. TEMPLE CITY
ANSWER
C. FINANCIAL CAPITAL OF INDIA
EXPLANATION
MUMBAI IS INDIA’S FINANCIAL CAPITAL.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q138. JAIPUR IS POPULARLY KNOWN AS:
OPTIONS
A. BLUE CITY
B. PINK CITY
C. WHITE CITY
D. GOLDEN CITY
ANSWER
B. PINK CITY
EXPLANATION
JAIPUR IS CALLED THE PINK CITY.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 70 – IMPORTANT RIVERS OF WORLD
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
LONGEST RIVERS IMPORTANT.
Q139. NILE RIVER FLOWS IN:
OPTIONS
A. EUROPE
B. AFRICA
C. ASIA
D. AUSTRALIA
ANSWER
B. AFRICA
EXPLANATION
NILE IS THE LONGEST RIVER IN AFRICA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q140. AMAZON RIVER IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. AFRICA
B. EUROPE
C. SOUTH AMERICA
D. NORTH AMERICA
ANSWER
C. SOUTH AMERICA
EXPLANATION
AMAZON RIVER FLOWS THROUGH SOUTH AMERICA.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 71 – IMPORTANT CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
UPSC AND CAG IMPORTANT.
Q141. UPSC IS MENTIONED IN WHICH ARTICLE?
OPTIONS
A. ARTICLE 280
B. ARTICLE 315
C. ARTICLE 324
D. ARTICLE 368
ANSWER
B. ARTICLE 315
EXPLANATION
ARTICLE 315 PROVIDES FOR PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSIONS.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q142. CAG STANDS FOR:
OPTIONS
A. COMPTROLLER AND AUDITOR GENERAL
B. CENTRAL AUDIT GENERAL
C. CONTROLLER AUDIT GROUP
D. CENTRAL ACCOUNTS GOVERNOR
ANSWER
A. COMPTROLLER AND AUDITOR GENERAL
EXPLANATION
CAG AUDITS GOVERNMENT ACCOUNTS.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 72 – IMPORTANT MISSILES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
DEFENCE TECHNOLOGY IMPORTANT.
Q143. AGNI MISSILE IS A:
OPTIONS
A. SURFACE TO AIR MISSILE
B. BALLISTIC MISSILE
C. ANTI-TANK MISSILE
D. CRUISE MISSILE
ANSWER
B. BALLISTIC MISSILE
EXPLANATION
AGNI IS A BALLISTIC MISSILE SERIES OF INDIA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q144. BRAHMOS MISSILE IS JOINTLY DEVELOPED BY INDIA AND:
OPTIONS
A. USA
B. RUSSIA
C. FRANCE
D. ISRAEL
ANSWER
B. RUSSIA
EXPLANATION
BRAHMOS IS A JOINT VENTURE BETWEEN INDIA AND RUSSIA.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 73 – IMPORTANT DAYS PART II
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
UN DAYS FREQUENTLY ASKED.
Q145. INTERNATIONAL YOGA DAY IS CELEBRATED ON:
OPTIONS
A. 5 JUNE
B. 21 JUNE
C. 11 JULY
D. 1 DECEMBER
ANSWER
B. 21 JUNE
EXPLANATION
INTERNATIONAL YOGA DAY IS OBSERVED ON 21 JUNE.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q146. NATIONAL SCIENCE DAY IS OBSERVED ON:
OPTIONS
A. 28 FEBRUARY
B. 5 JUNE
C. 14 NOVEMBER
D. 12 JANUARY
ANSWER
A. 28 FEBRUARY
EXPLANATION
NATIONAL SCIENCE DAY MARKS DISCOVERY OF RAMAN EFFECT.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 74 – IMPORTANT BRIDGES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
LONGEST BRIDGES IMPORTANT.
Q147. BHUPEN HAZARIKA SETU IS BUILT OVER:
OPTIONS
A. GANGA
B. BRAHMAPUTRA
C. GODAVARI
D. NARMADA
ANSWER
B. BRAHMAPUTRA
EXPLANATION
DHOLA-SADIYA BRIDGE IS OVER BRAHMAPUTRA RIVER.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q148. HOWRAH BRIDGE IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. MUMBAI
B. KOLKATA
C. DELHI
D. CHENNAI
ANSWER
B. KOLKATA
EXPLANATION
HOWRAH BRIDGE IS A FAMOUS CANTILEVER BRIDGE IN KOLKATA.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 75 – IMPORTANT AIRPORTS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
INTERNATIONAL AIRPORTS AND LOCATIONS IMPORTANT.
Q149. IGI AIRPORT IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. MUMBAI
B. BENGALURU
C. NEW DELHI
D. HYDERABAD
ANSWER
C. NEW DELHI
EXPLANATION
INDIRA GANDHI INTERNATIONAL AIRPORT IS IN DELHI.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q150. CHHATRAPATI SHIVAJI MAHARAJ INTERNATIONAL AIRPORT IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. CHENNAI
B. MUMBAI
C. PUNE
D. JAIPUR
ANSWER
B. MUMBAI
EXPLANATION
THIS AIRPORT IS LOCATED IN MUMBAI.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 76 – IMPORTANT STRAITS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
WATER BODIES AND STRAITS IMPORTANT.
Q151. PALK STRAIT SEPARATES INDIA AND:
OPTIONS
A. MALDIVES
B. INDONESIA
C. SRI LANKA
D. MYANMAR
ANSWER
C. SRI LANKA
EXPLANATION
PALK STRAIT LIES BETWEEN INDIA AND SRI LANKA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q152. BERING STRAIT SEPARATES:
OPTIONS
A. ASIA AND AFRICA
B. ASIA AND NORTH AMERICA
C. EUROPE AND AFRICA
D. EUROPE AND ASIA
ANSWER
B. ASIA AND NORTH AMERICA
EXPLANATION
BERING STRAIT SEPARATES RUSSIA AND ALASKA.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 77 – IMPORTANT DESERTS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
WORLD DESERTS FREQUENTLY ASKED.
Q153. LARGEST HOT DESERT IN THE WORLD IS:
OPTIONS
A. GOBI
B. SAHARA
C. THAR
D. KALAHARI
ANSWER
B. SAHARA
EXPLANATION
SAHARA IS THE LARGEST HOT DESERT.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q154. THAR DESERT IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. GUJARAT
B. RAJASTHAN
C. PUNJAB
D. HARYANA
ANSWER
B. RAJASTHAN
EXPLANATION
THAR DESERT MAINLY LIES IN RAJASTHAN.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 78 – IMPORTANT DAMS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
MULTIPURPOSE RIVER VALLEY PROJECTS IMPORTANT.
Q155. BHAKRA NANGAL DAM IS BUILT ON:
OPTIONS
A. GANGA
B. SUTLEJ
C. YAMUNA
D. GODAVARI
ANSWER
B. SUTLEJ
EXPLANATION
BHAKRA NANGAL DAM IS ON SUTLEJ RIVER.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q156. HIRAKUD DAM IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. ODISHA
B. GUJARAT
C. PUNJAB
D. KARNATAKA
ANSWER
A. ODISHA
EXPLANATION
HIRAKUD DAM IS BUILT ACROSS MAHANADI RIVER IN ODISHA.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 79 – IMPORTANT CURRENCIES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
COUNTRIES AND CURRENCIES IMPORTANT.
Q157. CURRENCY OF JAPAN IS:
OPTIONS
A. YUAN
B. WON
C. YEN
D. DOLLAR
ANSWER
C. YEN
EXPLANATION
JAPANESE CURRENCY IS YEN.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q158. CURRENCY OF UNITED KINGDOM IS:
OPTIONS
A. EURO
B. POUND STERLING
C. DOLLAR
D. FRANC
ANSWER
B. POUND STERLING
EXPLANATION
POUND STERLING IS UK’S CURRENCY.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 80 – IMPORTANT AUTHORS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
BOOKS AND WRITERS REPEATEDLY ASKED.
Q159. “GODAN” WAS WRITTEN BY:
OPTIONS
A. PREMCHAND
B. TAGORE
C. GANDHI
D. NEHRU
ANSWER
A. PREMCHAND
EXPLANATION
GODAN IS A FAMOUS HINDI NOVEL BY PREMCHAND.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q160. “WINGS OF FIRE” IS AUTOBIOGRAPHY OF:
OPTIONS
A. ABDUL KALAM
B. NEHRU
C. GANDHI
D. VIVEKANANDA
ANSWER
A. ABDUL KALAM
EXPLANATION
WINGS OF FIRE IS AUTOBIOGRAPHY OF DR. A.P.J. ABDUL KALAM.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
SYMBOLS AND ELEMENTS IMPORTANT.
Q161. CHEMICAL SYMBOL OF SODIUM IS:
OPTIONS
A. SO
B. SD
C. NA
D. SN
ANSWER
C. NA
EXPLANATION
NA IS SYMBOL OF SODIUM.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q162. CHEMICAL SYMBOL OF GOLD IS:
OPTIONS
A. GO
B. GD
C. AG
D. AU
ANSWER
D. AU
EXPLANATION
AU IS SYMBOL OF GOLD.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 82 – HUMAN BODY
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
ORGANS AND SYSTEMS IMPORTANT.
Q163. LARGEST GLAND IN HUMAN BODY IS:
OPTIONS
A. KIDNEY
B. PANCREAS
C. LIVER
D. THYROID
ANSWER
C. LIVER
EXPLANATION
LIVER IS THE LARGEST GLAND IN HUMAN BODY.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q164. HUMAN BLOOD IS PURIFIED BY:
OPTIONS
A. LIVER
B. KIDNEY
C. HEART
D. LUNGS
ANSWER
B. KIDNEY
EXPLANATION
KIDNEYS FILTER WASTE FROM BLOOD.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 83 – IMPORTANT MOVEMENTS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
REFORM AND FREEDOM MOVEMENTS IMPORTANT.
Q165. SWADESHI MOVEMENT STARTED AFTER:
OPTIONS
A. JALLIANWALA BAGH
B. PARTITION OF BENGAL
C. QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT
D. CHAMPARAN MOVEMENT
ANSWER
B. PARTITION OF BENGAL
EXPLANATION
SWADESHI MOVEMENT BEGAN IN 1905 AFTER PARTITION OF BENGAL.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q166. CHAMPARAN MOVEMENT IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
OPTIONS
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. TILAK
ANSWER
A. GANDHI
EXPLANATION
CHAMPARAN SATYAGRAHA WAS GANDHI’S FIRST MOVEMENT IN INDIA.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 84 – IMPORTANT BUDDHIST TERMS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
BUDDHISM AND JAINISM IMPORTANT.
Q167. FOUNDER OF BUDDHISM WAS:
OPTIONS
A. MAHAVIRA
B. BUDDHA
C. ASHOKA
D. NAGARJUNA
ANSWER
B. BUDDHA
EXPLANATION
GAUTAMA BUDDHA FOUNDED BUDDHISM.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q168. MAHAVIRA WAS THE _____ TIRTHANKARA OF JAINISM.
OPTIONS
A. 21ST
B. 22ND
C. 23RD
D. 24TH
ANSWER
D. 24TH
EXPLANATION
MAHAVIRA WAS THE 24TH TIRTHANKARA.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 85 – IMPORTANT MONUMENTS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
UNESCO HERITAGE MONUMENTS IMPORTANT.
Q169. TAJ MAHAL IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. DELHI
B. JAIPUR
C. AGRA
D. LUCKNOW
ANSWER
C. AGRA
EXPLANATION
TAJ MAHAL IS SITUATED IN AGRA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q170. QUTUB MINAR WAS BUILT BY:
OPTIONS
A. AKBAR
B. QUTUBUDDIN AIBAK
C. SHAH JAHAN
D. ALAUDDIN KHILJI
ANSWER
B. QUTUBUDDIN AIBAK
EXPLANATION
CONSTRUCTION OF QUTUB MINAR WAS STARTED BY QUTUBUDDIN AIBAK.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 86 – IMPORTANT PARLIAMENT TERMS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
PARLIAMENTARY PROCEDURES IMPORTANT.
Q171. JOINT SITTING OF PARLIAMENT IS MENTIONED IN:
OPTIONS
A. ARTICLE 108
B. ARTICLE 110
C. ARTICLE 112
D. ARTICLE 123
ANSWER
A. ARTICLE 108
EXPLANATION
ARTICLE 108 PROVIDES FOR JOINT SITTING.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q172. SPEAKER OF LOK SABHA SUBMITS RESIGNATION TO:
OPTIONS
A. PRESIDENT
B. PRIME MINISTER
C. DEPUTY SPEAKER
D. CHIEF JUSTICE
ANSWER
C. DEPUTY SPEAKER
EXPLANATION
SPEAKER RESIGNS TO DEPUTY SPEAKER.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 87 – IMPORTANT ECONOMIC TERMS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
BANKING AND INFLATION IMPORTANT.
Q173. REPO RATE IS DECIDED BY:
OPTIONS
A. SBI
B. RBI
C. SEBI
D. NABARD
ANSWER
B. RBI
EXPLANATION
RBI FIXES REPO RATE FOR MONETARY POLICY.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q174. INFLATION MEANS:
OPTIONS
A. FALL IN PRICES
B. RISE IN PRICES
C. STABLE PRICES
D. RISE IN PRODUCTION
ANSWER
B. RISE IN PRICES
EXPLANATION
INFLATION REFERS TO CONTINUOUS RISE IN GENERAL PRICE LEVEL.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 88 – IMPORTANT COMPUTER TERMS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
INTERNET AND SOFTWARE BASICS IMPORTANT.
Q175. WWW STANDS FOR:
OPTIONS
A. WORLD WIDE WEB
B. WORLD WEB WINDOW
C. WIDE WORLD WEB
D. WEB WORLD WIDE
ANSWER
A. WORLD WIDE WEB
EXPLANATION
WWW STANDS FOR WORLD WIDE WEB.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q176. BINARY LANGUAGE CONSISTS OF:
OPTIONS
A. 0 AND 1
B. 1 AND 2
C. A AND B
D. X AND Y
ANSWER
A. 0 AND 1
EXPLANATION
COMPUTERS UNDERSTAND BINARY NUMBERS 0 AND 1.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 89 – IMPORTANT SPORTS PERSONS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
SPORTS ACHIEVEMENTS IMPORTANT.
Q177. SACHIN TENDULKAR IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
OPTIONS
A. HOCKEY
B. CRICKET
C. FOOTBALL
D. TENNIS
ANSWER
B. CRICKET
EXPLANATION
SACHIN TENDULKAR IS A LEGENDARY INDIAN CRICKETER.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q178. MAJOR DHYAN CHAND IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
OPTIONS
A. HOCKEY
B. FOOTBALL
C. CRICKET
D. WRESTLING
ANSWER
A. HOCKEY
EXPLANATION
MAJOR DHYAN CHAND WAS A FAMOUS HOCKEY PLAYER.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 90 – IMPORTANT GOVERNMENT SCHEMES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
WELFARE SCHEMES FREQUENTLY ASKED.
Q179. PM JAN DHAN YOJANA IS RELATED TO:
OPTIONS
A. INSURANCE
B. BANKING INCLUSION
C. HOUSING
D. HEALTH
ANSWER
B. BANKING INCLUSION
EXPLANATION
JAN DHAN YOJANA AIMS AT FINANCIAL INCLUSION.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q180. AYUSHMAN BHARAT SCHEME IS RELATED TO:
OPTIONS
A. AGRICULTURE
B. HEALTH
C. EDUCATION
D. EMPLOYMENT
ANSWER
B. HEALTH
EXPLANATION
AYUSHMAN BHARAT PROVIDES HEALTH INSURANCE BENEFITS.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 91 – IMPORTANT MOUNTAIN PASSES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
HIMALAYAN PASSES IMPORTANT.
Q181. NATHU LA PASS IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. UTTARAKHAND
B. SIKKIM
C. HIMACHAL PRADESH
D. ARUNACHAL PRADESH
ANSWER
B. SIKKIM
EXPLANATION
NATHU LA PASS CONNECTS INDIA AND CHINA THROUGH SIKKIM.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q182. ROHTANG PASS IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. UTTARAKHAND
B. JAMMU AND KASHMIR
C. HIMACHAL PRADESH
D. SIKKIM
ANSWER
C. HIMACHAL PRADESH
EXPLANATION
ROHTANG PASS IS IN HIMACHAL PRADESH.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 92 – IMPORTANT SEAS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
MARGINAL SEAS AND LOCATIONS IMPORTANT.
Q183. ARABIAN SEA LIES TO THE _____ OF INDIA.
OPTIONS
A. EAST
B. WEST
C. NORTH
D. SOUTH
ANSWER
B. WEST
EXPLANATION
ARABIAN SEA LIES ON WESTERN SIDE OF INDIA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q184. BAY OF BENGAL LIES TO THE _____ OF INDIA.
OPTIONS
A. EAST
B. WEST
C. NORTH
D. SOUTH
ANSWER
A. EAST
EXPLANATION
BAY OF BENGAL LIES ON EASTERN SIDE OF INDIA.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 93 – IMPORTANT ARTICLES PART II
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
CONSTITUTIONAL ARTICLES ARE HIGHLY REPEATED.
Q185. ARTICLE 356 DEALS WITH:
OPTIONS
A. NATIONAL EMERGENCY
B. PRESIDENT’S RULE
C. FINANCIAL EMERGENCY
D. FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
ANSWER
B. PRESIDENT’S RULE
EXPLANATION
ARTICLE 356 DEALS WITH CONSTITUTIONAL EMERGENCY IN STATES.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q186. FINANCIAL EMERGENCY IS MENTIONED IN:
OPTIONS
A. ARTICLE 352
B. ARTICLE 356
C. ARTICLE 360
D. ARTICLE 370
ANSWER
C. ARTICLE 360
EXPLANATION
ARTICLE 360 DEALS WITH FINANCIAL EMERGENCY.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 94 – IMPORTANT INVENTIONS PART II
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
SCIENTISTS AND INVENTIONS IMPORTANT.
Q187. RADIO WAS INVENTED BY:
OPTIONS
A. NEWTON
B. MARCONI
C. EDISON
D. BELL
ANSWER
B. MARCONI
EXPLANATION
GUGLIELMO MARCONI INVENTED RADIO.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q188. ELECTRIC BULB WAS INVENTED BY:
OPTIONS
A. EINSTEIN
B. BELL
C. EDISON
D. NEWTON
ANSWER
C. EDISON
EXPLANATION
THOMAS EDISON INVENTED ELECTRIC BULB.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 95 – IMPORTANT BOUNDARIES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
INTERNATIONAL BOUNDARIES IMPORTANT.
Q189. RADCLIFFE LINE SEPARATES:
OPTIONS
A. INDIA AND CHINA
B. INDIA AND PAKISTAN
C. INDIA AND NEPAL
D. INDIA AND BANGLADESH
ANSWER
B. INDIA AND PAKISTAN
EXPLANATION
RADCLIFFE LINE WAS DRAWN DURING PARTITION.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q190. DURAND LINE SEPARATES:
OPTIONS
A. INDIA AND PAKISTAN
B. PAKISTAN AND AFGHANISTAN
C. INDIA AND CHINA
D. CHINA AND NEPAL
ANSWER
B. PAKISTAN AND AFGHANISTAN
EXPLANATION
DURAND LINE IS BOUNDARY BETWEEN PAKISTAN AND AFGHANISTAN.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 96 – IMPORTANT ISLANDS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
INDIAN ISLAND GROUPS IMPORTANT.
Q191. LAKSHADWEEP ISLANDS ARE LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. BAY OF BENGAL
B. ARABIAN SEA
C. PACIFIC OCEAN
D. INDIAN OCEAN
ANSWER
B. ARABIAN SEA
EXPLANATION
LAKSHADWEEP LIES IN ARABIAN SEA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q192. ANDAMAN AND NICOBAR ISLANDS ARE LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. ARABIAN SEA
B. BAY OF BENGAL
C. MEDITERRANEAN SEA
D. RED SEA
ANSWER
B. BAY OF BENGAL
EXPLANATION
ANDAMAN AND NICOBAR ISLANDS ARE IN BAY OF BENGAL.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 97 – IMPORTANT TECHNOLOGY TERMS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
DIGITAL TERMS IMPORTANT.
Q193. AI STANDS FOR:
OPTIONS
A. ARTIFICIAL INTERNET
B. ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE
C. AUTOMATED INFORMATION
D. ADVANCED INTERFACE
ANSWER
B. ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE
EXPLANATION
AI MEANS ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2024
SSC CHSL 2024
Q194. 5G IS RELATED TO:
OPTIONS
A. AGRICULTURE
B. BANKING
C. COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY
D. MEDICINE
ANSWER
C. COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY
EXPLANATION
5G IS THE FIFTH GENERATION MOBILE NETWORK TECHNOLOGY.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2023
SSC MTS 2024
TOPIC 98 – IMPORTANT INDIAN PERSONALITIES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
NATIONAL LEADERS AND REFORMERS IMPORTANT.
Q195. “IRON MAN OF INDIA” IS:
OPTIONS
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. SARDAR PATEL
D. BOSE
ANSWER
C. SARDAR PATEL
EXPLANATION
SARDAR VALLABHBHAI PATEL IS KNOWN AS IRON MAN OF INDIA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q196. “NETAJI” TITLE IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
OPTIONS
A. GANDHI
B. BHAGAT SINGH
C. SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE
D. NEHRU
ANSWER
C. SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE
EXPLANATION
SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE WAS POPULARLY KNOWN AS NETAJI.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 99 – IMPORTANT COMMITTEES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
COMMITTEES AND RECOMMENDATIONS IMPORTANT.
Q197. DRAFTING COMMITTEE OF CONSTITUTION WAS CHAIRED BY:
OPTIONS
A. NEHRU
B. RAJENDRA PRASAD
C. B.R. AMBEDKAR
D. PATEL
ANSWER
C. B.R. AMBEDKAR
EXPLANATION
DR. B.R. AMBEDKAR CHAIRED THE DRAFTING COMMITTEE.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q198. SARKARIA COMMISSION IS RELATED TO:
OPTIONS
A. CENTRE-STATE RELATIONS
B. ELECTION REFORMS
C. BANKING REFORMS
D. EDUCATION POLICY
ANSWER
A. CENTRE-STATE RELATIONS
EXPLANATION
SARKARIA COMMISSION REVIEWED CENTRE-STATE RELATIONS.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 100 – MIXED IMPORTANT GK
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
MISCELLANEOUS HIGHLY REPEATED GK.
Q199. NATIONAL ANTHEM OF INDIA WAS WRITTEN BY:
OPTIONS
A. BANKIM CHANDRA
B. TAGORE
C. GANDHI
D. NEHRU
ANSWER
B. TAGORE
EXPLANATION
RABINDRANATH TAGORE WROTE JANA GANA MANA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q200. NATIONAL SONG OF INDIA IS:
OPTIONS
A. SARE JAHAN SE ACHHA
B. JANA GANA MANA
C. VANDE MATARAMTOPIC 101 – INDIAN STATES AND CAPITALS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
STATE CAPITALS ARE FREQUENTLY ASKED IN SSC EXAMS.
RECENTLY CHANGED CAPITALS AND LEGISLATIVE CAPITALS ARE IMPORTANT.
Q201. CAPITAL OF GUJARAT IS:
OPTIONS
A. AHMEDABAD
B. SURAT
C. GANDHINAGAR
D. VADODARA
ANSWER
C. GANDHINAGAR
EXPLANATION
GANDHINAGAR IS THE CAPITAL CITY OF GUJARAT.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q202. CAPITAL OF ODISHA IS:
OPTIONS
A. CUTTACK
B. BHUBANESWAR
C. PURI
D. SAMBALPUR
ANSWER
B. BHUBANESWAR
EXPLANATION
BHUBANESWAR IS THE CAPITAL OF ODISHA.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 102 – BIOSPHERE RESERVES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
UNESCO BIOSPHERE RESERVES ARE IMPORTANT.
Q203. NILGIRI BIOSPHERE RESERVE IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. RAJASTHAN
B. TAMIL NADU-KERALA-KARNATAKA
C. GUJARAT
D. ASSAM
ANSWER
B. TAMIL NADU-KERALA-KARNATAKA
EXPLANATION
NILGIRI BIOSPHERE RESERVE SPREADS ACROSS THREE STATES.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q204. SUNDARBANS BIOSPHERE RESERVE IS FAMOUS FOR:
OPTIONS
A. LIONS
B. ELEPHANTS
C. TIGERS
D. RHINOS
ANSWER
C. TIGERS
EXPLANATION
SUNDARBANS IS FAMOUS FOR ROYAL BENGAL TIGERS.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 103 – INDIAN CLASSICAL LANGUAGES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
CLASSICAL LANGUAGE STATUS QUESTIONS ARE IMPORTANT.
Q205. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A CLASSICAL LANGUAGE OF INDIA?
OPTIONS
A. HINDI
B. MARATHI
C. TAMIL
D. PUNJABI
ANSWER
C. TAMIL
EXPLANATION
TAMIL WAS THE FIRST INDIAN LANGUAGE TO RECEIVE CLASSICAL STATUS.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q206. SANSKRIT BELONGS TO WHICH LANGUAGE FAMILY?
OPTIONS
A. DRAVIDIAN
B. INDO-ARYAN
C. TIBETO-BURMAN
D. AUSTROASIATIC
ANSWER
B. INDO-ARYAN
EXPLANATION
SANSKRIT BELONGS TO INDO-ARYAN LANGUAGE FAMILY.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 104 – IMPORTANT WATERFALLS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
LOCATION-BASED WATERFALL QUESTIONS ARE COMMON.
Q207. JOG FALLS IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. KERALA
B. KARNATAKA
C. ODISHA
D. MAHARASHTRA
ANSWER
B. KARNATAKA
EXPLANATION
JOG FALLS IS LOCATED ON SHARAVATHI RIVER IN KARNATAKA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q208. DUDHSAGAR FALLS IS SITUATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. GOA
B. PUNJAB
C. RAJASTHAN
D. BIHAR
ANSWER
A. GOA
EXPLANATION
DUDHSAGAR FALLS IS LOCATED IN GOA.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 105 – IMPORTANT SUPERLATIVES OF INDIA
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
LARGEST, LONGEST AND HIGHEST FACTS ARE REPEATEDLY ASKED.
Q209. LARGEST STATE OF INDIA BY AREA IS:
OPTIONS
A. UTTAR PRADESH
B. MADHYA PRADESH
C. MAHARASHTRA
D. RAJASTHAN
ANSWER
D. RAJASTHAN
EXPLANATION
RAJASTHAN IS THE LARGEST INDIAN STATE BY AREA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q210. LONGEST RIVER IN INDIA IS:
OPTIONS
A. YAMUNA
B. GODAVARI
C. GANGA
D. NARMADA
ANSWER
C. GANGA
EXPLANATION
GANGA IS THE LONGEST RIVER IN INDIA.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 106 – IMPORTANT UNITED NATIONS AGENCIES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
HEADQUARTERS OF UN AGENCIES ARE IMPORTANT.
Q211. HEADQUARTERS OF UNESCO IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. GENEVA
B. PARIS
C. ROME
D. VIENNA
ANSWER
B. PARIS
EXPLANATION
UNESCO HEADQUARTERS IS IN PARIS.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q212. WHO HEADQUARTERS IS SITUATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. GENEVA
B. NEW YORK
C. PARIS
D. LONDON
ANSWER
A. GENEVA
EXPLANATION
WORLD HEALTH ORGANIZATION HEADQUARTERS IS IN GENEVA.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 107 – IMPORTANT CUPS AND TROPHIES PART II
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
SPORTS CUPS ARE REPEATEDLY ASKED.
Q213. SANTOSH TROPHY IS RELATED TO:
OPTIONS
A. CRICKET
B. FOOTBALL
C. HOCKEY
D. TENNIS
ANSWER
B. FOOTBALL
EXPLANATION
SANTOSH TROPHY IS INDIA’S NATIONAL FOOTBALL CHAMPIONSHIP.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q214. THOMAS CUP IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
OPTIONS
A. CHESS
B. TENNIS
C. BADMINTON
D. HOCKEY
ANSWER
C. BADMINTON
EXPLANATION
THOMAS CUP IS AN INTERNATIONAL BADMINTON CHAMPIONSHIP.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 108 – IMPORTANT SCIENTIFIC INSTRUMENTS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
INSTRUMENT AND USES ARE IMPORTANT.
Q215. THERMOMETER MEASURES:
OPTIONS
A. PRESSURE
B. HEAT
C. TEMPERATURE
D. SPEED
ANSWER
C. TEMPERATURE
EXPLANATION
THERMOMETER IS USED TO MEASURE TEMPERATURE.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q216. BAROMETER MEASURES:
OPTIONS
A. RAINFALL
B. WIND SPEED
C. TEMPERATURE
D. ATMOSPHERIC PRESSURE
ANSWER
D. ATMOSPHERIC PRESSURE
EXPLANATION
BAROMETER MEASURES ATMOSPHERIC PRESSURE.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 109 – IMPORTANT VITAMINS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
DEFICIENCY DISEASES ARE IMPORTANT.
Q217. DEFICIENCY OF VITAMIN C CAUSES:
OPTIONS
A. RICKETS
B. SCURVY
C. BERIBERI
D. NIGHT BLINDNESS
ANSWER
B. SCURVY
EXPLANATION
SCURVY IS CAUSED DUE TO DEFICIENCY OF VITAMIN C.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q218. VITAMIN D DEFICIENCY CAUSES:
OPTIONS
A. SCURVY
B. RICKETS
C. ANEMIA
D. GOITRE
ANSWER
B. RICKETS
EXPLANATION
RICKETS OCCURS DUE TO DEFICIENCY OF VITAMIN D.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 110 – IMPORTANT DISEASES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
DISEASES AND CAUSES FREQUENTLY ASKED.
Q219. MALARIA IS CAUSED BY:
OPTIONS
A. VIRUS
B. FUNGUS
C. PROTOZOA
D. BACTERIA
ANSWER
C. PROTOZOA
EXPLANATION
MALARIA IS CAUSED BY PLASMODIUM PROTOZOA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q220. TUBERCULOSIS MAINLY AFFECTS:
OPTIONS
A. BRAIN
B. LUNGS
C. KIDNEY
D. HEART
ANSWER
B. LUNGS
EXPLANATION
TUBERCULOSIS PRIMARILY AFFECTS LUNGS.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 111 – IMPORTANT REVOLUTIONS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
AGRICULTURAL REVOLUTIONS ARE IMPORTANT.
Q221. WHITE REVOLUTION IS RELATED TO:
OPTIONS
A. WHEAT
B. MILK
C. FISH
D. OILSEEDS
ANSWER
B. MILK
EXPLANATION
WHITE REVOLUTION INCREASED MILK PRODUCTION.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q222. BLUE REVOLUTION IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
OPTIONS
A. FISHERIES
B. MILK
C. PETROLEUM
D. WHEAT
ANSWER
A. FISHERIES
EXPLANATION
BLUE REVOLUTION RELATES TO FISH PRODUCTION.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 112 – IMPORTANT INDIAN NEWSPAPERS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
FOUNDERS AND NEWSPAPERS ARE IMPORTANT.
Q223. “KESARI” NEWSPAPER WAS STARTED BY:
OPTIONS
A. GANDHI
B. TILAK
C. NEHRU
D. BOSE
ANSWER
B. TILAK
EXPLANATION
BAL GANGADHAR TILAK STARTED KESARI NEWSPAPER.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q224. “YOUNG INDIA” WAS PUBLISHED BY:
OPTIONS
A. NEHRU
B. GANDHI
C. AMBEDKAR
D. PATEL
ANSWER
B. GANDHI
EXPLANATION
MAHATMA GANDHI PUBLISHED YOUNG INDIA.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 113 – IMPORTANT NATIONAL PARKS PART II
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
LOCATION-BASED PARK QUESTIONS REPEATED FREQUENTLY.
Q225. KAZIRANGA NATIONAL PARK IS FAMOUS FOR:
OPTIONS
A. LION
B. TIGER
C. ONE-HORNED RHINOCEROS
D. ELEPHANT
ANSWER
C. ONE-HORNED RHINOCEROS
EXPLANATION
KAZIRANGA IS FAMOUS FOR ONE-HORNED RHINOCEROS.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q226. JIM CORBETT NATIONAL PARK IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. UTTARAKHAND
B. RAJASTHAN
C. MADHYA PRADESH
D. GUJARAT
ANSWER
A. UTTARAKHAND
EXPLANATION
JIM CORBETT NATIONAL PARK IS IN UTTARAKHAND.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 114 – IMPORTANT INDIAN MISSIONS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
CHANDRAYAAN AND GAGANYAAN IMPORTANT.
Q227. CHANDRAYAAN MISSION IS RELATED TO:
OPTIONS
A. MARS
B. MOON
C. SUN
D. JUPITER
ANSWER
B. MOON
EXPLANATION
CHANDRAYAAN IS INDIA’S LUNAR MISSION.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2023
SSC CHSL 2024
Q228. GAGANYAAN MISSION IS RELATED TO:
OPTIONS
A. HUMAN SPACEFLIGHT
B. MOON LANDING
C. SOLAR STUDY
D. MARS STUDY
ANSWER
A. HUMAN SPACEFLIGHT
EXPLANATION
GAGANYAAN IS INDIA’S HUMAN SPACE MISSION.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2023
SSC MTS 2024
TOPIC 115 – IMPORTANT ARTICLES PART III
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
DPSP AND FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES IMPORTANT.
Q229. FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES ARE INCLUDED IN:
OPTIONS
A. PART III
B. PART IV
C. PART IVA
D. PART V
ANSWER
C. PART IVA
EXPLANATION
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES ARE INCLUDED IN PART IVA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q230. DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES ARE INCLUDED IN:
OPTIONS
A. PART III
B. PART IV
C. PART V
D. PART VI
ANSWER
B. PART IV
EXPLANATION
DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES ARE MENTIONED IN PART IV.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 116 – IMPORTANT SOILS OF INDIA
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
SOIL TYPES AND CROPS IMPORTANT.
Q231. BLACK SOIL IS IDEAL FOR CULTIVATION OF:
OPTIONS
A. TEA
B. COTTON
C. RICE
D. JUTE
ANSWER
B. COTTON
EXPLANATION
BLACK SOIL IS SUITABLE FOR COTTON CULTIVATION.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q232. RED SOIL IS RICH IN:
OPTIONS
A. IRON
B. NITROGEN
C. HUMUS
D. POTASH
ANSWER
A. IRON
EXPLANATION
RED SOIL CONTAINS IRON OXIDE.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 117 – IMPORTANT WINDS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
LOCAL AND PLANETARY WINDS IMPORTANT.
Q233. MONSOON WINDS IN INDIA ARE:
OPTIONS
A. SEASONAL WINDS
B. PERMANENT WINDS
C. LOCAL WINDS
D. POLAR WINDS
ANSWER
A. SEASONAL WINDS
EXPLANATION
MONSOON WINDS CHANGE DIRECTION SEASONALLY.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q234. LOO WINDS BLOW DURING SUMMER IN:
OPTIONS
A. NORTHERN PLAINS
B. COASTAL AREAS
C. HIMALAYAS
D. ISLANDS
ANSWER
A. NORTHERN PLAINS
EXPLANATION
LOO IS A HOT DRY WIND IN NORTH INDIA.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 118 – IMPORTANT FESTIVALS PART II
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
TRIBAL AND HARVEST FESTIVALS IMPORTANT.
Q235. ONAM FESTIVAL IS CELEBRATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. KERALA
B. TAMIL NADU
C. KARNATAKA
D. ANDHRA PRADESH
ANSWER
A. KERALA
EXPLANATION
ONAM IS A HARVEST FESTIVAL OF KERALA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q236. LOHRI FESTIVAL IS MAINLY CELEBRATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. PUNJAB
B. ODISHA
C. BIHAR
D. GUJARAT
ANSWER
A. PUNJAB
EXPLANATION
LOHRI IS A POPULAR WINTER FESTIVAL IN PUNJAB.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 119 – IMPORTANT FOLK DANCES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
STATE AND DANCE ASSOCIATION IMPORTANT.
Q237. GHOOMAR DANCE BELONGS TO:
OPTIONS
A. GUJARAT
B. RAJASTHAN
C. PUNJAB
D. HARYANA
ANSWER
B. RAJASTHAN
EXPLANATION
GHOOMAR IS A TRADITIONAL DANCE OF RAJASTHAN.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q238. BHANGRA DANCE IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
OPTIONS
A. PUNJAB
B. ASSAM
C. KERALA
D. MAHARASHTRA
ANSWER
A. PUNJAB
EXPLANATION
BHANGRA IS A FOLK DANCE OF PUNJAB.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 120 – IMPORTANT PHYSICS TERMS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
BASIC PHYSICS DEFINITIONS IMPORTANT.
Q239. SI UNIT OF FORCE IS:
OPTIONS
A. JOULE
B. NEWTON
C. PASCAL
D. WATT
ANSWER
B. NEWTON
EXPLANATION
NEWTON IS SI UNIT OF FORCE.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q240. SI UNIT OF POWER IS:
OPTIONS
A. WATT
B. VOLT
C. AMPERE
D. NEWTON
ANSWER
A. WATT
EXPLANATION
WATT IS SI UNIT OF POWER.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 121 – IMPORTANT CHEMISTRY TERMS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
ACIDS AND BASES ARE IMPORTANT.
Q241. PH VALUE LESS THAN 7 INDICATES:
OPTIONS
A. BASE
B. NEUTRAL
C. ACID
D. SALT
ANSWER
C. ACID
EXPLANATION
ACIDIC SOLUTIONS HAVE PH LESS THAN 7.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q242. COMMON SALT CHEMICAL FORMULA IS:
OPTIONS
A. KCL
B. NACL
C. HCL
D. CACO3
ANSWER
B. NACL
EXPLANATION
COMMON SALT IS SODIUM CHLORIDE.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 122 – IMPORTANT BIOLOGY TERMS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
CELL AND ORGANELLES IMPORTANT.
Q243. POWERHOUSE OF CELL IS:
OPTIONS
A. NUCLEUS
B. RIBOSOME
C. MITOCHONDRIA
D. CYTOPLASM
ANSWER
C. MITOCHONDRIA
EXPLANATION
MITOCHONDRIA PRODUCE CELLULAR ENERGY.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q244. STUDY OF PLANTS IS CALLED:
OPTIONS
A. ZOOLOGY
B. BOTANY
C. BIOLOGY
D. ANATOMY
ANSWER
B. BOTANY
EXPLANATION
BOTANY IS THE BRANCH DEALING WITH PLANTS.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 123 – IMPORTANT FREEDOM FIGHTERS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
SLOGANS AND MOVEMENTS IMPORTANT.
Q245. “GIVE ME BLOOD AND I WILL GIVE YOU FREEDOM” WAS SAID BY:
OPTIONS
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. BOSE
D. PATEL
ANSWER
C. BOSE
EXPLANATION
THIS SLOGAN WAS GIVEN BY SUBHAS CHANDRA BOSE.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q246. “DO OR DIE” SLOGAN WAS GIVEN DURING:
OPTIONS
A. NON-COOPERATION MOVEMENT
B. CIVIL DISOBEDIENCE MOVEMENT
C. QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT
D. SWADESHI MOVEMENT
ANSWER
C. QUIT INDIA MOVEMENT
EXPLANATION
GANDHI GAVE “DO OR DIE” SLOGAN IN 1942.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 124 – IMPORTANT BOOKS AND AUTHORS PART II
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
LITERARY WORKS AND AUTHORS IMPORTANT.
Q247. “DISCOVERY OF INDIA” WAS WRITTEN BY:
OPTIONS
A. GANDHI
B. NEHRU
C. TAGORE
D. AMBEDKAR
ANSWER
B. NEHRU
EXPLANATION
JAWAHARLAL NEHRU WROTE DISCOVERY OF INDIA.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q248. “ANANDMATH” WAS WRITTEN BY:
OPTIONS
A. PREMCHAND
B. BANKIM CHANDRA CHATTOPADHYAY
C. TAGORE
D. GANDHI
ANSWER
B. BANKIM CHANDRA CHATTOPADHYAY
EXPLANATION
ANANDMATH CONTAINS THE SONG VANDE MATARAM.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
TOPIC 125 – IMPORTANT WORLD ORGANIZATIONS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
HEADQUARTERS AND FUNCTIONS IMPORTANT.
Q249. IMF HEADQUARTERS IS LOCATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. GENEVA
B. PARIS
C. WASHINGTON D.C.
D. NEW YORK
ANSWER
C. WASHINGTON D.C.
EXPLANATION
IMF HEADQUARTERS IS IN WASHINGTON D.C.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q250. WTO HEADQUARTERS IS SITUATED IN:
OPTIONS
A. GENEVA
B. ROME
C. PARIS
D. VIENNA
ANSWER
A. GENEVA
EXPLANATION
WORLD TRADE ORGANIZATION HEADQUARTERS IS IN GENEVA.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
D. AE MERE WATAN
ANSWER
C. VANDE MATARAM
EXPLANATION
VANDE MATARAM IS THE NATIONAL SONG OF INDIA.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
TOPIC 126 – IMPORTANT CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENTS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENTS ARE HIGHLY REPEATED IN SSC EXAMS.
AMENDMENT NUMBERS, PROVISIONS AND YEARS ARE IMPORTANT.
Q251. WHICH CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT IS KNOWN AS THE “MINI CONSTITUTION”?
OPTIONS
A. 24TH AMENDMENT
B. 42ND AMENDMENT
C. 44TH AMENDMENT
D. 52ND AMENDMENT
ANSWER
B. 42ND AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION
42ND AMENDMENT ACT, 1976 IS CALLED MINI CONSTITUTION BECAUSE IT MADE LARGE-SCALE CHANGES.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
SSC GD 2024
Q252. FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES WERE ADDED BY:
OPTIONS
A. 44TH AMENDMENT
B. 61ST AMENDMENT
C. 42ND AMENDMENT
D. 73RD AMENDMENT
ANSWER
C. 42ND AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES WERE INSERTED BY 42ND CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
Q253. RIGHT TO PROPERTY WAS REMOVED FROM FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS BY:
OPTIONS
A. 42ND AMENDMENT
B. 44TH AMENDMENT
C. 52ND AMENDMENT
D. 86TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER
B. 44TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION
44TH AMENDMENT REMOVED RIGHT TO PROPERTY FROM FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q254. ANTI-DEFECTION LAW WAS ADDED BY:
OPTIONS
A. 44TH AMENDMENT
B. 52ND AMENDMENT
C. 73RD AMENDMENT
D. 101ST AMENDMENT
ANSWER
B. 52ND AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION
52ND AMENDMENT ADDED ANTI-DEFECTION PROVISIONS IN TENTH SCHEDULE.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC MTS 2023
Q255. VOTING AGE WAS REDUCED FROM 21 TO 18 YEARS BY:
OPTIONS
A. 44TH AMENDMENT
B. 61ST AMENDMENT
C. 73RD AMENDMENT
D. 86TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER
B. 61ST AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION
61ST AMENDMENT REDUCED VOTING AGE TO 18 YEARS.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q256. PANCHAYATI RAJ INSTITUTIONS RECEIVED CONSTITUTIONAL STATUS THROUGH:
OPTIONS
A. 52ND AMENDMENT
B. 73RD AMENDMENT
C. 74TH AMENDMENT
D. 86TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER
B. 73RD AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION
73RD AMENDMENT PROVIDED CONSTITUTIONAL STATUS TO PANCHAYATS.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q257. MUNICIPALITIES RECEIVED CONSTITUTIONAL STATUS THROUGH:
OPTIONS
A. 73RD AMENDMENT
B. 74TH AMENDMENT
C. 86TH AMENDMENT
D. 101ST AMENDMENT
ANSWER
B. 74TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION
74TH AMENDMENT DEALS WITH URBAN LOCAL BODIES.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2023
SSC CHSL 2024
Q258. RIGHT TO EDUCATION WAS ADDED BY:
OPTIONS
A. 73RD AMENDMENT
B. 86TH AMENDMENT
C. 101ST AMENDMENT
D. 103RD AMENDMENT
ANSWER
B. 86TH AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION
86TH AMENDMENT INSERTED ARTICLE 21A.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC MTS 2022
Q259. GST WAS INTRODUCED THROUGH:
OPTIONS
A. 97TH AMENDMENT
B. 99TH AMENDMENT
C. 101ST AMENDMENT
D. 103RD AMENDMENT
ANSWER
C. 101ST AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION
101ST AMENDMENT INTRODUCED GOODS AND SERVICES TAX.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q260. EWS RESERVATION WAS INTRODUCED BY:
OPTIONS
A. 101ST AMENDMENT
B. 102ND AMENDMENT
C. 103RD AMENDMENT
D. 104TH AMENDMENT
ANSWER
C. 103RD AMENDMENT
EXPLANATION
103RD AMENDMENT INTRODUCED 10% EWS RESERVATION.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2023
SSC MTS 2024
TOPIC 127 – IMPORTANT COMMITTEES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
COMMITTEES AND THEIR RECOMMENDATIONS ARE IMPORTANT.
Q261. BALWANT RAI MEHTA COMMITTEE IS RELATED TO:
OPTIONS
A. BANKING REFORMS
B. PANCHAYATI RAJ
C. EDUCATION
D. JUDICIARY
ANSWER
B. PANCHAYATI RAJ
EXPLANATION
BALWANT RAI MEHTA COMMITTEE RECOMMENDED PANCHAYATI RAJ SYSTEM.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC CHSL 2022
Q262. ASHOK MEHTA COMMITTEE IS ASSOCIATED WITH:
OPTIONS
A. PANCHAYATI RAJ
B. ELECTION REFORMS
C. GST
D. EDUCATION
ANSWER
A. PANCHAYATI RAJ
EXPLANATION
ASHOK MEHTA COMMITTEE RECOMMENDED TWO-TIER PANCHAYATI RAJ.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q263. MANDAL COMMISSION WAS RELATED TO:
OPTIONS
A. SC RESERVATION
B. OBC RESERVATION
C. GST
D. JUDICIARY
ANSWER
B. OBC RESERVATION
EXPLANATION
MANDAL COMMISSION RECOMMENDED RESERVATION FOR OBCS.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC CHSL 2023
Q264. PUNCHHI COMMISSION IS RELATED TO:
OPTIONS
A. CENTRE-STATE RELATIONS
B. BANKING
C. PLANNING
D. CENSUS
ANSWER
A. CENTRE-STATE RELATIONS
EXPLANATION
PUNCHHI COMMISSION EXAMINED CENTRE-STATE RELATIONS.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2023
SSC MTS 2024
TOPIC 128 – IMPORTANT BATTLES
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
ANCIENT AND MEDIEVAL BATTLES ARE REPEATEDLY ASKED.
Q265. FIRST BATTLE OF PANIPAT WAS FOUGHT IN:
OPTIONS
A. 1526
B. 1556
C. 1761
D. 1757
ANSWER
A. 1526
EXPLANATION
BABUR DEFEATED IBRAHIM LODI IN FIRST BATTLE OF PANIPAT.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q266. SECOND BATTLE OF PANIPAT WAS FOUGHT BETWEEN AKBAR AND:
OPTIONS
A. RANA SANGA
B. HEMU
C. SHER SHAH
D. DAULAT KHAN
ANSWER
B. HEMU
EXPLANATION
AKBAR DEFEATED HEMU IN 1556.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2021
SSC MTS 2022
Q267. THIRD BATTLE OF PANIPAT WAS FOUGHT IN:
OPTIONS
A. 1526
B. 1556
C. 1761
D. 1857
ANSWER
C. 1761
EXPLANATION
MARATHAS FOUGHT AHMAD SHAH ABDALI IN 1761.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2020
SSC CHSL 2022
Q268. BATTLE OF PLASSEY WAS FOUGHT IN:
OPTIONS
A. 1757
B. 1764
C. 1857
D. 1526
ANSWER
A. 1757
EXPLANATION
BRITISH DEFEATED SIRAJ-UD-DAULAH IN BATTLE OF PLASSEY.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2022
SSC MTS 2023
Q269. BATTLE OF BUXAR WAS FOUGHT IN:
OPTIONS
A. 1757
B. 1764
C. 1857
D. 1773
ANSWER
B. 1764
EXPLANATION
BATTLE OF BUXAR STRENGTHENED BRITISH CONTROL IN INDIA.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2021
SSC CHSL 2023
Q270. BATTLE OF HALDIGHATI WAS FOUGHT BETWEEN AKBAR AND:
OPTIONS
A. RANA PRATAP
B. SHIVAJI
C. RANJIT SINGH
D. HEMU
ANSWER
A. RANA PRATAP
EXPLANATION
BATTLE OF HALDIGHATI TOOK PLACE IN 1576.
ASKED IN
SSC GD 2023
SSC MTS 2024
TOPIC 129 – IMPORTANT CONGRESS SESSIONS
IMPORTANT HIGHLIGHTS
CONGRESS SESSIONS AND RESOLUTIONS ARE IMPORTANT.
Q271. LAHORE SESSION OF CONGRESS WAS HELD IN:
OPTIONS
A. 1920
B. 1929
C. 1931
D. 1942
ANSWER
B. 1929
EXPLANATION
PURNA SWARAJ RESOLUTION WAS PASSED IN LAHORE SESSION.
ASKED IN
SSC CGL 2022
SSC CHSL 2023
Q272. SURAT SPLIT OCCURRED IN:
OPTIONS
A. 1885
B. 1905
C. 1907
D. 1916
ANSWER
C. 1907
EXPLANATION
CONGRESS SPLIT INTO MODERATES AND EXTREMISTS IN SURAT.
ASKED IN
